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• My mental block - struggling to learn Objective C

  - by iqessar

  Hello people, this would be my first question after signing up! Anyway heres my question, I did Java at university and I was always told I am a good programmer. However I never pursued it as a career - I went into support and management instead. Im pretty much bored with my job, I have therefore started to learn Objective C so that I can develop apps for the iphone. I am currently watching several different Videos / Books. My problem is that when I go through the Apple documentation, although I understand most of it, sometimes I stumble. I believe that because you/we have the Apple documentation (i.e. Framework references) , everything should be clear, and therefore you should have no need to refer to a book or video (in order to learn how to use a particular class). But I alway do refer to a book and video and subsequently feel guilty as I believe the framework reference should be enough. (I therefore feel I am not up to being a programmer) I also believe that you shouldn't need example code in order to learn how to use a particular class because Apple provides documentation for each class, but AGAIN I find my self googling example code and I find my answer like that - again I feel guilty for doing this. Am I right in saying that Apple documentation is simply not clear? and that its ok to refer to a video/book or google? or forums for that matter? I have proffesional programmers who tell me that I am worrying too much and that I should get on with it and use all the resources that I have. I just cant seem to get round this mental block that I have in my head. When I start a programming project I am able to use the excellent search skills that I have to find the code I need, copy and paste it (yes I do understand it) BUT then I feel guilty telling myself that why didn't you think up the code yourself???? Therefore your not a real programmer, your just good at googling. Currently I am going through 20+ books so that I can learn most of the frameworks, syntax etc to develop iphone apps. I believe if I do this, then when I think of a project I can make it quickly. Should I read a few books, like 2-3 and then just start a project /app , and if I get stuck just google it and get the code I need? Can anybody please answer my questions?

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• Issues accessing an object's array values - returns null or 0s

  - by PhatNinja

  The function below should return an array of objects with this structure: TopicFrequency = { name: "Chemistry", //This is dependent on topic data: [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12] //This would be real data }; so when I do this: myData = this.getChartData("line"); it should return two objects: {name : "Chemistry", data : [1,2,3,4,51,12,0,0, 2,1,41, 31]} {name : "Math", data : [0,0,41,4,51,12,0,0, 2,1,41, 90]} so when I do console.log(myData); it's perfect, returns exactly this. However when I do console.log(myData[0].data) it returns all 0s, not the values. I'm not sure what this issues is known as, and my question is simple what is this problem known as? Here is the full function. Somethings were hardcoded and other variables (notable server and queryContent) removed. Those parts worked fine, it is only when manipulated/retreiving the returned array's values that I run into problems. Note this is async. so not sure if that is also part of the problem. getChartData: function (chartType) { var TopicsFrequencyArray = new Array(); timePairs = this.newIntervalSet("Month"); topicList = new Array("Chemistry", "Math");//Hard coded for now var queryCopy = { //sensitive information }; for (i = 0; i < topicList.length; i++) { var TopicFrequency = { name: null, data: this.newFilledArray(12, 0) }; j = 0; TopicFrequency.name = topicList[i]; while (j < timePairs.length) { queryCopy.filter = TopicFrequency.name; //additional queryCopy parameter changes made here var request = esri.request({ url: server, content: queryCopy, handleAs: "json", load: sucess, error: fail }); j = j + 1; function sucess(response, io) { var topicCountData = 0; query = esri.urlToObject(io.url); var dateString = query.query.fromDate.replace("%", " "); dateString = dateString.replace(/-/g, "/"); dateString = dateString.split("."); date = new Date(dateString[0]); dojo.forEach(response.features, function (feature) { if (feature.properties.count > 0) { topicCountData = feature.properties.count; } TopicFrequency.data[date.getMonth()] = topicCountData; }); } function fail(error) { j = j + 1; alert("There was an unspecified error with this request"); console.log(error); } } TopicsFrequencyArray.push(TopicFrequency); } },

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• Understanding C++ dynamic allocation

