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  • Returning a variable in a public void...

    - by James Rattray
    Hello, I'm abit new to programming Android App's, however I have come across a problem, I can't find a way to make global variables -unlike other coding like php or VB.NET, are global variables possible? If not can someone find a way (and if possible implement the way into the code I will provide below) to get a value from the variable 'songtoplay' so I can use in another Public Void... Here is the code: final Spinner hubSpinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.myspinner); ArrayAdapter adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.colours, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter .setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); hubSpinner.setAdapter(adapter); // hubSpinner.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView, View selectedItemView, int position, long id) { //code Object ttestt = hubSpinner.getSelectedItem(); final String test2 = ttestt.toString(); Toast message1 = Toast.makeText(Textbox.this, test2, Toast.LENGTH_LONG); message1.show(); String songtoplay = test2; // Need songtoplay to be available in another 'Public Void' } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> parentView) { //Code } }); Basically, it gets the value from the Spinner 'hubSpinner' and displays it in a Toast. I then want it to return a value for string variable 'songtoplay' -or find a way to make it global or useable in another Public Void, (Which is will a button, -loading the song to be played) Please help me, Thanks alot. James

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  • Django + Virtualenv: manage.py commands fail with ImportError of project name.

    - by Bartek
    This is blowing my mind because it's probably an easy solution, but I can't figure out what could be causing this. So I have a new dev box and am setting everything up. I installed virtualenv, created a new environment for my project under ~/.virtualenvs/projectname Then, I cloned my project from github into my projects directory. Nothing fancy here. There are no .pyc files sitting around so it's a clean slate of code. Then, I activated my virtualenv and installed Django via pip. All looks good so far. Then, I run python manage.py syncdb within my project dir. This is where I get confused: ImportError: No module named projectname So I figured I may have had some references of projectname within my code. So I grep (ack, actually) through my code base and I find nothing of the sorts. So now I'm at a loss, given this environment why am I getting an ImportError on a module named projectname that isn't referenced anywhere in my code? I look forward to a solution .. thanks guys!

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  • Shell script task status monitoring

    - by Bikram Agarwal
    I'm running an ANT task in background and checking in 60 second intervals whether that task is complete or not. If it is not, every 60 seconds, a message should be displayed on screen - "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started", where $slept is 60, 120, 180 n so on. There's a limit of 1200 seconds, after which the script will show the log via 'ant log' command and ask the user whether to continue. If the user chooses to continue, 300 seconds are added to the time limit and the process repeats. The code that I am using for this task is - ant deploy & limit=1200 deploy_check() { while [ ${slept:-0} -le $limit ]; do sleep 60 && slept=`expr ${slept:-0} + 60` if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started." else wait $! && echo "Application ${New_App_Name} deployed successfully" || echo "Deployment of ${New_App_Name} failed" break fi done } deploy_check if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process did not finish in $slept seconds. Here's the log." ant log echo "Do you want to kill the process? Press Ctrl+C to kill. Press Enter to continue." read log limit=`expr ${limit} + 300` deploy_check fi Now, the problem is - this code is not working. This looks like a perfectly good code and yet, this is not working. Can anyone point out what is wrong with this code, please.

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  • to connect matlab with java

    - by user304005
    Through the below given code I was able to connect to matlab. But I was not able to execute the script file containing matlab code...Please help me to modify the code so as to execute the matlab code.... Here luck2 is a .m file.... import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.io.*; public class matlab { private static File myMATLABScript; public static String runScript(File luck2) { String output = "" ; String error = ""; try { String commandToRun ="C:\\Program Files\\MATLAB\\R2009a\\bin\\matlab -nodisplay <" + "Z:\\sem\\java\\luck2"; //String commandToRun = "matlab -nosplash -r myMATLABScript -nodisplay -nodesktop < " + opentxt; System.out.println(commandToRun); Process p = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(commandToRun); String s; BufferedReader stdInput = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream())); BufferedReader stdError = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getErrorStream())); System.out.println("\nHere is the standard output of the command:\n"); while ((s = stdInput.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println("haiiiiiiiiiiii"); output = s + "\n"; System.out.println(s); } while ((s = stdError.readLine()) != null) { error = s + "\n"; System.out.println(s); } } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("exception happened here what I know:"); e.printStackTrace(); System.exit(-1); } return output + error; } public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { matlab m = new matlab(); matlab.runScript(myMATLABScript); //matlab.runScript(); } }

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  • how avoids deadlock condition

    - by rima
    Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

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  • Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object?

    - by Bill
    I am programming in C#; the code was working about a week ago, however it throws an exception and I don't understand at all what could be wrong with it. Var root = new CalculationNode(); -> Throw exception. In the call stack thats the only thing listed, I've been told that it could be that I need a clean build, but I am open to any ideas or suggestions. Thanks, -Bill Update: Exception's Detail System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled by user code Message=Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object. Source=Calculator.Logic StackTrace: at ~.Calculator.Logic.MyBaseExpressionParser.Parse(String expression) in ~\Source\Calculator.Logic\MyBaseExpressionParser.cs:line 44 at ~.Calculator.Logic.Tests.MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.BasicMathDivision() in ~\Projects\Tests\Calculator.Logic.Tests\MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.cs:line 60 InnerException: CalculationNode's code: public sealed calss CalculationNode { public CalculationNode() { this.Left = null; this.Right = null; this.Element = new CalculationElement(); } public CalculationNode Left {get;set;} public CalculationNode Right {get;set;} public CalculationElement Element {get; set;} } CalculationElement's code: public sealed class CalculationElement { public CalculationElement() { Value = string.Empty; IsOperator = false; } public string Value {get; set} public bool IsOperator {get; set} }

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  • How can I show print statements in debug mode of OPNET Modeler?

    - by Here now
    I'm writing C++ code in OPNET Modeler. I try to simulate my scenario in debugger mode & I need to trace the function that I wrote it. I need to show print statements which I put it in my code. I used in debugger mode: ***ltr function_name()*** then ***c*** But the result looks like: Type 'help' for Command Summary ODB> ltr enqueue_packet() Added trace #0: trace on label (enqueue_packet()) ODB> c |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 52 sec.); Events (500,002) | | Speed: Average (82,575 events/sec.); Current (82,575 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (6.1 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 55 sec.); Events (1,000,002) | | Speed: Average (69,027 events/sec.); Current (59,298 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (14 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 59 sec.); Events (1,500,002) | | Speed: Average (51,464 events/sec.); Current (34,108 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (29 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Simulation Completed - Collating Results. | | Events: Total (1,591,301); Average Speed (48,803 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (33 sec.); Simulated (2 min. 0 sec.) | | DES Log: 29 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Reading network model. | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| I need to show the print statements in my code. Where it has to be appeared? Is there any step before run the simulation to insure that OPNET debugger using Visual Studio & go through my code??

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  • ibatis throwing NullPointerException

    - by Prashant P
    i am trying to test ibatis with DB. I get NullPointerException. Below are the class and ibatis bean config, <select id="getByWorkplaceId" parameterClass="java.lang.Integer" resultMap="result"> select * from WorkDetails where workplaceCode=#workplaceCode# </select> <select id="getWorkplace" resultClass="com.ibatis.text.WorkDetails"> select * from WorkDetails </select> POJO public class WorkplaceDetail implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -6760386803958725272L; private int code; private String plant; private String compRegNum; private String numOfEmps; private String typeIndst; private String typeProd; private String note1; private String note2; private String note3; private String note4; private String note5; } DAOimplementation public class WorkplaceDetailImpl implements WorkplaceDetailsDAO { private SqlMapClient sqlMapClient; public void setSqlMapClient(SqlMapClient sqlMapClient) { this.sqlMapClient = sqlMapClient; } @Override public WorkplaceDetail getWorkplaceDetail(int code) { WorkplaceDetail workplaceDetail=new WorkplaceDetail(); try{ **workplaceDetail= (WorkplaceDetail) this.sqlMapClient.queryForObject("workplaceDetail.getByWorkplaceId", code);** }catch (SQLException sqlex){ sqlex.printStackTrace(); } return workplaceDetail; } TestCode public class TestDAO { public static void main(String args[]) throws Exception{ WorkplaceDetail wd = new WorkplaceDetail(126, "Hoonkee", "1234", "22", "Service", "Tele", "hsgd","hsgd","hsgd","hsgd","hsgd"); WorkplaceDetailImpl impl= new WorkplaceDetailImpl(); **impl.getWorkplaceDetail(wd.getCode());** impl.saveOrUpdateWorkplaceDetails(wd); System.out.println("dhsd"+impl); } } I want to select and insert. I have marked as ** ** as a point of exception in above code Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NullPointerException at com.ibatis.text.WorkplaceDetailImpl.getWorkplaceDetail(WorkplaceDetailImpl.java:19) at com.ibatis.text.TestDAO.main(TestDAO.java:11)

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  • phpUnit - mock php extended exception object

    - by awongh
    I'm testing some legacy code that extends the default php exception object. This code prints out a custom HTML error message. I would like to mock this exception object in such a way that when the tested code generates an exception it will just echo the basic message instead of giving me the whole HTML message. I cannot figure out a way to do this. It seems like you can test for explicit exceptions, but you can't change in a general way the behavior of an exception, and you also can't mock up an object that extends a default php functionality. ( can't think of another example of this beyond exceptions... but it would seem to be the case ) I guess the problem is, where would you attach the mocked object?? It seems like you can't interfere with 'throw new' and this is the place that the object method is called.... Or if you could somehow use the existing phpunit exception functionality to change the exception behavior the way you want, in a general way for all your code... but this seems like it would be hacky and bad....

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  • Android GPS cloud of confusion!

    - by Anthony Forloney
    I am trying to design my first Android application with the use of GPS. As of right now, I have a drawable button that when clicked, alerts a Toast message of the longitude and latitude. I have tried to use the telnet localhost 5554 and then geo fix #number #number to feed in values but no results display just 0 0. I have also tried DDMS way of sending GPS coordinates and I get the same thing. My question is what exactly is the code equivalent to the geo fix and the DDMS way of sending coordinates. I have used Location, LocationManger and LocationListener but I am not sure which is the right choice. Could anyone explain to me what the code-equivalent just so I can get a better understanding of how to fix my application not working. Code is given, just in case if the error exists with the code @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); Button button = (Button) findViewById(R.id.track); button.setOnClickListener(this); LocationManager location =(LocationManager)getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Location loc = location.getLastKnownLocation(location.GPS_PROVIDER); updateWithNewLocation(loc); } private final LocationListener locationListener = new LocationListener() { public void onLocationChanged(Location location) { updateWithNewLocation(location); } private void updateWithNewLocation(Location l) { longitude = l.getLongitude(); latitude = l.getLatitude(); provider = l.getProvider(); } public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(this, "Your location is " + longitude + " and " + latitude + " provided by: " + provider, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }

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  • jQuery .html not writing span on page load, rights the span on ajax response

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a bit of a calendar I'm building with events that go beyond the boundary of one day. I've got a graph which shows how many events are running concurrently. In order to graph out the events which go into another day, I look for hours24, and run an extra bit of code. jQuery('li#hour'+placeGroup+'_'+schedDay2+'_'+thisHour,nextDay).data('count', numStaff).html(''+printHour+''+numEvents+' scheduled').css('height',numEvents*5+'px'); The code is working, the li items are being found, proper height is the css is being applied, data is set, which I've checked by running alert(jQuery('li#hour'+placeGroup+'_'+schedDay2+'_'+thisHour,nextDay).data('count')); right after the pervious bit of code. The only thing that isn't being done is the .html(add span) stuff. I run this code in two places. Once when the page loads, and once when an action is taken which changes the number of events via an ajax response. The li DOM object I'm writting to is created before the script is run, and the height is being applied, but not the span, and only on page load. Any ideas on this one? I'm stumped.

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  • firefox lead dot in cookie issue

    - by Jon
    Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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  • XMLHttpRequest() and Google Analytics Tracking

    - by sjw
    I have implemented an XMLHttpRequest() call to a standalone html page which simply has an html, title & body tag which Google Analytics Tracking code. I want to track when someone makes a request to display information (i.e. phone number) to try and understand what portion of people look at my directory versus obtaining a phone number to make a call. It is very simple code: var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhReq.open("GET", "/registerPhoneClick.htm?id=" + id, false); xhReq.send(null); var serverResponse = xhReq.responseText Yet I cannot see the "hit" in Analytics... Has anyone had this issue? All the analytics tracking code does is call: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-XXXXXXX"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> So realistically, my XmlHTTPRequest() calls an htm file within which a script is execute to make an outbound call to Google Analytics. Is there any reason why an XmlHTTPRequest() would not execute this? Does an XmlHTTPRequest() still bring the code to the client before execution? Help Please

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  • Given a main function and a cleanup function, how (canonically) do I return an exit status in Bash/Linux?

    - by Zac B
    Context: I have a bash script (a wrapper for other scripts, really), that does the following pseudocode: do a main function if the main function returns: $returncode = $? #most recent return code if the main function runs longer than a timeout: kill the main function $returncode = 140 #the semi-canonical "exceeded allowed wall clock time" status run a cleanup function if the cleanup function returns an error: #nonzero return code exit $? #exit the program with the status returned from the cleanup function else #cleanup was successful .... Question: What should happen after the last line? If the cleanup function was successful, but the main function was not, should my program return 0 (for the successful cleanup), or $returncode, which contains the (possibly nonzero and unsuccessful) return code of the main function? For a specific application, the answer would be easy: "it depends on what you need the script for." However, this is more of a general/canonical question (and if this is the wrong place for it, kill it with fire): in Bash (or Linux in general) programming, do you typically want to return the status that "means" something (i.e. $returncode) or do you ignore such subjectivities and simply return the code of the most recent function? This isn't Bash-specific: if I have a standalone executable of any kind, how, canonically should it behave in these cases? Obviously, this is somewhat debatable. Even if there is a system for these things, I'm sure that a lot of people ignore it. All the same, I'd like to know. Cheers!

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  • Where is the Open Source alternative to WPF?

    - by Evan Plaice
    If we've learned anything from HTML/CSS it's that, declarative languages (like XML) work best to describe User Interfaces because: It's easy to build code preprocessors that can template the code effectively. The code is in a well defined well structured (ideally) format so it's easy to parse. The technology to effectively parse or crawl an XML based source file already exists. The UIs scripted code becomes much simpler and easier to understand. It simple enough that designers are able to design the interface themselves. Programmers suck at creating UIs so it should be made easy enough for designers. I recently took a look at the meat of a WPF application (ie. the XAML) and it looks surprisingly familiar to the declarative language style used in HTML. It's blindingly apparent to me that the current state of desktop UI development is largely fractionalized, otherwise there wouldn't be so much duplicated effort in the domain of user interfaces (IE. GTK, XUL, Qt, Winforms, WPF, etc). There are 45 GUI platforms for Python alone It's painfully obvious to me that there should be a general purpose, open source, standardized, platform independent, markup language for designing desktop GUIs. Much like what the W3C made HTML/CSS into. WPF, or more specifically XAML seems like a pretty likely step in the right direction. Why hasn't anyone in the Open Source community (AFAIK) even scratched the surface of this issue. Now that the 'browser wars' are over should we look forward to a future of 'desktop gui wars?' Note: This topic is relatively subjective in the attempt to be 'future-thinking.' I think that desktop GUI development in its current state sucks ((really)hard) and, even though WPF is still in it's infancy, it presents a likely solution to the problem. Has no one in the OS community looked into developing something similar because they don't see the value, or because it's not worth the effort?

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  • Go - Using a map for its set properties with user defined types

    - by Seth Hoenig
    I'm trying to use the built-in map type as a set for a type of my own (Point, in this case). The problem is, when I assign a Point to the map, and then later create a new, but equal point and use it as a key, the map behaves as though that key is not in the map. Is this not possible to do? // maptest.go package main import "fmt" func main() { set := make(map[*Point]bool) printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 0)] = true printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 2)] = true printSet(set) _, ok := set[NewPoint(3, 3)] // not in map if !ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for non existent element\n") } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for non existent element\n") } c, ok := set[NewPoint(0, 2)] // another one just like it already in map if ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for existent element\n") // should get this } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for existent element\n") // get this } fmt.Printf("c: %t\n", c) } func printSet(stuff map[*Point]bool) { fmt.Print("Set:\n") for k, v := range stuff { fmt.Printf("%s: %t\n", k, v) } } type Point struct { row int col int } func NewPoint(r, c int) *Point { return &Point{r, c} } func (p *Point) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("{%d, %d}", p.row, p.col) } func (p *Point) Eq(o *Point) bool { return p.row == o.row && p.col == o.col }

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  • Javascript AJAX function not working properly

    - by Or W
    I have a function that sends a GET request to a php script and checks if the script returned any output. It works great, but when I try to add another function that checks for something similar, both of them fail. What am I missing? function checkUsername(usr,n) { var user = usr.val(), xmlhttp; //var str = document.getElementById('email').value; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { //document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; if (xmlhttp.responseText != "") { usr.addClass( "ui-state-error" ); updateTips( n ); return false; } else { return true; } } } xmlhttp.open("GET","ajaxValidate.php?type=user&q="+user,true); xmlhttp.send(); } The above works perfectly, when adding this function, none of them work: function checkEmail(em,n) { var email = em.val(), xmlhttp; //var str = document.getElementById('email').value; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { //document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; if (xmlhttp.responseText != "") { em.addClass( "ui-state-error" ); updateTips( n ); return false; } else { return true; } } } xmlhttp.open("GET","ajaxValidate.php?type=email&q="+email,true); xmlhttp.send(); }

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  • How to query AD to get name email from lan id

    - by Kumar
    I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

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  • Changing <object> height and width works in Chrome but not Firefox or IE. Why?

