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• sqrt(int_value + 0.0) -- Does it have a purpose?

  - by Earlz

  Hello, while doing some homework in my very strange C++ book, which I've been told before to throw away, had a very peculiar code segment. I know homework stuff always throws in extra "mystery" to try to confuse you like indenting 2 lines after a single-statement for-loop. But this one I'm confused on because it seems to serve some real-purpose. basically it is like this: int counter=10; ... if(pow(floor(sqrt(counter+0.0)),2) == counter) ... I'm interested in this part especially: sqrt(counter+0.0) Is there some purpose to the +0.0? Is this the poormans way of doing a static cast to a double? Does this avoid some compiler warning on some compiler I do not use? The entire program printed the exact same thing and compiled without warnings on g++ whenever I left out the +0.0 part. Maybe I'm not using a weird enough compiler? Edit: Also, does gcc just break standard and not make an error for Ambiguous reference since sqrt can take 3 different types of parameters? [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ cat calc.cpp #include <cmath> int main(){ int counter=0; sqrt(counter); } [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ g++ calc.cpp /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcpy() is almost always misused, please use strlcpy() /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcat() is almost always misused, please use strlcat() [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $

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• XNA 2D mouse picking

  - by Corndog

  I'm working on a simple 2D Real time strategy game using XNA. Right now I have reached the point where I need to be able to click on the sprite for a unit or building and be able to reference the object associated with that sprite. From the research I have done over the last three days I have found many references on how to do "Mouse picking" in 3D which does not seem to apply to my situation. I understand that another way to do this is to simply have an array of all "selectable" objects in the world and when the player clicks on a sprite it checks the mouse location against the locations of all the objects in the array. the problem I have with this approach is that it would become rather slow if the number of units and buildings grows to larger numbers. (it also does not seem very elegant) so what are some other ways I could do this. (Please note that I have also worked over the ideas of using a Hash table to associate the object with the sprite location, and using a 2 dimensional array where each location in the array represents one pixel in the world. once again they seem like rather clunky ways of doing things.)

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• Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

  - by drasto

  In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

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• not a valid AllXsd value

  - by jun

  I got this from a Soap client request: Exception: SoapFault exception: [soap:Client] Server was unable to read request. --- There is an error in XML document (2, 273). --- The string '2010-5-24' is not a valid AllXsd value. in /path/filinet.php:21 Stack trace: #0 [internal function]: SoapClient-__call('SubIdDetailsByO...', Array) #1 /path/filinet.php(21): SoapClient-SubIdDetailsByOfferId(Array) #2 {main} Seems like I am sending an incorrect value, how do I format my value in an AllXsd in php? Here is my code: <?php $start = isset($_GET['start']) ? $_GET['start'] : date("Y-m-d"); $end = isset($_GET['end']) ? $_GET['end'] : date("Y-m-d"); //define parameter array $param = array('userName'=>'user', 'password'=>'pass', 'startDate' => $start, 'endDate' => $end, 'promotionId' => ''); //Get wsdl path $serverPath = "https://webservices.filinet.com/affiliate/reports.asmx?WSDL"; //Declare Soap client $client = new SoapClient($serverPath); try { //make the call $result = $client->SubIdDetailsByOfferId($param); //If error found display error if(isset($fault)) { echo "Error: ". $fault; } //If no error display response else { //Used to display raw XML in the Web Browser header("Content-Type: text/xml;"); //SubIdDetailsResult = XML results echo $result->SubIdDetailsByOfferIdResult; } } catch(SoapFault $ex) { echo "<b>Exception:</b> ". $ex; } unset($client); ?>

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• Sharepoint: Integrity of lookup fields after a list import

  - by driAn

  Hi there I got a question about the behavior of lookup fields when importing data. I wonder how the lookup fields behave when the list they point to is being replaced/imported. To explain the issue, I will provide a quick example below: As example, assume we have these two sharepoint lists: Product Types ------------- + Type Name + Code Nr + etc Products -------- + Product Name + Product Type (Lookup field to list "Product Types") + etc In my scenario, the Products List contains production data on the production Sharepoint platform. It is filled with data by the business users. However the Product Types list contains rather static data and is maintained by the developer. Now after a development cycle, the developer wants to deploy his new webparts and his new data (product types list). The developer performs the following procedure: On the dev machine: Export "product type" list using stsadm On the production machine: Delete all items in the "product type" list On the production machine: Import the "product type" list using stsadm This means we basically replace the "product type" list on the production server while keeping the "product" list as it is. Now the question: Is this safe? Will the lookup references break under certain circumstances? Any downside of this import/export procedure? What happens if someone accesses a "product" during the import? Will the (now invalid) reference clear its own content (become a null value). What happens if the schema of the "product type" list changes (new column)? Will this cause any troubles? Thanks for all feedback and suggestions!

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• Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

  - by WizardOfOdds

  Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

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• How to mmap the stack for the clone() system call on linux?

  - by Joseph Garvin

  The clone() system call on Linux takes a parameter pointing to the stack for the new created thread to use. The obvious way to do this is to simply malloc some space and pass that, but then you have to be sure you've malloc'd as much stack space as that thread will ever use (hard to predict). I remembered that when using pthreads I didn't have to do this, so I was curious what it did instead. I came across this site which explains, "The best solution, used by the Linux pthreads implementation, is to use mmap to allocate memory, with flags specifying a region of memory which is allocated as it is used. This way, memory is allocated for the stack as it is needed, and a segmentation violation will occur if the system is unable to allocate additional memory." The only context I've ever heard mmap used in is for mapping files into memory, and indeed reading the mmap man page it takes a file descriptor. How can this be used for allocating a stack of dynamic length to give to clone()? Is that site just crazy? ;) In either case, doesn't the kernel need to know how to find a free bunch of memory for a new stack anyway, since that's something it has to do all the time as the user launches new processes? Why does a stack pointer even need to be specified in the first place if the kernel can already figure this out?

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• how to extend a protocol for a delegate in objective C, then subclass an object to require a conform

  - by fess .

  I want to subclass UITextView, and send a new message to the delegate. So, I want to extend the delegate protocol, What's the correct way to do this? I started out with this: interface: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @class MySubClass; @protocol MySubClassDelegate <UITextViewDelegate> - (void) MySubClassMessage: (MySubClass *) subclass; @end @interface MySubClass : UITextView { } @end implementation: #import "MySubClass.h" @implementation MySubClass - (void) SomeMethod; { if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector: @selector (MySubClassMessage:)]) { [self.delegate MySubClassMessage: self]; } } @end however with that I get the warning: '-MySubClassMessage:' not found in protocol(s). I had one way working where I created my own ivar to store the delegate, then also stored the delegate using [super setDelegate] but that seemed wrong. perhaps it's not. I know I can just pass id's around and get by, but My goal is to make sure that the compiler checks that any delegate supplied to MySubClass conforms to MySubClassDelegate protocol. To further clairfy: @interface MySubClassTester : NSObject { } @implementation MySubClassTester - (void) one { MySubClass *subclass = [[MySubClass alloc] init]; subclass.delegate = self; } @end will produce the warning: class 'MySubClassTester' does not implement the 'UITextViewDelegate' protocol I want it to produce the warning about not implementing 'MySubClassDelegate' protocol instead. Thanks, a bunch. (thanks brad)

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• QueryString malformed after URLDecode

