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  • Classifying captured data in unknown format?

    - by monch1962
    I've got a large set of captured data (potentially hundreds of thousands of records), and I need to be able to break it down so I can both classify it and also produce "typical" data myself. Let me explain further... If I have the following strings of data: 132T339G1P112S 164T897F5A498S 144T989B9B223T 155T928X9Z554T ... you might start to infer the following: possibly all strings are 14 characters long the 4th, 8th, 10th and 14th characters may always be alphas, while the rest are numeric the first character may always be a '1' the 4th character may always be the letter 'T' the 14th character may be limited to only being 'S' or 'T' and so on... As you get more and more samples of real data, some of these "rules" might disappear; if you see a 15 character long string, then you have evidence that the 1st "rule" is incorrect. However, given a sufficiently large sample of strings that are exactly 14 characters long, you can start to assume that "all strings are 14 characters long" and assign a numeric figure to your degree of confidence (with an appropriate set of assumptions around the fact that you're seeing a suitably random set of all possible captured data). As you can probably tell, a human can do a lot of this classification by eye, but I'm not aware of libraries or algorithms that would allow a computer to do it. Given a set of captured data (significantly more complex than the above...), are there libraries that I can apply in my code to do this sort of classification for me, that will identify "rules" with a given degree of confidence? As a next step, I need to be able to take those rules, and use them to create my own data that conforms to these rules. I assume this is a significantly easier step than the classification, but I've never had to perform a task like this before so I'm really not sure how complex it is. At a guess, Python or Java (or possibly Perl or R) are possibly the "common" languages most likely to have these sorts of libraries, and maybe some of the bioinformatic libraries do this sort of thing. I really don't care which language I have to use; I need to solve the problem in whatever way I can. Any sort of pointer to information would be very useful. As you can probably tell, I'm struggling to describe this problem clearly, and there may be a set of appropriate keywords I can plug into Google that will point me towards the solution. Thanks in advance

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  • Android: Memory leak due to AsyncTask

    - by Manu
    Hello, I'm stuck with a memory leak that I cannot fix. I identified where it occurs, using the MemoryAnalizer but I vainly struggle to get rid of it. Here is the code: public class MyActivity extends Activity implements SurfaceHolder.Callback { ... Camera.PictureCallback mPictureCallbackJpeg = new Camera.PictureCallback() { public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera c) { try { // log the action Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(), "PICTURE CALLBACK JPEG: data.length = " + data); // Show the ProgressDialog on this thread pd = ProgressDialog.show(MyActivity.this, "", "Préparation", true, false); // Start a new thread that will manage the capture new ManageCaptureTask().execute(data, c); } catch(Exception e){ AlertDialog.Builder dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(MyActivity.this); ... dialog.create().show(); } } class ManageCaptureTask extends AsyncTask<Object, Void, Boolean> { protected Boolean doInBackground(Object... args) { Boolean isSuccess = false; // initialize the bitmap before the capture ((myApp) getApplication()).setBitmapX(null); try{ // Check if it is a real device or an emulator TelephonyManager telmgr = (TelephonyManager) getSystemService(Context.TELEPHONY_SERVICE); String deviceID = telmgr.getDeviceId(); boolean isEmulator = "000000000000000".equalsIgnoreCase(deviceID); // get the bitmap if (isEmulator) { ((myApp) getApplication()).setBitmapX(BitmapFactory.decodeFile(imageFileName)); } else { ((myApp) getApplication()).setBitmapX(BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray((byte[]) args[0], 0, ((byte[])args[0]).length)); } ((myApp) getApplication()).setImageForDB(ImageTools.resizeBmp(((myApp) getApplication()).getBmp())); // convert the bitmap into a grayscale image and display it in the preview ((myApp) getApplication()).setImage(makeGrayScale()); isSuccess = true; } catch (Exception connEx){ errorMessageFromBkgndThread = getString(R.string.errcapture); } return isSuccess; } protected void onPostExecute(Boolean result) { // Pass the result data back to the main activity if (MyActivity.this.pd != null) { MyActivity.this.pd.dismiss(); } if (result){ ((ImageView) findViewById(R.id.apercu)).setImageBitmap(((myApp) getApplication()).getBmp()); ((myApp) getApplication()).setBitmapX(null); } else{ // there was an error ErrAlert(); } } } }; private void ErrAlert(){ // notify the user about the error AlertDialog.Builder dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); ... dialog.create().show(); } } MemoryAnalyzer indicated the memory leak at: ((myApp) getApplication()).setBitmapX(BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray((byte[]) args[0], 0, ((byte[])args[0]).length)); I am grateful for any suggestion, thank you in advance.

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  • Newbie's problems with MySQL and php

    - by Mirage81
    I'm a real newbie with php and MySQL. Now I'm working on the following code which should search the database for eg. all the Lennons living in Liverpool. 1) How should I modify "get.php" to get the text "no results" to appear if there are no search results. 2) How should I modify "index.php" to get the option values (city and lastname) straight from the database instead of having to type them one by one? 3) Am I using mysql_real_escape_string the right way? 4) Any other mistakes in the code? index.php: <form action="get.php" method="post"> <p> <select name="city"> <option value="Birmingham">Birmingham</option> <option value="Liverpool">Liverpool</option> <option value="London">London</option> </select> </p> <p> <select name="lastname"> <option value="Lennon">Lennon</option> <option value="McCartney">McCartney</option> <option value="Osbourne">Osbourne</option> </select> </p> <p> <input value="Search" type="submit"> </p> </form> get.php: <?php $city = $_POST['city']; $lastname = $_POST['lastname']; $conn = mysql_connect('localhost', 'user', 'password'); mysql_select_db("database", $conn) or die("connection failed"); $query = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE city = '$city' AND lastname = '$lastname'"; $result = mysql_query($query, $conn); $city = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['city']); $lastname = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['lastname']); echo $rowcount; while ($row = mysql_fetch_row($result)) { if ($rowcount == '0') echo 'no results'; else { echo '<b>City: </b>'.htmlspecialchars($row[0]).'<br />'; echo '<b>Last name: </b>'.htmlspecialchars($row[1]).'<br />'; echo '<b>Information: </b>'.htmlspecialchars($row[2]); } } mysql_close($conn);

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  • DRUPAL probl [tid] field : in View how to link Taxonomy term to MY view (and not to taxonomy/term)

    - by davezen
    SUMMARY : I have a view where I need to replace the term link "taxonomy/term" by my view link, because the view uses arguments to find content with terms how can I put in link argument the term which is display : [term_name1] link "display_view/term_name1", [term_name2] link "display_view/term_name2" I used [tid] field to put argument in link display_view/[tid] but it only display the first term, and not the real term (for example if multiple taggs it only display the first) and put all the terms in one single link : [term_name1 term_name2] link "display_view/term_name1" so why [tid] or [tid_1] don't run ? is there another field, or do I need php ? really need help ! :) DESCRIPTION : Hello, I made a view table to display store content it display : user name, title, taxonomy term to type (book, disc...), taxonomy term for taggs (subject of objects) for example : USER | TITLE | TERM TYPE (only one) | TERM SUBJECTS (taggs) user1 | James Brown disc | disc | soul jamesbrown user2 | rolls book | book | cars rolls travel so I display different types of terms and in subjects it can have a multiple because it's taggs I use arguments so it can have display for example only store from an user, or from an taxonomy (for examples only the disc, or the disc about soul) so I can link display_view/argtermtype/argtermsubject (I separate the type and subject) MY NEED : what i want is the terms of the view don't redirect on taxonomy/term but on my view so I have to : change the link of terms in view to redirect on display_texts/all/all replace [all] with the [term] argument MY PROBLEM : I can't have the right field of terms displayed in the links of terms in fields, I : checked "Output this field as a link" put the link "display_view/[tid]" for term type and "display_view/all/[tid]" for term subjects NOT checked "Link this field to its term page" what it does : [tid] put in link FOR ALL THE LINE the SAME TERM and it put all the terms in one single link ! that's to say, it creates the links : USER | TITLE | TERM TYPE (only one) | TERM SUBJECTS (taggs) user1 | James Brown disc| [disc] display_texts/disc (ok !) | [soul jamesbrown] (BAD only one link!) display_texts/all/disc (BAD it's not the new term !) what I need : USER | TITLE | TERM TYPE (only one) | TERM SUBJECTS (taggs) user1 | James Brown disc| [disc] display_texts/disc| [soul] display_texts/all/soul [jamesbrown] display_texts/all/jamesbrown) MY QUESTION : so how can I put in argument the term which is display ? I try things like [tid_1] but doesn't work is there any list of fields somewhere ? or do i have to use php code ? how to separate link terms ? if I check "Link this field to its term page" links are separate but it replace my link by "taxonomy/term" link think's in advance for any idea !

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  • NO FBML is working in iframe in facebook using PHP (ie or ff or anywhere else!)

    - by Cyprus106
    I have tried for three days now and gotten nowhere on this.... I absolutely can not get any "fb:" code to render anything! I've tried the exact code in the sandbox and it works fine. I've read through every search result I could find and gotten nowhere... I'm using a standard xd_receiver page, and in the body there's this line: < script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/XdCommReceiver.js" type="text/javascript"></script> Here's my index page. It's basically the stock facebook example code.... <?php require_once 'facebook-platform/php/facebook.php'; //Authentication Keys $appapikey = 'MY_KEY'; // obviously this is my real key $appsecret = 'MY_SECRET'; // same thing $facebook = new Facebook($appapikey, $appsecret); $user_id = $facebook->require_login(); ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml"> <head></head> <body> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"></script> <? echo "<p>Hello, <fb:name uid=\"$user_id\" useyou=\"false\"></fb:name>!</p>"; ?> <script type="text/javascript"> FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML"], function(){ FB.Facebook.init("<?php echo $appapikey; ?>", "xd_receiver.htm"); }); </script> </body> </html> oddly enough, when I put this code below where it echos the logged in user's name, it does show the id numbers of friends. But again, it won't render their names <?php friends.get API method echo "<p>Friends:"; $friends = $facebook->api_client->friends_get(); $friends = array_slice($friends, 0, 25); foreach ($friends as $friend) { echo "<br>".$friend." - <fb:name uid=\".$user_id.\" useyou=\"false\"></fb:name>"; } echo "</p>"; ?> