Search Results

Search found 21343 results on 854 pages for 'pass by reference'.

Page 663/854 | < Previous Page | 659 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670  | Next Page >

  • Powershell Regex help in extracting text between strings

    - by vivekeviv
    i Have an arguments like the one below which i pass to powershell script -arg1 -abc -def -arg2 -ghi -jkl -arg3 -123 -234 Now i need to extract three strings without any whitespace string 1: "-abc -def" string 2: "-ghi -jkl" string 3: "-123 -234" i figured this expression could do it. But this doesnt seem to work. $args -match '-arg1(?'arg1'.*?) -arg3(?'arg3'.*?) -arg3(?'arg3'.*)'. THis should return $matches['arg1'] etc. So whats wrong in above expression. Why do i get an error as shown below runScript.ps1 -arg1 -abc -def -arg2 -ghi -jkl -arg3 -123 -234 Unexpected token 'arg1'.?) -arg2 (?'arg2'.?) -arg3 (?'arg3'.)'' in expression or statement. At G:\powershell\tools\powershell\runTest.ps1:1 char:71 + $args -match '-arg1 (?'arg1'.?) -arg2 (?'arg2'.?) -arg3 (?'arg3'.)' <<<< + CategoryInfo : ParserError: (arg1'.?) -arg2...g3 (?'arg3'.)':String) [], ParseException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : UnexpectedToken and also the second question is how do i make arg1 or arg2 or arg3 optional? The argument to script can be -arg2 -def -ghi. I'll take some default values for arg(1|2|3) that is not mentioned. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Create Generic method constraining T to an Enum

    - by johnc
    I'm building a function to extend the Enum.Parse concept that allows a default value to be parsed in case that an Enum value is not found Is case insensitive So I wrote the following public static T GetEnumFromString<T>(string value, T defaultValue) where T : Enum { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) return defaultValue; foreach (T item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(T))) { if (item.ToString().ToLower().Equals(value.Trim().ToLower())) return item; } return defaultValue; } I am getting a Error Constraint cannot be special class 'System.Enum' Fair enough, but is there a workaround to allow a Generic Enum, or am I going to have to mimic the Parse function and pass a type as an attribute, which forces the ugly boxing requirement to your code. EDIT All suggestions below have been greatly appreciated, thanks Have settled on (I've left the loop to maintain case insensitivity - I am usng this when parsing XML) public static class EnumUtils { public static T ParseEnum<T>(string value, T defaultValue) where T : struct, IConvertible { if (!typeof(T).IsEnum) throw new ArgumentException("T must be an enumerated type"); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) return defaultValue; foreach (T item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(T))) { if (item.ToString().ToLower().Equals(value.Trim().ToLower())) return item; } return defaultValue; } }

    Read the article

  • Broadcasting an intent to a specific component.

    - by Nic Strong
    I have an activity that is starting a background operation in another service. This activity receives various notifications from this service. As part of the intent I use to initiate the background operation I pass extra data with the context of my activity so the background service can broadcast intents back to me (the download service is a good example of this usage). So in the activity I use the following to attach the context: intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_PACKAGE, IntentTestActivity.this.getPackageName()); intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_CLASS, IntentTestActivity.class.getCanonicalName()); intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_EXTRAS, myContext); I register for the notifications in the activity: IntentFilter intentFilter = new IntentFilter(); intentFilter.addAction(Intents.ACTION_NOTIFICATION); intentFilter.addCategory(Intents.CATEGORY_COMPLETION); intentFilter.addCategory(Intents.CATEGORY_PROGRESSS); Intent intent = registerReceiver(receiver, intentFilter); In the background service I send notifications with the following code: void broadcastNotification(String action, String category, String packageName, String className, String extras, int operationResult) { Intent intent = new Intent(action); intent.addCategory(category); intent.setClassName(packageName, className); if (extras != null) { intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_EXTRAS, extras); } intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_OPERATION_RESULT, operationResult); context.sendBroadcast(intent); } My problem is that the above broadcast will never be received. If however I comment out the line intent.setClassName(packageName, className); Then the broadcast is received. Is it a problem with my filter? Do I have to specify intents intended for a specific component? Or cannot I not use such fine grain control over the delivery of broadcasts. Thanks, Nic