  - by pdavis

  I'm trying to pass in a Base64 string into a C#.Net web application via the QueryString. When the string arrives the "+" (plus) sign is being replaced by a space. It appears that the automatic URLDecode process is doing this. I have no control over what is being passed via the QueryString. Is there any way to handle this server side? Example: http://localhost:3399/Base64.aspx?VLTrap=VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8+PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== Produces: VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8 PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== People have suggested URLEncoding the querystring: System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode(yourString) I can't do that as I have no control over the calling routine (which is working fine with other languages). There was also the suggestion of replacing spaces with a plus sign: Request.QueryString["VLTrap"].Replace(" ", "+"); I had though of this but my concern with it, and I should have mentioned this to start, is that I don't know what other characters might be malformed in addition to the plus sign. My main goal is to intercept the QueryString before it is run through the decoder. To this end I tried looking at Request.QueryString.toString() but this contained the same malformed information. Is there any way to look at the raw QueryString before it is URLDecoded? After further testing it appears that .Net expects everything coming in from the QuerString to be URL encoded but the browser does not automatically URL encode GET requests.

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• Nhibernate , collections and compositeid

  - by Ciaran

  Hi, banging my head here and thought that some one out there might be able to help. Have Tables below. Bucket( bucketId smallint (PK) name varchar(50) ) BucketUser( UserId varchar(10) (PK) bucketId smallint (PK) ) The composite key is not the problem thats ok I know how to get around this but I want my bucket class to contanin a IList of BucketUser. I read the online reference and thought that I had cracked it but havent. The two mappings are below -- bucket -- <id name="BucketId" column="BucketId" type="Int16" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property column="BucketName" type="String" name="BucketName"/> <bag name="Users" table="BucketUser" inverse="true" generic="true" lazy="true"> <key> <column name="BucketId" sql-type="smallint"/> <column name="UserId" sql-type="varchar"/> </key> <one-to-many class="Bucket,Impact.Dice.Core" not-found="ignore"/> </bag> -- bucketUser --

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• jQuery .animate() not animating backgroundPosition in IE

  - by mikemike

  I'm trying to animate a background image to move down a set amount of pixels but remain in the center of the page. Upon another click of an element I need it to move back to the top, but still remain in the center. Below is the current code: $(document).ready(function() { $('#email_campaigns').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; if($('#email_campaigns_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#email_campaigns_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#client_login_box').slideUp("slow"); }); $('#client_login').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; alert(width); if($('#client_login_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#client_login_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#email_campaigns_box').slideUp("slow"); }); }); I cannot pass 'center', as it will onyl accept numeric values. My goal is to calulate the center of the page in pixels (width = (width / 2) - 700;), and then animate to this rough position (it's normally out by a few pixels due to scrollbars, and then force to the center using a .css() call. The problem is that IE does not want to play ball. IE will not animate at all. Firefox/Safari/Chrome all work as expected. Below is a live example: http://recklessnewmedia.com/new/# (click 'email campaigns' at the top). Thanks

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• Calling Model Functions from a Library

  - by Abs

  Hello all, I have turned a normal PHP class into a library so I can use it in Codeigniter as a library. I can load it and call the functions I need in that class. Here is that class to help with the question. However, there are quite a few points where I have to call functions in my class. These functions reside in the model that instantiated my class. How can I do this as currently normal calls don't work. Here is my code: class Controlpanel_model extends Model { var $category = ''; var $dataa = 'a'; function Controlpanel_model(){ parent::Model(); } function import_browser_bookmarks(){ $this->load->library('BookmarkParser'); /* *In this function call to the class I pass * what model functions exist that it should call * You can view how this done by clicking the link above and looking at line 383 */ $this->bookmarkparser->parseNetscape("./bookmarks.html", 0, 'myURL', 'myFolder'); return $this->dataa; } function myURL($data, $depth, $no) { $category = $this->category; $this->dataa .= 'Tag = '.$category.'<br />'.'URL = '.$data["url"].'<br />'.'Title = '.$data["descr"].'<br />'.'<br /><br />'; } function myFolder($data, $depth, $no) { $this->category = $data["name"]; } } Thanks all for any help.

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• Repackaging Jasper-Reports into an application specific OSGi bundle, legal or not?

  - by Chris

  Hi, I wanted to ask (probably a silly) question regarding the packaging of existing open-source components as OSGi bundles (more specifically Jasper Reports). I have an application that I am converting from a monolithic jar-hell type architecture to something more moduler and OSGi is my weapon of choice. There are various modules I have in mind but one of the modules is a reporting module. My own reporting module will be a jar file containing my code that should reference a Jasper Reports bundle. Trouble is, Jasper reports depends on far far too many libraries and is quite monolithic in its own right. I therefore wish to build my own Jasper Reports bundle but this is where I start getting confused about the legality of repackaging. I don't plan to re-compile but I do plan to re-bundle removing known items that I do not require. Can anyone offer advice on whether I am permitted to repackage (not recompile or extend) open-source libraries into OSGi bundles without falling foul of 'derivative works' clause of LGPL? I noticed that Groovy seems to offer some monolithic jars that include all dependancies and actually goes so far as to re-arrange the packages of its dependancies so that there are no namespace conflicts. This seems to me to be a violation of the license but if anyone can reassure me that this is legal then I would feel safer about my less intrusive custom-bundling of Jasper reports. Thanks for your time, Chris

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• PJSIP Custom Registration Header (iOS)

  - by Daniel Redington

  I am attempting to setup SIP communication with an internal server (using the PJSIP library), however, this server requires a custom header field with a specified header value for the REGISTRATION call. For example's sake we'll call this required header "MyHeader". From what I've found, the pjsua_acc_add() function will add an account and register it to the server using a config struct. The parameter "reg_hdr_list" of the config struct has the description "The optional custom SIP headers to be put in the registration request." Which sounds like exactly what I need, however doesn't seem to have any effect on the call itself. Here's what I have so far: pjsua_acc_config cfg; pjsua_acc_config_default(&cfg); //...Some other config stuff related to the server... pjsip_hdr test; test.name = pj_str("MyHeader"); test.sname = pj_str("MyHdr"); test.type = PJSIP_H_OTHER; test.prev = cfg.reg_hdr_list.prev; test.next = cfg.reg_hdr_list.next; cfg.reg_hdr_list = test; pj_status_t status; status = pjsua_acc_add(&cfg, PJ_TRUE, &acc_id); From the server side, there are no extra header fields or anything. And the struct that is used to define the header (pjsua_hdr) has no "value" or equivalent field, so even if it did create the header, how does it set the value? Here's the refrence for the header list definition: Link And the reference for the header struct: Link Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Class/Model Level Validation (as opposed to Property Level)? (ASP.NET MVC 2.0)

  - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder

  Basically, what the title says. I have several properties that combine together to really make one logical answer, and i would like to run a server-side validation code (that i write) which take these multiple fields into account and hook up to only one validation output/error message that users see on the webpage. I looked at scott guthries method of extending an attribute and using it in yoru dataannotations declarations, but, as i can see, there is no way to declare a dataannotations-style attribute on multiple properties, and you can only place the declarations (such as [Email], [Range], [Required]) over one property :(. i have looked at the PropertiesMustMatchAttribute in the default mvc 2.0 project that appears when you start a new project, this example is as useful as using a pair of pins to check your motor oil - useless! i have tried this method, however, creating a class level attribute, and have no idea how to display the error from this in my aspx page. i have tried html.ValidationMessage("ClassNameWhereAttributeIsAdded") and a variety of other thing, and it has not worked. and i should mention, there is NOT ONE blog post on doing validation at this level - despite this being a common need in any project or business logic scenario! can anyone help me in having my message displayed in my aspx page, and also if possible a proper document or reference explaining validation at this level?

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• Break on EXC_BAD_ACCESS in XCode?

  - by jasonh

  I'm new to iPhone development and XCode in general and have no idea how to begin troubleshooting an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. How can I get XCode to break at the exact line that is causing the error? I can't seem to get XCode to stop on the line causing the problem, but I do see the following lines in my debug console: Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetLineWidth: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextAddPath: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextDrawPath: invalid context 2009-10-25 15:12:14.680 LanderTest[1289:207] *** -[CFArray objectAtIndex:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3c4e610 Now, I am attempting to draw to the context I retrieve from UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext() and pass to the object that I want to draw with. Further trial and error debugging and I found that an NSMutableArray I have a property for on my class was a zombie. I went into the init function for the class and here's the code I was using: if ((self = [super init])) { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray array]; self.terrainBlocks = array; [array release]; } return self; } I removed the [array release] line and it no longer gives me the EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal, but I'm now confused about why this works. I thought that when I used the property, it automatically retained it for me, and thus I should release it from within init so that I don't have a leak. I'm thoroughly confused about how this works and all the guides and Stackoverflow questions I've read only confuse me more about how to set properties within my init method. There seems to be no consensus as to which way is the best.

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• What is Adobe Flex? Is it just Flash II?

  - by Adam Davis

  Question Alright, I'm confused by all the buzzwords and press release bingo going on. What is the relationship between flash and flex: Replace flash (not really compatible) Enhance flash The next version of flash but still basically compatible Separate technology altogether ??? If I'm starting out in Flash now, should I just skip to Flex? Follow up Ok, so what I'm hearing is that there's three different parts to the puzzle: Flash The graphical editor used to make "Flash Movies", ie it's an IDE that focuses on the visual aspect of "Flash" (Officially Flash CS3?) The official name for the display plugins (ie, "Download Flash Now!") A general reference to the entire technology stack In terms of the editor, it's a linear timeline based editor, best used for animations with complex interactivity. Actionscript The "Flash" programming language Flex An Adobe Flash IDE that focuses on the coding/programming aspect of "Flash" (Flex Builder?) A Flash library that enhances Flash and makes it easier to program for (Flex SDK?) Is not bound to a timeline (as the Flash IDE is) and so "standard" applications are more easily accomplished. Is this correct?

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• Question about mixing MEF and Unity

  - by Dave

  I'm finally diving into Unity head first, and have run into my first real problem. I've been gradually changing some things in my app from being MEF-resolved to Unity-resolved. Everything went fine on the application side, but then I realized that my plugins were not being loaded. I started to look into this issue, and I believe it's a case where MEF and Unity don't mix. Plugins are loaded by MEF, but each plugin needs to get access to the shared libraries in my application, like app preferences, logging, etc. Initially, my plugin constructor had the ImportingConstructor attribute. I then replaced it with InjectionConstructor so that Unity could resolve its shared library dependencies. But because I did that, MEF no longer loaded it! Then I used both attributes, which compiled, but then I got a composition error (MEF). I figured that this was because the constructor takes a parameter that was once resolved by a MEF Import, so I removed all parameters. As expected, now MEF was able to load my plugin, but because the constructor needs to call into the interface that was once passed in, construction fails. So now I'm at a point where I can get MEF to start to load my plugin, but can't do anything with it because the plugin relies on shared libraries that are registered with Unity. For those of you that have successfully mixed MEF and Unity, how do you go about resolving the references to the shared libraries with Unity? It seems like a catch-22, where in order to have Unity work with the plugin, I'd have to create the plugin via Resolve, but then it's impossible to use MEF. UPDATE I can work around this problem by using an ImportingConstructor for the plugin that takes an IUnityContainer, and then call Resolve for each interface that I need, but although it works, it is incredibly lame to do it this way, as this would require all plugin authors to remember to save a reference to the passed in IUnityContainer...

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• Automatically add links to class source files under a specified directory of another project in Visu

  - by Binary255

  I want to share some class source files between two projects in Visual Studio 2008. I can't create a project for the common parts and reference it (see my comment if you are curious to why). I've managed to share some source files, but it could be a lot more neat. I've created a test solution called Commonality. The Solution Explorer of the Commonality solution which contains project One and Two: What I like: All class files under the Common folder of project One are automatically added to project Two by linking. It's mostly the same as if I would have chosen Add / Existing Item... : Add As Link on each new class source file. It's clear that these files have been linked in. The shortcut arrow symbol is marking each file icon. What I do not like: The file and folder tree structure under Common of project One isn't included. It's all flat. The linked source files are shown under the project root of project Two. It would look much less cluttered if they were located under Common like in project One. The file tree structure of the Commonality solution which contains project One and Two: $ tree /F /A Folder PATH listing for volume Cystem Volume serial number is 0713370 1337:F6A4 C:. | Commonality.sln | +---One | | One.cs | | One.csproj | | | +---bin | | \---Debug | | One.vshost.exe | | One.vshost.exe.manifest | | | +---Common | | | Common.cs | | | CommonTwo.cs | | | | | \---SubCommon | | CommonThree.cs | | | +---obj | | \---Debug | | +---Refactor | | \---TempPE | \---Properties | AssemblyInfo.cs | \---Two | Two.cs | Two.csproj | Two.csproj.user | Two.csproj~ | +---bin | \---Debug +---obj | \---Debug | +---Refactor | \---TempPE \---Properties AssemblyInfo.cs And the relevant part of project Two's project file Two.csproj: <ItemGroup> <Compile Include="..\One\Common\**\*.cs"> </Compile> <Compile Include="Two.cs" /> <Compile Include="Properties\AssemblyInfo.cs" /> </ItemGroup> How do I address what I do not like, while keeping what I like?

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• How do I retrieve row ID from an MVCContrib HTML Grid?

  - by ryandreggs

  Hi, I currently have a product view page that contains an MVCContrib HTML Grid with a select link at the beginning of each row. If the select link is clicked, it takes me to a different page. My question is whether it is possible to retrieve the productID from the row that is selected and pass that to the next page. Maybe this is posible to do with a session variable but im not sure. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance. Here is my view code: <% Html.Grid((List<System2__MVC2.Controllers.ProductController.ProductsSet>)ViewData["Products"]).Columns(column => { column.For(c => Html.ActionLink("Select", "Products", "Product")).DoNotEncode(); column.For(c => c.ProductID); column.For(c => c.Name); column.For(c => c.Description); column.For(c => c.Price); }).Render(); %>

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• Practical size limitations for RDBMS

  - by grenade

  I am working on a project that must store very large datasets and associated reference data. I have never come across a project that required tables quite this large. I have proved that at least one development environment cannot cope at the database tier with the processing required by the complex queries against views that the application layer generates (views with multiple inner and outer joins, grouping, summing and averaging against tables with 90 million rows). The RDBMS that I have tested against is DB2 on AIX. The dev environment that failed was loaded with 1/20th of the volume that will be processed in production. I am assured that the production hardware is superior to the dev and staging hardware but I just don't believe that it will cope with the sheer volume of data and complexity of queries. Before the dev environment failed, it was taking in excess of 5 minutes to return a small dataset (several hundred rows) that was produced by a complex query (many joins, lots of grouping, summing and averaging) against the large tables. My gut feeling is that the db architecture must change so that the aggregations currently provided by the views are performed as part of an off-peak batch process. Now for my question. I am assured by people who claim to have experience of this sort of thing (which I do not) that my fears are unfounded. Are they? Can a modern RDBMS (SQL Server 2008, Oracle, DB2) cope with the volume and complexity I have described (given an appropriate amount of hardware) or are we in the realm of technologies like Google's BigTable? I'm hoping for answers from folks who have actually had to work with this sort of volume at a non-theoretical level.