  - by kiokko89

  Consider the following code: class CString { private: char* buff; size_t len; public: CString(const char* p):len(0), buff(nullptr) { cout << "Constructor called!"<<endl; if (p!=nullptr) { len= strlen(p); if (len>0) { buff= new char[len+1]; strcpy_s(buff, len+1, p); } } } CString (const CString& s) { cout << "Copy constructor called!"<<endl; len= s.len; buff= new char[len+1]; strcpy_s(buff, len+1, s.buff); } CString& operator = (const CString& rhs) { cout << "Assignment operator called!"<<endl; if (this != &rhs) { len= rhs.len; delete[] buff; buff= new char[len+1]; strcpy_s(buff, len+1, rhs.buff); } return *this; } CString operator + (const CString& rhs) const { cout << "Addition operator called!"<<endl; size_t lenght= len+rhs.len+1; char* tmp = new char[lenght]; strcpy_s(tmp, lenght, buff); strcat_s(tmp, lenght, rhs.buff); return CString(tmp); } ~CString() { cout << "Destructor called!"<<endl; delete[] buff; } }; int main() { CString s1("Hello"); CString s2("World"); CString s3 = s1+s2; } My problem is that I don't know how to delete the memory allocated in the addition operator function(char* tmp = new char[length]). I couldn't do this in the constructor(I tried delete[] p) because it is also called from the main function with arrays of chars as parameters which are not allocated on the heap...How can I get around this? (Sorry for my bad English...)

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• Stretch panel with splitter

  - by user1153896

  I want to implement a basic WPF layout with three panels and two splitters (Horizontal and Vertical splitter). Two panels on the left and on the bottom has to be callapsable and one panel has to stretch accordingly. Here is a simple XAML: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="5"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <StackPanel Background="Aqua" Grid.Column="0" Name="leftPanel" > <TextBlock FontSize="35" Foreground="#58290A" TextWrapping="Wrap">Left Hand Side</TextBlock> </StackPanel> <GridSplitter Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"/> <Grid Grid.Column="2" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="5" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <Label Content="... Clien Area .. Has to Stretch vertically and horizontally" Margin="10"></Label> <Button Click="LeftButton_Click" Margin="10">Close Left Panel</Button> <Button Click="BottomButton_Click" Margin="10">Close Bottom Panel</Button> </StackPanel> <GridSplitter Grid.Row="1" Background="Gray" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"/> <ListBox Grid.Row="2" Background="Violet" Name="bottomPanel"> <ListBoxItem>Hello</ListBoxItem> <ListBoxItem>World</ListBoxItem> </ListBox> </Grid> </Grid> and codebehind: private void LeftButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { leftPanel.Visibility = (leftPanel.Visibility == System.Windows.Visibility.Visible)? System.Windows.Visibility.Collapsed : System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; } private void BottomButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { bottomPanel.Visibility = (bottomPanel.Visibility == System.Windows.Visibility.Visible) ? System.Windows.Visibility.Collapsed : System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; } This code doesn't work as expected :(. Any WPF experts around? to suggest a solution for having Client Area (stretched) and splitter at the same time? DockPanel will work perfectly, but I need splitter! Thanks.

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• Implementing coroutines in Java

  - by JUST MY correct OPINION

  This question is related to my question on existing coroutine implementations in Java. If, as I suspect, it turns out that there is no full implementation of coroutines currently available in Java, what would be required to implement them? As I said in that question, I know about the following: You can implement "coroutines" as threads/thread pools behind the scenes. You can do tricksy things with JVM bytecode behind the scenes to make coroutines possible. The so-called "Da Vinci Machine" JVM implementation has primitives that make coroutines doable without bytecode manipulation. There are various JNI-based approaches to coroutines also possible. I'll address each one's deficiencies in turn. Thread-based coroutines This "solution" is pathological. The whole point of coroutines is to avoid the overhead of threading, locking, kernel scheduling, etc. Coroutines are supposed to be light and fast and to execute only in user space. Implementing them in terms of full-tilt threads with tight restrictions gets rid of all the advantages. JVM bytecode manipulation This solution is more practical, albeit a bit difficult to pull off. This is roughly the same as jumping down into assembly language for coroutine libraries in C (which is how many of them work) with the advantage that you have only one architecture to worry about and get right. It also ties you down to only running your code on fully-compliant JVM stacks (which means, for example, no Android) unless you can find a way to do the same thing on the non-compliant stack. If you do find a way to do this, however, you have now doubled your system complexity and testing needs. The Da Vinci Machine The Da Vinci Machine is cool for experimentation, but since it is not a standard JVM its features aren't going to be available everywhere. Indeed I suspect most production environments would specifically forbid the use of the Da Vinci Machine. Thus I could use this to make cool experiments but not for any code I expect to release to the real world. This also has the added problem similar to the JVM bytecode manipulation solution above: won't work on alternative stacks (like Android's). JNI implementation This solution renders the point of doing this in Java at all moot. Each combination of CPU and operating system requires independent testing and each is a point of potentially frustrating subtle failure. Alternatively, of course, I could tie myself down to one platform entirely but this, too, makes the point of doing things in Java entirely moot. So... Is there any way to implement coroutines in Java without using one of these four techniques? Or will I be forced to use the one of those four that smells the least (JVM manipulation) instead?

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• AJAX XML reply node value iteration

  - by XpiritO

  Hi there, guys. I would really appreciate to get your help on this, as I can't seem to detect and solve the problem I'm having with an AJAX functionality on a site that I'm currently developing. I have a webform that makes an asynchronous call to a handler (.ashx) that delivers a XML response that is later processed by a Javascript client-side function that places it's contents into the user-interface. I'm attaching an example of the response generated by my handler, and what I would like to know is how can I get all the <body> element innerHTML (with the text and child nodes) contents to append it to a <span> element on the user-interface. Can anyone help me out with this? XML Response returned by the handler (checked via Firebug): <message> <content> <messageId>2</messageId> <from>Barack Obama</from> <fromMail>[email protected]</fromMail> <subject>Yes, we can... get World Peace</subject> <body>Hello, dear citizen. I'm sending you this message to invite you to join us! <a href="http://www.whitehouse.gov">Test link</a> Thank you for your time.</body> </content> </message> Client-side Javascript function to affect the user-interface innerHTML property with the data returned via AJAX: function GetMessageContentsCallback(args, resp) { //XML Parser try { //Internet Explorer xmlDoc = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLDOM"); xmlDoc.async = "false"; xmlDoc.loadXML(resp); } catch (e) { parser = new DOMParser(); xmlDoc = parser.parseFromString(resp, "text/xml"); } var msgReply = xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName('message')[0]; var ajaxRespondeBodyInnerHTML = msgReply.getElementsByTagName(body)[0].firstChild.nodeValue; //this currently only delivers inner text content, without the <a href... bit and subsequent text document.getElementById("bodySpan").innerHTML = ajaxRespondeBodyInnerHTML; }

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• How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

  - by Joe

  I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

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• If we don't like it for the presentation layer, then why do we tolerate it for the behavior layer?

  - by greim

  Suppose CSS as we know it had never been invented, and the closest we could get was to do this: <script> // this is the page's stylesheet $(document).ready(function(){ $('.error').css({'color':'red'}); $('a[href]').css({'textDecoration':'none'}); ... }); </script> If this was how we were forced to write code, would we put up with it? Or would every developer on Earth scream at browser vendors until they standardized upon CSS, or at least some kind of declarative style language? Maybe CSS isn't perfect, but hopefully it's obvious how it's better than the find things, do stuff method shown above. So my question is this. We've seen and tasted of the glory of declarative binding with CSS, so why, when it comes to the behavioral/interactive layer, does the entire JavaScript community seem complacent about continuing to use the kludgy procedural method described above? Why for example is this considered by many to be the best possible way to do things: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.widget').append("<a class='button' href='#'>...</div>"); $('a[href]').click(function(){...}); ... }); </script> Why isn't there a massive push to get XBL2.0 or .htc files or some kind of declarative behavior syntax implemented in a standard way across browsers? Is this recognized as a need by other web development professionals? Is there anything on the horizon for HTML5? (Caveats, disclaimers, etc: I realize that it's not a perfect world and that we're playing the hand we've been dealt. My point isn't to criticize the current way of doing things so much as to criticize the complacency that exists about the current way of doing things. Secondly, event delegation, especially at the root level, is a step closer to having a declarative behavior layer. It solves a subset of the problem, but it can't create UI elements, so the overall problem remains.)

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• Mocking methods that call other methods Still hit database.Can I avoid it?

  - by devnet247

  Hi, It has been decided to write some unit tests using moq etc..It's lots of legacy code c# (this is beyond my control so cannot answer the whys of this) Now how do you cope with a scenario when you dont want to hit the database but you indirectly still hit the database? This is something I put together it's not the real code but gives you an idea. How would you deal with this sort of scenario? Basically calling a method on a mocked interface still makes a dal call as inside that method there are other methods not part of that interface?Hope it's clear [TestFixture] public class Can_Test_this_legacy_code { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_mock_login() { var mock = new Mock<ILoginDal>(); User user; var userName = "Jo"; var password = "password"; mock.Setup(x => x.login(It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>(),out user)); var bizLogin = new BizLogin(mock.Object); bizLogin.Login(userName, password, out user); } } public class BizLogin { private readonly ILoginDal _login; public BizLogin(ILoginDal login) { _login = login; } public void Login(string userName, string password, out User user) { //Even if I dont want to this will call the DAL!!!!! var bizPermission = new BizPermission(); var permissionList = bizPermission.GetPermissions(userName); //Method I am actually testing _login.login(userName,password,out user); } } public class BizPermission { public List<Permission>GetPermissions(string userName) { var dal=new PermissionDal(); var permissionlist= dal.GetPermissions(userName); return permissionlist; } } public class PermissionDal { public List<Permission> GetPermissions(string userName) { //I SHOULD NOT BE GETTING HERE!!!!!! return new List<Permission>(); } } public interface ILoginDal { void login(string userName, string password,out User user); } public interface IOtherStuffDal { List<Permission> GetPermissions(); } public class Permission { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Any suggestions? Am I missing the obvious? Is this Untestable code? Very very grateful for any suggestions.

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• Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

  - by Corey O.

  I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

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• How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

  - by Tal Galili

  Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

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• Why is FLD1 loading NaN instead?

  - by Bernd Jendrissek

  I have a one-liner C function that is just return value * pow(1.+rate, -delay); - it discounts a future value to a present value. The interesting part of the disassembly is 0x080555b9 : neg %eax 0x080555bb : push %eax 0x080555bc : fildl (%esp) 0x080555bf : lea 0x4(%esp),%esp 0x080555c3 : fldl 0xfffffff0(%ebp) 0x080555c6 : fld1 0x080555c8 : faddp %st,%st(1) 0x080555ca : fxch %st(1) 0x080555cc : fstpl 0x8(%esp) 0x080555d0 : fstpl (%esp) 0x080555d3 : call 0x8051ce0 0x080555d8 : fmull 0xfffffff8(%ebp) While single-stepping through this function, gdb says (rate is 0.02, delay is 2; you can see them on the stack): (gdb) si 0x080555c6 30 return value * pow(1.+rate, -delay); (gdb) info float R7: Valid 0x4004a6c28f5c28f5c000 +41.68999999999999773 R6: Valid 0x4004e15c28f5c28f6000 +56.34000000000000341 R5: Valid 0x4004dceb851eb851e800 +55.22999999999999687 R4: Valid 0xc0008000000000000000 -2 =R3: Valid 0x3ff9a3d70a3d70a3d800 +0.02000000000000000042 R2: Valid 0x4004ff147ae147ae1800 +63.77000000000000313 R1: Valid 0x4004e17ae147ae147800 +56.36999999999999744 R0: Valid 0x4004efb851eb851eb800 +59.92999999999999972 Status Word: 0x1861 IE PE SF TOP: 3 Control Word: 0x037f IM DM ZM OM UM PM PC: Extended Precision (64-bits) RC: Round to nearest Tag Word: 0x0000 Instruction Pointer: 0x73:0x080555c3 Operand Pointer: 0x7b:0xbff41d78 Opcode: 0xdd45 And after the fld1: (gdb) si 0x080555c8 30 return value * pow(1.+rate, -delay); (gdb) info float R7: Valid 0x4004a6c28f5c28f5c000 +41.68999999999999773 R6: Valid 0x4004e15c28f5c28f6000 +56.34000000000000341 R5: Valid 0x4004dceb851eb851e800 +55.22999999999999687 R4: Valid 0xc0008000000000000000 -2 R3: Valid 0x3ff9a3d70a3d70a3d800 +0.02000000000000000042 =R2: Special 0xffffc000000000000000 Real Indefinite (QNaN) R1: Valid 0x4004e17ae147ae147800 +56.36999999999999744 R0: Valid 0x4004efb851eb851eb800 +59.92999999999999972 Status Word: 0x1261 IE PE SF C1 TOP: 2 Control Word: 0x037f IM DM ZM OM UM PM PC: Extended Precision (64-bits) RC: Round to nearest Tag Word: 0x0020 Instruction Pointer: 0x73:0x080555c6 Operand Pointer: 0x7b:0xbff41d78 Opcode: 0xd9e8 After this, everything goes to hell. Things get grossly over or undervalued, so even if there were no other bugs in my freeciv AI attempt, it would choose all the wrong strategies. Like sending the whole army to the arctic. (Sigh, if only I were getting that far.) I must be missing something obvious, or getting blinded by something, because I can't believe that fld1 should ever possibly fail. Even less that it should fail only after a handful of passes through this function. On earlier passes the FPU correctly loads 1 into ST(0). The bytes at 0x080555c6 definitely encode fld1 - checked with x/... on the running process. What gives?

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• Is Abstract Factory Pattern implemented correctly for given scenario.... ???

  - by Amit

  First thing... I am novice to pattern world, so correct me if wrong anywhere Scenario: There are multiple companies providing multiple products of diff size so there are 3 entities i.e. Companies, Their Product and size of product I have implement Abstract Pattern on this i.e. so that I will create instance of IProductFactory interface to get desired product... Is below implementation of Abstract Factory Pattern correct ??? If not then please correct the approach + Also tell me if any other pattern can be used for such scenario Thanks in advance... public enum Companies { Samsung = 0, LG = 1, Philips = 2, Sony = 3 } public enum Product { PlasmaTv = 0, DVD = 1 } public enum ProductSize { FortyTwoInch, FiftyFiveInch } interface IProductFactory { IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct(); ISony GetSonyProduct(); } interface ISony { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } interface IPhilips { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } class ProductFactory : IProductFactory { public IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct() { return new Philips(); } public ISony GetSonyProduct() { return new Sony(); } } class Philips : IPhilips { #region IPhilips Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) {// I have ingnore size for now.... string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } class Sony : ISony {// I have ingnore size for now.... #region ISony Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) { string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } IProductFactory prodFactory = new ProductFactory(); IPhilips philipsObj = prodFactory.GetPhilipsProduct(); MessageBox.Show(philipsObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch)); or //ISony sonyObj = prodFactory.GetSonyProduct(); //MessageBox.Show(sonyObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch));

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• How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

  - by James A. Rosen

  I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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• Schema to support dynamic properties

  - by Johan Fredrik Varen

  Hi people. I'm working on an editor that enables its users to create "object" definitions in real-time. A definition can contain zero or more properties. A property has a name a type. Once a definition is created, a user can create an object of that definition and set the property values of that object. So by the click of a mouse-button, the user should ie. be able to create a new definition called "Bicycle", and add the property "Size" of type "Numeric". Then another property called "Name" of type "Text", and then another property called "Price" of type "Numeric". Once that is done, the user should be able to create a couple of "Bicycle" objects and fill in the "Name" and "Price" property values of each bike. Now, I've seen this feature in several software products, so it must be a well-known concept. My problem started when I sat down and tried to come up with a DB schema to support this data structure, because I want the property values to be stored using the appropriate column types. Ie. a numeric property value is stored as, say, an INT in the database, and a textual property value is stored as VARCHAR. First, I need a table that will hold all my object definitions: Table obj_defs id | name | ---------------- 1 | "Bicycle" | 2 | "Book" | Then I need a table for holding what sort of properties each object definition should have: Table prop_defs id | obj_def_id | name | type | ------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | "Size" | ? | 2 | 1 | "Name" | ? | 3 | 1 | "Price" | ? | 4 | 2 | "Title" | ? | 5 | 2 | "Author" | ? | 6 | 2 | "ISBN" | ? | I would also need a table that holds each object: Table objects id | created | updated | ------------------------------ 1 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 2 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 3 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | Finally, I need a table that will hold the actual property values of each object, and one solution is for this table to have one column for each possible value type, such as this: Table prop_vals id | prop_def_id | object_id | numeric | textual | boolean | ------------------------------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | 1 | 27 | | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | "Trek" | | 3 | 3 | 1 | 1249 | | | 4 | 1 | 2 | 26 | | | 5 | 2 | 2 | | "GT" | | 6 | 3 | 2 | 159 | | | 7 | 4 | 3 | | "It" | | 8 | 5 | 3 | | "King" | | 9 | 6 | 4 | 9 | | | If I implemented this schema, what would the "type" column of the prop_defs table hold? Integers that each map to a column name, varchars that simply hold the column name? Any other possibilities? Would a stored procedure help me out here in some way? And what would the SQL for fetching the "name" property of object 2 look like?

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• Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

  - by Doug Chamberlain

  Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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• Delphi Unit local variables - how to make each instance unique?

  - by Justin

  Ok, this, I'm sure is something simple that is easy to do. The problem : I've inherited scary spaghetti code and am slowly trying to better it when new features need adding - generally when a refactor makes adding the new feature neater. I've got a bunch of code I'm packing into a single unit which, in different places in the application, controls the same physical thing in the outside world. The control appears in several places in the application and operates slightly differently in each instance. What I've done is to create a unit with all of the features I need which I can simply drop, as a frame, into each form that requires it. Each form then uses the unit's interface methods to customise the behaviour for each instance. The problem within the problem : In the unit in question (the frame) I have a variable declared in the IMPLEMENTATION section - local to the unit. I also have a procedure, declared in the TYPE section which takes an argument and assigns that argument to the local variable in question - each form passes a unique variable to each instance of the frame/unit. What I want it to do is for each instance of the frame to keep its own version of that variable, different from the others, and use that to define how it operates. What seems to be happening, however, is that all instances are using the same value, even if I explicitly pass each instance a different variable. ie: Unit FlexibleUnit; interface uses //the uses stuff type TFlexibleUnit=class(TFrame) //declarations including procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); private // public // end; implementation uses //the uses var myLocalVar; procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); begin myLocalVar:=passMeTheVar; end; //other procedures using myLocalVar //etc to the end; Now somewhere in another Form I've dropped this Frame onto the Design pane, sometimes two of these frames on one Form, and have it declared in the proper places, etc. Each is unique in that : ThisFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; ThatFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; and when I do a: ThisFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var1); //want to behave in way "var1" ThatFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var2); //want to behave in way "var2" it seems that they both share the same variable "myLocalVar". Am I doing this wrong, in principle? If this is the correct method then it's a matter of debugging what I have (which is too huge to post) but if this is not correct in principle then is there a way to do what I am suggesting? Thanks in advance, Stack Overflow - you guys (and gals!) are legendary.

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• How to develop a Jquery plugin to find the first child that match with a selector?

  - by Ivan

  I'm trying to make a Jquery plugin (findFirst()) to find the first child with a given characteristics (something in the middle of the find() and children() functions. For instance, given this markup: <div id="start"> <div> <span>Hello world</span> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> <ul class="valid-result"> <li> <ul class="not-a-result"> ... </ul> </li> </ul> <div> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> </div> </div> </div> If you ask for $("#start").findFirst('ul') it should return all ul lists that I have tagged with the valid-result class, but not the ul with class not-a-result. It is, this function has to find the first elements that matches with a given selector, but not the inner elements that match this selector. This is the first time I try to code a Jquery function, and what I've already read doesn't helps me too much with this. The function I have developed is this: jQuery.fn.findFirst = function (sel) { return this.map(function() { return $(this).children().map(function() { if ($(this).is(sel)) { return $(this); } else { return $(this).findFirst(sel); } }); }); } It works in the sense it tries to return the expected result, but the format it returns the result is very rare for me. I suppose the problem is something I don't understand about Jquery. Here you have the JFiddle where I'm testing. EDIT The expected result after $("#start").findFirst('ul') is a set with all UL that have the class 'valid-result' BUT it's not possible to use this class because it doesn't exist in a real case (it's just to try to explain the result). This is not equivalent to first(), because first returns only one element!

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• 404 with spring 3

  - by markjason72

  hi I am going through my first lessons with spring 3.I created a dynamic web app in eclipse with the following structure. spring3mvc \src\my.spring.HelloWorldController.java \WebContent | |-----WEB-INF\jsp\hello.jsp |-----index.jsp |-----web.xml |-----WEB-INF\spring-servlet.xml |-----WEB-INF\lib\...*.jar files I created the spring-servlet.xml as below <context:component-scan base-package="my.spring" /> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.UrlBasedViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView" /> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/" /> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </bean> and coded the controller package my.spring; import org.springframework.stereotype.Controller; import org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.RequestMapping; import org.springframework.web.servlet.ModelAndView; @Controller public class HelloWorldController { @RequestMapping("/hello") public ModelAndView helloWorld() { String message = "Hello World, Spring 3.0!"; return new ModelAndView("hello", "message", message); } } index.jsp has a link to hello view <html> <body> <a href="hello.html">Say Hello</a> </body> </html> finally in hello.jsp I have put <html> <body> ${message} </body> </html> My web.xml has <display-name>Spring3MVC</display-name> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.html</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> When I run the app on Tomcat6 server( thru eclipse),I can see the index page at http://localhost:8080/Spring3MVC/ .It displays the link to hello page.When I click on it(http://localhost:8080/Spring3MVC/hello.html),I get a 404 error. message /Spring3MVC/hello.html description The requested resource (/Spring3MVC/hello.html) is not available. Any idea how I can solve this? thanks mark.

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• Any thoughts on how to create a true 'punch-out' area in a Sprite?

  - by rhtx

  I've been working on this for awhile, now. You might also call it a 'reverse mask', or an 'inverse mask'. Basically, I'm creating a view window within a display object. I need to allow objects on the stage that are under the window to be able to interact with the mouse. This is similar to a WPF question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/740994/use-wpf-object-to-punch-hole-in-another, which has a much shorter write-up. I've got a Class called PunchOutShield, which creates a Sprite that covers the stage (or over some desired area). The Sprite's Graphics object is filled using the color and transparency of Flex's modal screen. The result is a screen that looks like the screen which appears behind a modal PopUp. PunchOutShield has a method called punch, which takes two arguments - the first is a Shape object, which defines the shape of the punch-through area; the second is a Point object, which indicates where to position the punch-through area. It took some experimenting, but I found that I can successfully create a punch-out area (i.e. - the modal screen does not display within the bounds of the given Shape). To do this, I set cacheAsBitmap to true on the Sprite that is used to create the modal screen, and also on the Shape object, which is added to the modal screen Sprite's displayList. If I set the blend mode of the Shape to ERASE, a completely transparent area is created in the modal screen. So far, great. The problem is that Shape does not subclass InteractiveObject, so there is no way to set mouseEnabled = false on it. And so, it prevents interaction between the mouse and any objects that are visible through the punch-out area. On top of that, InteractiveObject isn't available to look at, so I can't see if there is a way to borrow what it's doing to provide the mouseEnabled functionality and apply it to a subclass of Shape. I've tried using another Sprite object, rather than a Shape object, but the blending doesn't work out correctly. I'm not sure why there is a difference, but the Shape object seems to somehow combine with the parenting Sprite, allowing the ERASE blendMode to effect the desired punch-out visual appearance. It wouldn't be the end of the world if I had to draw up the screen with a series of rectangles so that the punch-out area was just simply not drawn, but that approach won't work if the punch-out area is complex. Or round. Any thoughts on this approach, or on an alternative approach?

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• C++ using cdb_read returns extra characters on some reads

  - by Moe Be

  Hi All, I am using the following function to loop through a couple of open CDB hash tables. Sometimes the value for a given key is returned along with an additional character (specifically a CTRL-P (a DLE character/0x16/0o020)). I have checked the cdb key/value pairs with a couple of different utilities and none of them show any additional characters appended to the values. I get the character if I use cdb_read() or cdb_getdata() (the commented out code below). If I had to guess I would say I am doing something wrong with the buffer I create to get the result from the cdb functions. Any advice or assistance is greatly appreciated. char* HashReducer::getValueFromDb(const string &id, vector <struct cdb *> &myHashFiles) { unsigned char hex_value[BUFSIZ]; size_t hex_len; //construct a real hex (not ascii-hex) value to use for database lookups atoh(id,hex_value,&hex_len); char *value = NULL; vector <struct cdb *>::iterator my_iter = myHashFiles.begin(); vector <struct cdb *>::iterator my_end = myHashFiles.end(); try { //while there are more databases to search and we have not found a match for(; my_iter != my_end && !value ; my_iter++) { //cerr << "\n looking for this MD5:" << id << " hex(" << hex_value << ") \n"; if (cdb_find(*my_iter, hex_value, hex_len)){ //cerr << "\n\nI found the key " << id << " and it is " << cdb_datalen(*my_iter) << " long\n\n"; value = (char *)malloc(cdb_datalen(*my_iter)); cdb_read(*my_iter,value,cdb_datalen(*my_iter),cdb_datapos(*my_iter)); //value = (char *)cdb_getdata(*my_iter); //cerr << "\n\nThe value is:" << value << " len is:" << strlen(value)<< "\n\n"; }; } } catch (...){} return value; }

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• Problem separating C++ code in header, inline functions and code.

