Search Results

Search found 38931 results on 1558 pages for 'database testing'.

Page 666/1558 | < Previous Page | 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673  | Next Page >

  • Using PHP GD to create image form text with different fonts.

    - by Meredith
    I have been using this simple script to generate images from text: <?php header('Content-type: image/png'); $color = RgbfromHex($_GET['color']); $text = urldecode($_GET['text']); $font = 'arial.ttf'; $im = imagecreatetruecolor(400, 30); $bg_color = imagecolorallocate($im, 255, 255, 255); $font_color = imagecolorallocate($im, $color[0], $color[1], $color[2]); imagefilledrectangle($im, 0, 0, 399, 29, $bg_color); imagettftext($im, 20, 0, 10, 20, $font_color, $font, $text); imagepng($im); imagedestroy($im); function RgbfromHex($hexValue) { if(strlen(trim($hexValue))==6) { return array( hexdec(substr($hexValue,0,2)), // R hexdec(substr($hexValue,2,4)), // G hexdec(substr($hexValue,4,6)) // B ); } else return array(0, 0, 0); } ?> I call the script with file.php?text=testing script&color=000000 Now I'd like to know how could I generate text with normal and bold fonts mixed in the same image, something like file.php?text=testing <b>script</b>&color=000000

    Read the article

  • @PrePersist with entity inheritance

    - by gerry
    I'm having some problems with inheritance and the @PrePersist annotation. My source code looks like the following: _the 'base' class with the annotated updateDates() method: @javax.persistence.Entity @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS) public class Base implements Serializable{ ... @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; ... @Column(nullable=false) @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date creationDate; @Column(nullable=false) @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date lastModificationDate; ... public Date getCreationDate() { return creationDate; } public void setCreationDate(Date creationDate) { this.creationDate = creationDate; } public Date getLastModificationDate() { return lastModificationDate; } public void setLastModificationDate(Date lastModificationDate) { this.lastModificationDate = lastModificationDate; } ... @PrePersist protected void updateDates() { if (creationDate == null) { creationDate = new Date(); } lastModificationDate = new Date(); } } _ now the 'Child' class that should inherit all methods "and annotations" from the base class: @javax.persistence.Entity @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name=Sensor.QUERY_FIND_ALL, query="SELECT s FROM Sensor s") }) public class Sensor extends Entity { ... // additional attributes @Column(nullable=false) protected String value; ... // additional getters, setters ... } If I store/persist instances of the Base class to the database, everything works fine. The dates are getting updated. But now, if I want to persist a child instance, the database throws the following exception: MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException: Column 'CREATIONDATE' cannot be null So, in my opinion, this is caused because in Child the method "@PrePersist protected void updateDates()" is not called/invoked before persisting the instances to the database. What is wrong with my code?

    Read the article

  • Finding Specific Descendant Nodes With XSL:Key

    - by DBA_Alex
    Given the following code: <database> <table name="table1"> <column name="id"/> <column name="created_at"/> </table> <table name="table2"> <column name="id"/> <column name="updated_at"/> </table> </database> I want to be able to test using an xsl:key if specific table has a specific column by name. For instance, I want to know if a table has a 'created_at' column so I can write specific code within the transformation. I've gotten a general key that will test if any table has a given column by name, but have not figured out how to make it specific to the table the transformation is currently working with. <xsl:key name="columnTest" match="column" use="@name"/> <xsl:for-each select="database/table"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="key('columnTest', 'created_at')"> <xsl:text>true</xsl:text> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:text>false</xsl:text> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:for-each> So I end up with 'true' for all the tables. Any guidance would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

    - by Superstringcheese
    I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

    Read the article

  • Call method immediately after object construction in LINQ query

    - by Steffen
    I've got some objects which implement this interface: public interface IRow { void Fill(DataRow dr); } Usually when I select something out of db, I go: public IEnumerable<IRow> SelectSomeRows { DataTable table = GetTableFromDatabase(); foreach (DataRow dr in table.Rows) { IRow row = new MySQLRow(); // Disregard the MySQLRow type, it's not important row.Fill(dr); yield return row; } } Now with .Net 4, I'd like to use AsParallel, and thus LINQ. I've done some testing on it, and it speeds up things alot (IRow.Fill uses Reflection, so it's hard on the CPU) Anyway my problem is, how do I go about creating a LINQ query, which calls Fills as part of the query, so it's properly parallelized? For testing performance I created a constructor which took the DataRow as argument, however I'd really love to avoid this if somehow possible. With the constructor in place, it's obviously simple enough: public IEnumerable<IRow> SelectSomeRowsParallel { DataTable table = GetTableFromDatabase(); return from DataRow dr in table.Rows.AsParallel() select new MySQLRow(dr); } However like I said, I'd really love to be able to just stuff my Fill method into the LINQ query, and thus not need the constructor overload.

    Read the article

  • How to display out the contents from mysql and path it to an image properly?

    - by Panda
    I was trying very hard to think of a solution for my problem but have drain all my brain cells into this...What happen is: I have a CK editor where it allows user to input both text and images. A good example would be http://ckeditor.com/demo. Something like the red riding good example in the demo. I would like to have text surrounding the image like the example. With CK editor, user can now do that. However, now they will submit the changes and i was wondering how should I save the data? What i have found: After reading my articles and solutions on the web, all the experts would advise not to put image into the mysql database together with the text. I would like to ask if this is the case what should I do to extract the text from the ck editor and store it into mysql database and separately store the images into my web server? I know how to retrieve text from mysql database. But how do you put the retrieved text abd images together such as it appears to be how the user have input in CK editor?? Guys I am sorry if my question is confusing you or is making you angry because i admit I am really a newbie in this and I will learn all that I can...Thanks for all your advice and teachings.

    Read the article

  • SQL - Updating records based on most recent date

    - by Remnant
    I am having difficulty updating records within a database based on the most recent date and am looking for some guidance. By the way, I am new to SQL. As background, I have a windows forms application with SQL Express and am using ADO.NET to interact with the database. The application is designed to enable the user to track employee attendance on various courses that must be attended on a periodic basis (e.g. every 6 months, every year etc.). For example, they can pull back data to see the last time employees attended a given course and also update attendance dates if an employee has recently completed a course. I have three data tables: EmployeeDetailsTable - simple list of employees names, email address etc., each with unique ID CourseDetailsTable - simple list of courses, each with unique ID (e.g. 1, 2, 3 etc.) AttendanceRecordsTable - has 3 columns { EmployeeID, CourseID, AttendanceDate, Comments } For any given course, an employee will have an attendance history i.e. if the course needs to be attended each year then they will have one record for as many years as they have been at the company. What I want to be able to do is to update the 'Comments' field for a given employee and given course based on the most recent attendance date. What is the 'correct' SQL syntax for this? I have tried many things (like below) but cannot get it to work: UPDATE AttendanceRecordsTable SET Comments = @Comments WHERE AttendanceRecordsTable.EmployeeID = (SELECT EmployeeDetailsTable.EmployeeID FROM EmployeeDetailsTable WHERE (EmployeeDetailsTable.LastName =@ParameterLastName AND EmployeeDetailsTable.FirstName =@ParameterFirstName) AND AttendanceRecordsTable.CourseID = (SELECT CourseDetailsTable.CourseID FROM CourseDetailsTable WHERE CourseDetailsTable.CourseName =@CourseName)) GROUP BY MAX(AttendanceRecordsTable.LastDate) After much googling, I discovered that MAX is an aggregate function and so I need to use GROUP BY. I have also tried using the HAVING keyword but without success. Can anybody point me in the right direction? What is the 'conventional' syntax to update a database record based on the most recent date?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services (x64) on Windows 2K8 -> CleanCurrentUserName() not found

    - by Steven Pardo
    I have installed SQL Server 2005 three times now on the same box. I cleaned up registry settings, files, you name it. All along I have been trying to install SQL Server 2005 Database and Reporting Services (x64) on a Windows 2008 Server. I have also applied the SP3 patch. Installing and Restarting the Server at every point. I have installed multiple instances (SQLDEV64, SQLQA64, SQLSTAGE64) of the Database and Reporting Services. I started to go through the Reporting Services Configuration manager, installing the Reporting Database along with setting up IIS. When I go test the website I get the following and there lies my question. How can I get around this error? http://localhost/reportserver Reporting Services Error -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- An internal error occurred on the report server. See the error log for more details. (rsInternalError) Method not found: 'Void Microsoft.ReportingServices.Diagnostics.UserUtil.CleanCurrentUserName()'. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SQL Server Reporting Services Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Characters in usernames that cause trouble

    - by acidzombie24
    I am testing out security and reliability issues on my site. I have made \n and \r illegal. I created a user with null in the name which caused my PM system to not message the user. However \b worked and \t didnt allow copy/paste to work correctly. The browser (firefox which i am testing with) copied the tab as a single space causing the name not to be the same thus not recognizing the username. Since i cant copy paste easily i'll probably disallow it. \f works as well although i do see a symbol in the title but nowhere else because of the \f. What else should i try? It appears 0-31 127-159 (i dont understand this range) are illegal. What characters in legal range might i want to disallow? I heard there was a 0 width character space. That may be something i want to disallow? What else is there?

    Read the article

  • Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

    - by williamjones
    I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight RIA Services - Showing columns from multiple tables

    - by Villager
    Hello, I have been evaluating Silverlight and .NET RIA Services for my company. I am trying to decide if it is right for us. For the most part, I like it. But, I see one item that I am surprised that I cannot do easily. Because of this, I'm guessing I'm doing some thing wrong. To demonstrate, I have two database tables: Order ----- ID CustomerID OrderDate OrderNumber Customer -------- ID FirstName LastName Address When I create my Domain Service class, I select both of these tables. On the Silverlight application, I drag-and-drop the Order entity from the Data Sources page to my Silverlight page. When I do this, a DataGrid is added with all of the properties in the Order entity. In reality though, I would like the DataGrid to show: Order.OrderNumber Order.OrderDate Customer.FirstName Customer.LastName Because this information is spread across multiple tables, I'm not sure how to use RIA Services to show them in my Silverlight application. What is the recommended way to do this? Should I add a view in my database? Can I do it without touching the database? Thank you,

    Read the article

  • Why MSMQ won't send a space character?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm exploring MSMQ services, and I wrote a simple console client-server application that sends each of the client's keystrokes to the server. Whenever hit a control character (DEL, ESC, INS, etc) the server understandably throws an error. However, whenever I type a space character, the server receives the packet but doesn't throw an error and doesn't display the space. Server: namespace QIM { class Program { const string QUEUE = @".\Private$\qim"; static MessageQueue _mq; static readonly object _mqLock = new object(); static XmlSerializer xs; static void Main(string[] args) { lock (_mqLock) { if (!MessageQueue.Exists(QUEUE)) _mq = MessageQueue.Create(QUEUE); else _mq = new MessageQueue(QUEUE); } xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(string)); _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); while (Console.ReadKey().Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { } } static void OnReceive(IAsyncResult result) { Message msg; lock (_mqLock) { try { msg = _mq.EndReceive(result); Console.Write("."); Console.Write(xs.Deserialize(msg.BodyStream)); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write(ex); } } _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); } } } Client: namespace QIM_Client { class Program { const string QUEUE = @".\Private$\qim"; static MessageQueue _mq; static void Main(string[] args) { if (!MessageQueue.Exists(QUEUE)) _mq = MessageQueue.Create(QUEUE); else _mq = new MessageQueue(QUEUE); ConsoleKeyInfo key = new ConsoleKeyInfo(); while (key.Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { key = Console.ReadKey(); _mq.Send(key.KeyChar.ToString()); } } } } Client Input: Testing, Testing... Server Output: .T.e.s.t.i.n.g.,..T.e.s.t.i.n.g...... You'll notice that the space character sends a message, but the character isn't displayed.