    Read the article

  • How do i transfer this unmanaged code from asp to asp.net 2/mvc?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, i'm a newbie to ASP.net interop features, so what i have right here is some unmanaged dll that i need to call from my asp.net mvc app. the dll name is CTSerialNumChecksum.dll set CheckSumObj = Server.CreateObject("CTSerialNumChecksum.CRC32API") validSno = CheckSumObj.ValidateSerialNumber(no) i know it's unmanaged because when i try to add reference to the dll it doesn't work. i try to follow some tutorials on interop and marshalling but thus far i wasn't able to get the code to work. i'm trying to wrap the object into another static class and just let the rest of the app to call the code. using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace OnlineRegisteration.Models { public static class SerialNumberChecksum { [DllImport("CTSerialNumChecksum")] public static extern int ValidateSerialNumber(string serialNo); } } Questions: How do i write the class? And what tool can i use to identify what type of dll a particular file is, i.e. unmanaged c++, etc? Also i intend to make use jquery to do ajax call later so i can use this to validate my form pre-submission. Is there a better way to handle this?

    Read the article

  • Fast JSON serialization (and comparison with Pickle) for cluster computing in Python?

    - by user248237
    I have a set of data points, each described by a dictionary. The processing of each data point is independent and I submit each one as a separate job to a cluster. Each data point has a unique name, and my cluster submission wrapper simply calls a script that takes a data point's name and a file describing all the data points. That script then accesses the data point from the file and performs the computation. Since each job has to load the set of all points only to retrieve the point to be run, I wanted to optimize this step by serializing the file describing the set of points into an easily retrievable format. I tried using JSONpickle, using the following method, to serialize a dictionary describing all the data points to file: def json_serialize(obj, filename, use_jsonpickle=True): f = open(filename, 'w') if use_jsonpickle: import jsonpickle json_obj = jsonpickle.encode(obj) f.write(json_obj) else: simplejson.dump(obj, f, indent=1) f.close() The dictionary contains very simple objects (lists, strings, floats, etc.) and has a total of 54,000 keys. The json file is ~20 Megabytes in size. It takes ~20 seconds to load this file into memory, which seems very slow to me. I switched to using pickle with the same exact object, and found that it generates a file that's about 7.8 megabytes in size, and can be loaded in ~1-2 seconds. This is a significant improvement, but it still seems like loading of a small object (less than 100,000 entries) should be faster. Aside from that, pickle is not human readable, which was the big advantage of JSON for me. Is there a way to use JSON to get similar or better speed ups? If not, do you have other ideas on structuring this? (Is the right solution to simply "slice" the file describing each event into a separate file and pass that on to the script that runs a data point in a cluster job? It seems like that could lead to a proliferation of files). thanks.

    Read the article

  • Does the COM server have to call SysFreeString() for an [out] parameter?

    - by sharptooth
    We have the following interface: [object, uuid("uuidhere"), dual ] interface IInterface : IDispatch { [id(1), propget] HRESULT CoolProperty( [out, retval] BSTR* result ); } Now there's a minor problem. On one hand the parameter is "out" and so any value can be passed as input, the parameter will become valid only upon the successful return. On the other hand, there's this MSDN article which is linked to from many pages that basically says (the last paragraph) that if any function is passed a BSTR* it must free the string before assigning a new string. That's horrifying. If that article is right it means that all the callers must surely pass valid BSTRs (maybe null BSTRs), otherwise BSTR passed can be leaked. If the caller passed a random value and the callee tries to call SysFreeString() it runs into undefined behavior, so the convention is critical. Then what's the point in the [out] attribute? What will be the difference between the [in, out] and [out] in this situation? Is that article right? Do I need to free the passed BSTR [out] parameter before assigning a new one?

    Read the article

  • What Language Feature Can You Just Not Live Without?

    - by akdom
    I always miss python's built-in doc strings when working in other languages. I know this may seem odd, but it allows me to cut down significantly on excess comments while still providing a clean description of my code and any interfaces therein. What Language Feature Can You Just Not Live Without? If someone were building a new language and they asked you what one feature they absolutely must include, what would it be? This is getting kind of long, so I figured I'd do my best to summarize: Paraphrased to be language agnostic. If you know of a language which uses something mentioned, please at it in the parenthesis to the right of the feature. And if you have a better format for this list, by all means try it out (if it doesn't seem to work, I'll just roll back). Regular Expressions ~ torial (Perl) Garbage Collection ~ SaaS Developer (Python, Perl, Ruby, Java, .NET) Anonymous Functions ~ Vinko Vrsalovic (Lisp, Python) Arithmetic Operators ~ Jeremy Ross (Python, Perl, Ruby, Java, C#, Visual Basic, C, C++, Pascal, Smalltalk, etc.) Exception Handling ~ torial (Python, Java, .NET) Pass By Reference ~ Chris (Python) Unified String Format WalloWizard (C#) Generics ~ torial (Python, Java, C#) Integrated Query Equivalent to LINQ ~ Vyrotek (C#) Namespacing ~ Garry Shutler () Short Circuit Logic ~ Adam Bellaire ()

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2: How to write this Linq SQL as a Dynamic Query (using strings)?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Skip to the "specific question" as needed. Some background: The scenario: I have a set of products with a "drill down" filter (Query Object) populated with DDLs. Each progressive DDL selection will further limit the product list as well as what options are left for the DDLs. For example, selecting a hammer out of tools limits the Product Sizes to only show hammer sizes. Current setup: I created a query object, sent it to a repository, and fed each option to a SQL "table valued function" where null values represent "get all products". I consider this a good effort, but far from DDD acceptable. I want to avoid any "programming" in SQL, hopefully doing everything with a repository. Comments on this topic would be appreciated. Specific question: How would I rewrite this query as a Dynamic Query? A link to something like 101 Linq Examples would be fantastic, but with a Dynamic Query scope. I really want to pass to this method the field in quotes "" for which I want a list of options and how many products have that option. (from p in db.Products group p by p.ProductSize into g select new Category { PropertyType = g.Key, Count = g.Count() }).Distinct(); Each DDL option will have "The selection (21)" where the (21) is the quantity of products that have that attribute. Upon selecting an option, all other remaining DDLs will update with the remaining options and counts.

    Read the article

  • Output iterator's value_type

    - by wilhelmtell
    The STL commonly defines an output iterator like so: template<class Cont> class insert_iterator : public iterator<output_iterator_tag,void,void,void,void> { // ... Why do output iterators define value_type as void? It would be useful for an algorithm to know what type of value it is supposed to output. For example, a function that translates a URL query "key1=value1&key2=value2&key3=value3" into any container that holds key-value strings elements. template<typename Ch,typename Tr,typename Out> void parse(const std::basic_string<Ch,Tr>& str, Out result) { std::basic_string<Ch,Tr> key, value; // loop over str, parse into p ... *result = typename iterator_traits<Out>::value_type(key, value); } The SGI reference page of value_type hints this is because it's not possible to dereference an output iterator. But that's not the only use of value_type: I might want to instantiate one in order to assign it to the iterator.

    Read the article

  • Can't place a breakpoint in asp.net master page file

    - by Tony_Henrich
    I have an MVC web application. I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error in line 16 below. It's a master page file. When I try to place a breakpoint in that line or anywhere in the file, I get a "this is not a valid location for a breakpoint" error. I have clicked on every line and I can't place a single breakpoint. I do have lines which have code only. How do I place a breakpoint in this file? Note: I can place breakpoints in code files. In some other aspx files, I can place a breakpoint in some code lines and some not. Does the inline code have to be in a special format to place a breakpoint? Using VS 2010 in Windows 7 64bit. Code: Line 14: <div id="<%= Model.PageWidth %>" class="<%= Model.PageTemplate %>"> Line 15: <div id="hd"> Line 16: <h1><a href="/"><%= Model.Workspace.Title %></a></h1> Line 17: <h2><%= Model.Workspace.Subtitle %></h2> Line 18: </div>

    Read the article

  • Use $_FILES on a page called by .ajax

    - by RachelD
    I have two .php pages that I'm working with. Index.php has a file upload form that posts back to index.php. I can access the $_FILES no problem on index.php after submitting the form. My issue is that I want (after the form submit and the page loads) to use .ajax (jQuery) to call another .php file so that file can open and process some of the rows and return the results to ajax. The ajax then displays the results and recursively calls itself to process the next batch of rows. Basically I want to process (put in the DB etc) the csv in chunks and display it for the user in between chunks. Im doing it this way because the files are 400,000+ rows and the user doesnt want to wait the 10+ min for them all to be processed. I dont want to move this file (save it) because I just need to process it and throw it away and if a user closes the page while its processing the file wont be thrown away. I could cron script it but I dont want to. What I would really like to do is pass the (single) $_FILES through .ajax OR Save it in a $_POST or $_SESSION to use on the second page. Is there any hope for my cause? Heres the ajax code if that helps: function processCSV(startIndex, length) { $.ajax({ url: "ajax-targets/process-csv.php", dataType: "json", type: "POST", data: { startIndex: startIndex, length: length }, timeout: 60000, // 1000 = 1 sec success: function(data) { // JQuery to display the rows from the CSV var newStart = startIndex+length; if(newStart <= data['csvNumRows']) { processCSV(newStart, length); } } }); } processCSV(1, 2); }); P.S. I did try this Passing $_FILES or $_POST to a new page with PHP but its not working for me :( SOS.