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• simple jquery fetch from mysql

  - by JPro

  I am trying to use jQuery with MYSQL and I wrote something like this : <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> function example_ajax_request() { $('#example-placeholder').html('<p>Loading results ... <img src="ajax-loader.gif" /></p>'); $('#example-placeholder').load("loadres.php"); } </script> </head> <body> <div id="query"> <select name="show" id="box" > <option value="0">Select A Test</option> <option value="All">--All--</option> <option value="M1">Model1</option> </select> <input type="button" onclick="example_ajax_request()" value="Click Me!" /> </div> <div id="example-placeholder"> <p>Placeholding text</p> </div></body> </html> Basically I want to pass parameters to the loadres.php file. But unable to figure out the exact way to do. Any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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• jQuery1.4.2 $.ajax crashes IE6/7

  - by Kenny Eliasson

  Hello there! I'm having a really hard time debugging one of our latest reported bugs. The problem occurs "randomly", not on every page load, sometimes I can "click" around for a minute or two before IE6/7 crashes. By crash I mean that the IE-window shuts down and I get the option to send the crash info to Microsoft. In FF, Chrome, Safari, IE8 everything is working perfectly. What the page does is issuing 2 AJAX Jsonp calls and building some menus with the data returned. The data brought back can be from ~500b to approx. 35kb. The JSON is valid (else it wouldn't have loaded at all in FF etc), and as i told previous, it works for when navigating around the site soemtimes in IE6/7. I've tested to comment out the callbacks, still crashes. If I remove the $.ajax calls the page will work again. Whats strange is that if I downgrade to jQuery 1.3.2 everything works in all browsers including IE6/7. I've taken the crash-logs and looked at them in WinDbg and what happens seems to be a NULL POINTER reference. The last entries of the stack trace is as follows mshtml!CTreePos::SourceIndex+0x9 mshtml!CMarkup::InsertElementInternal+0x3a8 mshtml!CDoc::InsertElement+0x98 mshtml!CDocument::get_implementation+0x144 Anyone having a clue what could cause this?

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• When actually is a closure created?

  - by Jian Lin

  Is it true that a closure is created in the following cases for foo, but not for bar? Case 1: <script type="text/javascript"> function foo() { } </script> foo is a closure with a scope chain with only the global scope. Case 2: <script type="text/javascript"> var i = 1; function foo() { return i; } </script> same as Case 1. Case 3: <script type="text/javascript"> function Circle(r) { this.r = r; } Circle.prototype.foo = function() { return 3.1415 * this.r * this.r } </script> in this case, Circle.prototype.foo (which returns the circle's area) refers to a closure with only the global scope. (this closure is created). Case 4: <script type="text/javascript"> function foo() { function bar() { } } </script> here, foo is a closure with only the global scope, but bar is not a closure (yet), because the function foo is not invoked in the code, so no closure goo is ever created. It will only exist if foo is invoked , and the closure bar will exist until foo returns, and the closure bar will then be garbage collected, since there is no reference to it at all anywhere. So when the function doesn't exist, can't be invoked, can't be referenced, then the closure doesn't exist yet (never created yet). Only when the function can be invoked or can be referenced, then the closure is actually created?

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• WCF Certificates without Certificate Store

  - by Kane

  My team is developing a number of WPF plug-ins for a 3rd party thick client application. The WPF plug-ins use WCF to consume web services published by a number of TIBCO services. The thick client application maintains a separate central data store and uses a proprietary API to access the data store. The thick client and WPF plug-ins are due to be deployed onto 10,000 workstations. Our customer wants to keep the certificate used by the thick client in the central data store so that they don't need to worry about re-issuing the certificate (current re-issue cycle takes about 3 months) and also have the opportunity to authorise the use of the certificate. The proposed architecture offers a form of shared secret / authentication between the central data store and the TIBCO services. Whilst I don’t necessarily agree with the proposed architecture our team is not able to change it and must work with what’s been provided. Basically our client wants us to build into our WPF plug-ins a mechanism which retrieves the certificate from the central data store (which will be allowed or denied based on roles in that data store) into memory then use the certificate for creating the SSL connection to the TIBCO services. No use of the local machine's certificate store is allowed and the in memory version is to be discarded at the end of each session. So the question is does anyone know if it is possible to pass an in-memory certificate to a WCF (.NET 3.5) service for SSL transport level encryption? Note: I had asked a similar question (here) but have since deleted it and re-asked it with more information.

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