    Read the article

  • NUnit integration programmatically with spring

    - by harkon
    Hi! I have a component based architecture framework designed and I use NUnit for isolated testing - okay so far. Now I want to enable integration tests. Therefore the tests use real implementations of the existing components. Each element of the component has a life cycle (init, start and stop) and I created a NUnit component. In the start section the Console runner of the NUnit will be executed. Okay - now if I have a test fixture class in my dlls in the execution path the runner exectues them - fine! But: And this is crucial! Each to be tested implementation exists so far in the process and I want to use this instances for testing. If I use NUnit runner in the current way each instance will be created twice - and above all: I have a spring container and a implementation registry. Via this registry I can get access to all instances in the processes. But how do I give the test fixture access to the existing registry? Good: I can start the component architecture framework in the startup of the nunit runner - but this is not what I want. My guide is the apache Cactus framework (with JUnit and tomcat, JBoss etc.) Can someone help? Thanks a lot! Check: http://cone.codeplex.com

    Read the article

  • Fetch the most viewed data in databases

    - by Erik Edgren
    I want to get the most viewed photo from the database but I don't know how I shall accomplish this. Here's my SQL at the moment: SELECT * FROM photos AS p, viewers AS v WHERE p.id = v.id_photo GROUP BY v.id_photo The databases: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `photos` ( `id` int(10) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `photo_filename` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `photo_camera` varchar(150) NOT NULL, `photo_taken` datetime NOT NULL, `photo_resolution` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `photo_exposure` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `photo_iso` varchar(3) NOT NULL, `photo_fnumber` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `photo_focallength` varchar(10) NOT NULL, `post_coordinates` text NOT NULL, `post_description` text NOT NULL, `post_uploaded` datetime NOT NULL, `post_edited` datetime NOT NULL, `checkbox_approxcoor` enum('0','1') NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `id` (`id`) ) CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `viewers` ( `id` int(10) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `id_photo` int(10) DEFAULT '0', `ipaddress` text NOT NULL, `date_viewed` datetime NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `id` (`id`) ) The data in viewers looks like this: (1, 85, '3892a0ab97d6ff325f285b27b847070f', '2012-06-21 22:49:25'), (2, 84, '3892a0ab97d6ff325f285b27b847070f', '2012-06-21 22:49:25'), (3, 85, '3892a0ab97d6ff325f285b27b847070f', '2012-06-21 22:49:25'); One single row from the database for photos to understand how the rows looks like in this database: (85, 'P1170986.JPG', 'Panasonic DMC-LX3', '2012-06-19 18:00:40', '3968x2232', '10/8000', '80', '50/10', '51/10', '', '', '2012-06-19 18:45:17', '0000-00-00 00:00:00', '0') At the moment the SQL only prints the photo with ID 84. In this case it's wrong - it should print out the photo with ID 85. How can I fix this problem? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate listener/event to replace object before insert/update

    - by vIceBerg
    Hi! I have a Company class which have a collection of Address. Here's my Address class:(written top of my head): public class Address { public string Civic; public string Street; public City City; } This is the City class: public class City { public int Id; public string Name; public string SearchableName{ get { //code } } } Address is persisted in his own table and have a reference to the city's ID. City are also persisted in is own table. The City's SearchableName is used to prevent some mistakes in the city the user type. For example, if the city name is "Montréal", the searchable name will be "montreal". If the city name is "St. John", the searchable name will be "stjohn", etc. It's used mainly to to search and to prevent having multiple cities with a typo in it. When I save an address, I want an listener/event to check if the city is already in the database. If so, cancel the insert and replace the user's city with the database one. I would like the same behavior with updates. I tried this: public bool OnPreInsert(PreInsertEvent @event) { City entity = (@event.Entity as City); if (entity != null) { if (entity.Id == 0) { var city = (from c in @event.Session.Linq<City>() where c.SearchableName == entity.SearchableName select c).SingleOrDefault(); if (city != null) { //don't know what to do here return true; } } } return false; } But if there's already a City in the database, I don't know what to do. @event.Entity is readonly, if I set @event.Entity.Id, I get an "null identifier" exception. I tried to trap insert/update on Address and on Company, but the City if the first one to get inserted (it's logic...) Any thoughts? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Should a Trim method generally in the Data Access Layer or with in the Domain Layer?

    - by jpierson
    I'm dealing with a database that contains data with inconsistencies such as white leading and trailing white space. In general I see a lot of developers practice defensive coding by trimming almost all strings that come from the database that may have been entered by a user at some point. In my oppinoin it is better to do such formating before data is persisted so that it is done only once and then the data can be in a consistent and reliable state. Unfortunatley this is not the case however which leads me to the next best solution, using a Trim method. If I trim all data as part of my data access layer then I don't have to concern myself with defensive trimming within the business objects of my domain layer. If I instead put the trimming responsibility in my business objects, such as with set accessors of my C# properties, I should get the same net results however the trim will be operating on all values assigned to my business objects properties not just the ones that come from the inconsistent database. I guess as a somewhat philisophical question that may determine the answer I could ask "Should the domain later be responsible for defensive/coercive formatting of data?" Would it make sense to have a set accessor for a PhoneNumber property on a business object accept a unformatted or formatted string and then attempt to format it as required or should this responsibility be pushed to the presentation and data access layers leaving the domain layer more strict in the type of data that it will accept? I think this may be the more fundamental question. Update: Below are a few links that I thought I should share about the topic of data cleansing. Information service patterns, Part 3: Data cleansing pattern LINQ to SQL - Format a string before saving? How to trim values using Linq to Sql?

    Read the article

  • SQLite transaction doesn't work as expected

    - by troll
    I prepared 2 files, "1.php" and "2.php". "1.php" is like this. <?php $dbh = new PDO('sqlite:test1'); $dbh->beginTransaction(); print "aaa<br>"; sleep(55); $dbh->commit(); print "bbb"; ?> and "2.php" is like this. <?php $dbh = new PDO('sqlite:test1'); $dbh->beginTransaction(); print "ccc<br>"; $dbh->commit(); print "ddd"; ?> and I excute "1.php". It starts a transaction and waits 55 seconds. So when I immediately excute "2.php", my expectation is this: "1.php" is getting transaction and "1" holds a database lock "2" can not begin a transaction "2" can not get database lock so "2" have to wait 55 seconds BUT, but the test went another way. When I excute "2",then "2" immediately returned it's result "2" did not wait so I have to think that "1" could not get transaction, or could not get database lock. Can anyone help?

    Read the article

  • Login as SYS user to Oracle 11g from .NET

    - by Jens Bannmann
    Using the Oracle Data Provider for .NET, my application connects to the database using the privileged SYS user. The connection string is as follows: Data Source=MyTnsName;User ID=sys;Password=MySysPassword;DBA Privilege=SYSDBA This works fine with Oracle 10, but Oracle 11 keeps complaining about an invalid username or password. I verified that the password is correct - other apps work fine with the same credentials. Note that for regular users (without the DBA Privilege part), connecting to Oracle 11 works perfectly. So, what's wrong? Update: This is not an issue with case sensitivity - when constructing the connection string, the password case is not altered by my code, and the password works fine with other, non-.NET-applications. I suspect that this might be caused by the Oracle 10 client I'm using to connect to the 11 database. Oracle states that the client is upward-compatible, the only drawback being that you cannot use some new features of the database. However, SYSDBA connections clearly are not a new Oracle 11 feature, and - again - a non-.NET-app (Keeptool Hora) can connect using the same setup. Any other ideas? Update 2: The problem persists when using an Oracle 11 client :-(

    Read the article

  • LuaEdit can't find module when Lua files all in the same folder

    - by joverboard
    I downloaded LuaEdit to use as an IDE and debug tool however I'm having trouble using it for even the simplest things. I've created a solution with 2 files in it, all of which are stored in the same folder. My files are as follows: --startup.lua require("foo") test("Testing", "testing", "one, two, three") --foo.lua foo = {} print("In foo.lua") function test(a,b,c) print(a,b,c) end This works fine when in my C++ compiler when accessed through some embed code, however when I attempt to use the same code in LuaEdit, it crashes on line 3 require("foo") with an error stating: module 'foo' not found: no field package.preload['foo'] no file 'C:\Program Files (x86)\LuaEdit 2010\lua\foo.lua' no file 'C:\Program Files (x86)\LuaEdit 2010\lua\foo\init.lua' no file 'C:\Program Files (x86)\LuaEdit 2010\foo.lua' no file 'C:\Program Files (x86)\LuaEdit 2010\foo\init.lua' no file '.\foo.lua' no file 'C:\Program Files (x86)\LuaEdit 2010\foo.dll' no file 'C:\Program Files (x86)\LuaEdit 2010\loadall.dll' no file '.\battle.dll' I have also tried creating these files prior to adding them to a solution and still get the same error. Is there some setting I'm missing? It would be great to have an IDE/debugger but it's useless to me if it can't run linked functions.