    - by Michael Hopkins
    I am making a site with two Youtube videos. These videos use the raw embed code from Youtube. The site's design doesn't work with any of the default Youtube sizes, so I am writing code to automatically resize the video. Here is my code. There will never be more than these two tags on the page, otherwise I'd do a better job selecting the videos. <script language='JavaScript' type='text/javascript'> var x=document.getElementsByTagName('object'); x.[0].width='350'; x.[0].height='350'; x.[1].width='350'; x.[1].height='350'; </script> For reference, here's a sample default Youtube embed that the code might alter: <object width="480" height="385"> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube-nocookie.com/v/zSgiXGELjbc&hl=en_US&fs=1&rel=0"></param> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param> <embed src="http://www.youtube-nocookie.com/v/zSgiXGELjbc&hl=en_US&fs=1&rel=0" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="480" height="385"></embed> </object> In Chrome, the video players sit perfectly in a 350x350 box. In IE and FF (latest versions), the videos are the unchanged, normal size. I cannot find anything in Google that explans why this won't work. I have tried using setattribute, for loops, adjusting both and , single-quotes and double-quotes, etc. Any ideas what is going wrong?

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  • submitting the form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

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  • How do I add two alternating UITableViews to an existing UINavigationController view?

    - by Ron Flax
    I'm new to iPhone development and I am writing an iPhone app that needs two different table views, which are selectable using a button bar or tab bar. These table views are both the same size, but only cover about two thirds of the screen from the bottom up. The top portion of the screen remains the same when either of these tables is displayed. I'd also like to animate (flip) these views when the user selects one or the other. The view that these two tables will be displayed on is the detail view of my app where the user has already selected an item from the primary screen's table. I'm using a UINavigationController to manage the primary and detail views and I have this working. I also have the first of these two detail tables working as part of my detail view, but I think it makes more sense to isolate the code for these two tables and not duplicate all of the code for the part of the detail view that doesn't change. I don't really care how these two table views are created (either in code or via IB). I've tried several things and I can't seem to figure it out. Any help or ideas (with sample code) would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Problem in inferring instances that have integer cardinality constraint

    - by Mikae Combarado
    Hello, I have created an RDF/OWL file using Protege 4.1 alpha. I also created a defined class in Protege called CheapPhone. This class has a restriction which is shown below : (hasPrice some integer[< 350]) Whenever, a price of a phone is below 350, it is inferred as CheapPhone. There is no problem for inferring this in Protege 4.1 alpha. However, I cannot infer this using Jena. I also created a defined class called SmartPhone. This class also has a restriction which is shown below : (has3G value true) and (hasInternet value true) Whenever, a phone has 3G and Internet, it is inferred as SmartPhone. In this situation, there is no problem inferring this in both Protege and Jena. I have started to think that there is a problem in default inference engine of Jena. The code that I use in Java is below : Reasoner reasoner = ReasonerRegistry.getOWLReasoner(); reasoner = reasoner.bindSchema(ontModel); OntModelSpec ontModelSpec = OntModelSpec.OWL_MEM_MINI_RULE_INF; ontModelSpec.setReasoner(reasoner); // Create ontology model with reasoner support // ontModel was created and read before, so I don't share the code in order // not to create garbage here OntModel model = ModelFactory.createOntologyModel(ontModelSpec, ontModel); OntClass sPhone = model.getOntClass(ns + "SmartPhone"); ExtendedIterator s = sPhone.listInstances(); while(s.hasNext()) { OntResource mp = (OntResource)s.next(); System.out.println(mp.getURI()); } This code works perfectly and returns me the instances, but when I change the code below and make it appropriate for CheapPhone, it doesn't return anything. OntClass sPhone = model.getOntClass(ns + "CheapPhone"); Am I doing something wrong ?

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  • how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

    - by Jean-Denis Muys
    My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

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