    Read the article

  • Why does my DataTemplate break the WPF designer?

    - by PRINCESS FLUFF
    Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

    Read the article

  • In Perl, how can a subroutine get a coderef that points to itself?

    - by hillu
    For learning purposes, I am toying around with the idea of building event-driven programs in Perl and noticed that it might be nice if a subroutine that was registered as an event handler could, on failure, just schedule another call to itself for a later time. So far, I have come up with something like this: my $cb; my $try = 3; $cb = sub { my $rc = do_stuff(); if (!$rc && --$try) { schedule_event($cb, 10); # schedule $cb to be called in 10 seconds } else { do_other_stuff; } }; schedule_event($cb, 0); # schedule initial call to $cb to be performed ASAP Is there a way that code inside the sub can access the coderef to that sub so I could do without using an extra variable? I'd like to schedule the initial call like this. schedule_event( sub { ... }, 0); I first thought of using caller(0)[3], but this only gives me a function name, (__ANON__ if there's no name), not a code reference that has a pad attached to it.

    Read the article

  • Using SVN with a MySQL database ran by xamp - yes or no? (and how?)

    - by Extrakun
    For my current PHP/MySQL project (over a group of 4 to 5 team members), we are using this setup: each developer codes and test on his localhost running xamp, and upload to a test server via SVN. One question that I have now is how to synchronize the MySQL database? I may have added a new table to project and the PHP code references to it, so my other team members would need to access that table for my code (once they got it through SVN) to work. We are not always working in the same office all the time, so having a LAN and a MySQL server in the office is not feasible. So I am toying with 2 solutions Setup a test DB online, and have all the coders will reference to that, even when coding from localhost. Downside: you can't test if you happen not have internet access. Somehow sync the localhost copy of MySQL DB. Is that kind of silly? And if I do consider this, how do I do it? (which folder do I add to SVN?) (I guess a related question is how to automatically update the live MySQL DB from the testing DB, regardless if it is on a remote server or hosted locally via xamp. Any advice regarding that would be welcomed!)

    Read the article

  • Jsp page getting called from cache rather than getting loaded from server

    - by sam4u-optimistic86
    I am calling a jsp based on 2 parameters which is passed from jsp 1 in this way.Below i pass 2 parameters into 2.jsp and based on these 2 parameters data is displayed in 2.jsp.I have a loop in which i have a number of hrefs like the one i have described below.Each of these href passes a different set of value to 2.jsp. out.println("<a href=\"2.jsp?prId=" + prog.getId() + count + "\">" + prog.getName() + "</a>"); I retrieve these 2 parameters in 2.jsp using the following lines count_id = request.getParameter( "country_id" ); prog_id = Integer.parseInt(request.getParameter( "program_id" )); Based on these 2 parameters i show the corresponding data in 2.jsp Now i have a back button in 2.jsp and i call 1.jsp in 2.jsp using the following code <a href="1.jsp"><img src="/image/back.gif" border="0"></a> The problem is when i use the back button and go back to 1.jsp and select another href like the one i have described above i get the data related to the previous href selected. I guess the problem is when i request the page is loaded from cache rather than from the server. Please advice

    Read the article

  • VS 2008 designer and usercontrol.

    - by Ram
    Hello, I have created a custom data grid control. I dragged it on windows form and set its properties like column and all & ran the project. It built successfully and I am able to view the grid control on the form. Now if i try to view that form in designer, I am getting following error.. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Instances of this error (1) 1. Hide Call Stack at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.GetMemberTargetObject(XmlElementData xmlElementData, String& member) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.CreateAssignStatement(XmlElementData xmlElement) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.XmlElementData.get_CodeDomElement() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.EndElement(String prefix, String name, String urn) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.Parse(XmlReader reader) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.ParseXml(String xmlStream, CodeStatementCollection statementCollection, String fileName, String methodName) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomParser.OnMethodPopulateStatements(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.CodeDom.CodeMemberMethod.get_Statements() at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.TypeCodeDomSerializer.Deserialize(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeTypeDeclaration declaration) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager manager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager serializationManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.DeferredLoadHandler.Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextManager.Interop.IVsTextBufferDataEvents.OnLoadCompleted(Int32 fReload) If I ignore the exception, form appears blank with no sign of grid control on it. However I can see the code for the grid in the designer file. Any pointer on this would be a great help. I have customized grid for my custom requirements like I have added custom text box n all. I have defined 3 constructors public GridControl() public GridControl(IContainer container) protected GridControl(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context)

    Read the article

  • Passing an NSDate

    - by Garry
    I'm new to the iPhone and objective-c and I am still trying to get my head around ownership of objects so bear with me. I have a DOBViewController that has a datepicker on it. I have created a custom init method: -(id)initWithInitialDate(NSDate *)initialDate; Another view controller has a date instance declared (NSDate *dob) that holds a value. I would like to pass this to the DOBViewController so that it can scroll the datepicker to the passed value. Here is the custom init method: - (id)initWithInitialDate:(NSDate *)initialDate { // Initialise ourselves self = [super init]; // Set the date of the date picker if (initialDate != nil) { datePicker.date = initialDate; } else { // Set it to today datePicker.date = [NSDate date]; } return self; } This is how I am sending the dob NSDate object: DOBViewController *dobViewController = [[DOBViewController alloc] initWithInitialDate:dob]; Where dob is a variable of type NSDate that is declared in the header file. This doesn't seem to work as initialDate is always NULL. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Viewstate in a .ashx Handler?

    - by Matt Dawdy
    I've got a handler (list.ashx for example) that has a method that retrieves a large dataset, then grabs only the records that will be shown on any given "page" of data. We are allowing the users to do sorting on these results. So, on any given page run, I will be retrieving a dataset that I just got a few seconds/minutes ago, but reordering them, or showing the next page of data, etc. My point is that my dataset really hasn't changed. Normally, the dataset would be stuck into the viewstate of a page, but since I'm using a handler, I don't have that convenience. At least I don't think so. So, what is a common way to store the viewstate associated with a current user's given page when using a handler? Is there a way to take the dataset, encode it somehow and send that back to the user, and then on the next call, pass it back and then rehydrate a dataset from those bits? I don't think Session would be a good place to store it since we might have 1000 users all viewing different datasets of different data, and that could bring the server to its knees. At least I think so. Does anyone have any experience with this kind of situation, and can you give me any advice?

    Read the article

  • Windows Media Encoder object not created in ASP.NET on MS Server 2003 64 bit

    - by Ron
    Hello, I created (and used) a Windows Media Encoder object in Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition on MS Server 2003 64 bit. This worked fine. However, when I attempted to create the equivalent Windows Media Encoder object using Microsoft Visual Web Developer 2008 on MS Server 2003 64 bit, the following exception was thrown: "Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {632B606A-BBC6-11D2-A329-006097C4E476} failed due to the following error: 80040154." It cannot be that the component isn’t registered, because both have a reference to the same WMEncEng.dll file. The Microsoft Visual Web Developer 2008 code also worked fine on XP 32 bit. Could it be a problem with permissions? Regardless, anyone have any ideas why this problem is occurring and, more importantly, how to resolve it? Thank you. Here are the two code snippets from MS Server 2003 64 bit: Microsoft Visual Web Developer 2008 (did not work): using System; using WMEncoderLib; namespace TestWMEnc { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { WMEncoder encoder = new WMEncoder(); //exception thrown // ... } catch (Exception err) { string exception = err.Message; } } } } Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition (worked fine): using System; using System.Windows.Forms; using WMEncoderLib; namespace testWMEncoder { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { WMEncoder encoder = new WMEncoder(); // ... } catch (Exception err) { string exception = err.Message; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Which languages support *recursive* function literals / anonymous functions?

    - by Hugh Allen
    It seems quite a few mainstream languages support function literals these days. They are also called anonymous functions, but I don't care if they have a name. The important thing is that a function literal is an expression which yields a function which hasn't already been defined elsewhere, so for example in C, &printf doesn't count. EDIT to add: if you have a genuine function literal expression <exp>, you should be able to pass it to a function f(<exp>) or immediately apply it to an argument, ie. <exp>(5). I'm curious which languages let you write function literals which are recursive. Wikipedia's "anonymous recursion" article doesn't give any programming examples. Let's use the recursive factorial function as the example. Here are the ones I know: JavaScript / ECMAScript can do it with callee: function(n){if (n<2) {return 1;} else {return n * arguments.callee(n-1);}} it's easy in languages with letrec, eg Haskell (which calls it let): let fac x = if x<2 then 1 else fac (x-1) * x in fac and there are equivalents in Lisp and Scheme. Note that the binding of fac is local to the expression, so the whole expression is in fact an anonymous function. Are there any others?

    Read the article

  • how to know location of return address on stack c/c++

    - by Dr Deo
    i have been reading about a function that can overwrite its return address. void foo(const char* input) { char buf[10]; //What? No extra arguments supplied to printf? //It's a cheap trick to view the stack 8-) //We'll see this trick again when we look at format strings. printf("My stack looks like:\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n% p\n\n"); //%p ie expect pointers //Pass the user input straight to secure code public enemy #1. strcpy(buf, input); printf("%s\n", buf); printf("Now the stack looks like:\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n%p\n\n"); } It was sugggested that this is how the stack would look like Address of foo = 00401000 My stack looks like: 00000000 00000000 7FFDF000 0012FF80 0040108A <-- We want to overwrite the return address for foo. 00410EDE Question: -. Why did the author arbitrarily choose the second last value as the return address of foo()? -. Are values added to the stack from the bottom or from the top? apart from the function return address, what are the other values i apparently see on the stack? ie why isn't it filled with zeros Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • Resolve sibling folder in JavaScript Function

    - by Jamen Chu
    Hi, I am trying to pass into an JavaScript function two paths for an XML and XSLT. It would appear that in the sample HTML below that the use of "../xsl/filename" does not work for me in the xslt() function. If I specify the path as being "./filename" though this does work. Does anyone know how I can work around this or find some way that I can specify a sibling folder without an absolute path reference? I would prefer not to have to change my file paths as my development environment is set up with the xslt's, sample data and source code structured in a particular way. Thanks in advance Jamen <html> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="../lib/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../lib/jquery-1.2.3.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../lib/jquery.xslt.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="bla"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#bla').xslt("../sampledata/response1.xml", "../xslt/resultFormatter.xsl"); //function testjQuery() { // $('#bla').xslt("../sampledata/response1.xml", "../xslt/resultFormatter.xsl"); //} </script> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • How to create an XML document from a .NET object?

    - by JL
    I have the following variable that accepts a file name: var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); I would like to change it so that I can pass in an object. I don't want to have to serialize the object to file first. Is this possible? Update: My original intentions were to take an xml document, merge some xslt (stored in a file), then output and return html... like this: public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } In the above code I am reading in the xml from a file. Now what I would like to do is just work with the object, before it was serialized to the file. So let me illustrate my problem using code public string TransformXMLFromObject(myObjType myobj , string xsltFileName) { // Notice the xslt stays the same. // Its in these next few lines that I can't figure out how to load the xml document (xd) from an object, and not from a file.... var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); }

    Read the article

  • php curl login problem

    - by user331329
    <?php // create a new CURL resource $file_path = '/mail'; define("COOKIE_FILE", "c:\cookie.txt"); $ch = curl_init(); // set URL and other appropriate options curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "https://mail.gov.in/iwc/signin"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, FALSE); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.6) Gecko/20070725 Firefox/2.0.0.6"); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 60); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIESESSION, TRUE); session_write_close(); $strCookie = 'PHPSESSID=d095af0e30afc021dd3652734009' . $_COOKIE['PHPSESSID'] . '; path=/mail'; curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_COOKIE, $strCookie ); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, COOKIE_FILE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, COOKIE_FILE); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,'fromLogin=true&domainName=nic.in&username=&password=&button=Sign%20In'); $url = curl_getinfo($ch); // grab URL and pass it to the browser $data = curl_exec($ch); echo $data."<pre>"; echo "<pre>"; print_r($url); // close CURL resource, and free up system resources curl_close($ch); ?> whats wrong with my code why i am not able to login directly in their mail

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 659 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670  | Next Page >