    Read the article

  • Favourite Features of VS 2010

    - by Noldorin
    With the general public release of Visual Studio 2010 Beta 2 today, this latest version has created a lot of hype and interest. Indeed, the opinion I've gauged is that VS 2010 has resolved a great deal of the minor flaws left over from previous versions, as well as added some particularly useful new code editor and project development tools (in particular the Premium/Ultimate versions). My question here is: what are you favourite new features in VS 2010 that have really got you excited? Or similarly, what are the flaws of VS 2008 that you are most glad to have resolved? There is a wealth of changes in VS 2010, of course, but these are some of the ones that have interested me most (about which I know!). Integrated support for F# (with multi-targeting for .NET 2.0 - 4.0)/ Much improved WPF designer. The VS 2008 was more than a bit buggy at times. Great improvements to the code editor, such as call hierarchy viewing. A decent add-in framework. A greatly expanded testing framework (now capable of database testing, for example) in Premium/Ultimate. Project planning and modelling features in Premium/Ultimate. If I could request one point/feature per post, I think that would be best, so we could vote them individually.

    Read the article

  • JUnit test failing - complaining of missing data that was just inserted

    - by Collin Peters
    I have an extremely odd problem in my JUnit tests that I just can't seem to nail down. I have a multi-module java webapp project with a fairly standard structure (DAO's, service clasess, etc...). Within this project I have a 'core' project which contains some abstracted setup code which inserts a test user along with the necessary items for a user (in this case an 'enterprise', so a user must belong to an enterprise and this is enforced at the database level) Fairly simple so far... but here is where the strangeness begins some tests fail to run and throw a database exception where it complains that a user cannot be inserted because an enterprise does not exist. But it just created the enterprise in the preceding line of code! And there was no errors in the insertion of the enterprise. Stranger yet, if this test class is run by itself everything works fine. It is only when the test is run as part of the project that it fails! And the exact same abstracted code was run by 10+ tests before the one that fails! f I have been banging my head against a wall with this for days and haven't really made any progress. I'm not even sure what information to offer up to help diagnose this. Using JUnit 4.4, Spring 2.5.6, iBatis 2.3.0, Postgresql 8.3 Switching to org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource from org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource changed the problem. Using DriverManagerDataSource the tests work for the first time, but now all of a sudden a lot of data isn't rolled back in the database! It leaves everything behind. All with no errors Tests fail when run via Eclipse & Maven Please ask for any info which may help me solve my problem!

    Read the article

  • Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

    - by ServAce85
    I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

    Read the article

  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

    Read the article

  • how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

    - by praksant
    Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

    Read the article

  • Keeping dates in order when using date_select and discarding year in Rails?

    - by MikeH
    My app has users who have seasonal products. When a user selects a product, we allow him to also select the product's season. We accomplish this by letting him select a start date and an end date for each product. We're using date_select to generate two sets of drop-downs: one for the start date and one for the end date. Including years doesn't make sense for our model. So we're using the option: discard_year => true To explain our problem, consider that our products are apples. Vendor X carries apples every year from September to January. Years are irrelevant here, and that's why we're using discard_year => true. However, while the specific years are irrelevant, the relative point in time from the start date to the end date is relevant. This is where our problem arises. When you use discard_year => true, Rails does set a year in the database, it just doesn't appear in the views. Rails sets all the years to 0001 in our app. Going back to our apple example, this means that the database now thinks the user has selected September 0001 to January 0001. This is a problem for us for a number of reasons. To solve this, the logic that I need to implement is the following: - If season_start month/date is before season_end month/date, then standard Rails approach is fine. - But, if season_start month/date is AFTER season_end month/date, then I need to dynamically update the database field such that the year for season_end is equal to the year for season_start + 1. My best guess is that I would create a custom method that runs as an after_save or after_update in my products model. But I'm not really sure how to do this. Ideas? Anybody ever had this issue? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673  | Next Page >