  - by YuppieNetworking

  Hello all, I have the simplest code that I want to separate in three files: Header file: class and struct declarations. No implementations at all. Inline functions file: implementation of inline methods in header. Code file: normal C++ code for more complicated implementations. When I was about to implement an operator[] method, I couldn't manage to compile it. Here is a minimal example that shows the same problem: Header (myclass.h): #ifndef _MYCLASS_H_ #define _MYCLASS_H_ class MyClass { public: MyClass(const int n); virtual ~MyClass(); double& operator[](const int i); double operator[](const int i) const; void someBigMethod(); private: double* arr; }; #endif /* _MYCLASS_H_ */ Inline functions (myclass-inl.h): #include "myclass.h" inline double& MyClass::operator[](const int i) { return arr[i]; } inline double MyClass::operator[](const int i) const { return arr[i]; } Code (myclass.cpp): #include "myclass.h" #include "myclass-inl.h" #include <iostream> inline MyClass::MyClass(const int n) { arr = new double[n]; } inline MyClass::~MyClass() { delete[] arr; } void MyClass::someBigMethod() { std::cout << "Hello big method that is not inlined" << std::endl; } And finally, a main to test it all: #include "myclass.h" #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { MyClass m(123); double x = m[1]; m[1] = 1234; cout << "m[1]=" << m[1] << endl; x = x + 1; return 0; } void nothing() { cout << "hello world" << endl; } When I compile it, it says: main.cpp:(.text+0x1b): undefined reference to 'MyClass::MyClass(int)' main.cpp:(.text+0x2f): undefined reference to 'MyClass::operator[](int)' main.cpp:(.text+0x49): undefined reference to 'MyClass::operator[](int)' main.cpp:(.text+0x65): undefined reference to 'MyClass::operator[](int)' However, when I move the main method to the MyClass.cpp file, it works. Could you guys help me spot the problem? Thank you.

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• compressed archive with quick access to individual file

  - by eric.frederich

  I need to come up with a file format for new application I am writing. This file will need to hold a bunch other text files which are mostly text but can be other formats as well. Naturally, a compressed tar file seems to fit the bill. The problem is that I want to be able to retrieve some data from the file very quickly and getting just a particular file from a tar.gz file seems to take longer than it should. I am assumeing that this is because it has to decompress the entire file even though I just want one. When I have just a regular uncompressed tar file I can get that data real quick. Lets say the file I need quickly is called data.dat For example the command... tar -x data.dat -zf myfile.tar.gz ... is what takes a lot longer than I'd like. MP3 files have id3 data and jpeg files have exif data that can be read in quickly without opening the entire file. I would like my data.dat file to be available in a similar way. I was thinking that I could leave it uncompressed and seperate from the rest of the files in myfile.tar.gz I could then create a tar file of data.dat and myfile.tar.gz and then hopefully that data would be able to be retrieved faster because it is at the head of outer tar file and is uncompressed. Does this sound right?... putting a compressed tar inside of a tar file? Basically, my need is to have an archive type of file with quick access to one particular file. Tar does this just fine, but I'd also like to have that data compressed and as soon as I do that, I no longer have quick access. Are there other archive formats that will give me that quick access I need? As a side note, this application will be written in Python. If the solution calls for a re-invention of the wheel with my own binary format I am familiar with C and would have no problem writing the Python module in C. Idealy I'd just use tar, dd, cat, gzip, etc though. Thanks, ~Eric

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• Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

  - by Corey Henderson

  I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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• SQL Server 2008: If Multiple Values Set In Other Mutliple Values Set

  - by AJH

  In SQL, is there anyway to accomplish something like this? This is based off a report built in SQL Server Report Builder, where the user can specify multiple text values as a single report parameter. The query for the report grabs all of the values the user selected and stores them in a single variable. I need a way for the query to return only records that have associations to EVERY value the user specified. -- Assume there's a table of Elements with thousands of entries. -- Now we declare a list of properties for those Elements to be associated with. create table #masterTable ( ElementId int, Text varchar(10) ) insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Red'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Coarse'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Dense'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Red'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Smooth'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Hollow'); -- Element 1 is Red, Coarse, and Dense. Element 2 is Red, Smooth, and Hollow. -- The real table is actually much much larger than this; this is just an example. -- This is me trying to replicate how SQL Server Report Builder treats -- report parameters in its queries. The user selects one, some, all, -- or no properties from a list. The written query treats the user's -- selections as a single variable called @Properties. -- Example scenario 1: User only wants to see Elements that are BOTH Red and Dense. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red and Dense in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --ideally a set containing only Red, Coarse, and Dense --Both Red and Dense are within Element 1's properties (Red, Coarse, Dense), so Element 1 gets returned, but not Element 2. -- Example scenario 2: User only wants to see Elements that are BOTH Red and Hollow. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red and Hollow in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --Both Red and Hollow are within Element 2's properties (Red, Smooth, Hollow), so Element 2 gets returned, but not Element 1. --Example Scenario 3: User only picked the Red option. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --Red is within both Element 1 and Element 2's properties, so both Element 1 and Element 2 get returned. The above syntax doesn't actually work because SQL doesn't seem to allow multiple values on the left side of the "in" comparison. Error that returns: Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression. Am I even on the right track here? Sorry if the example looks long-winded or confusing.

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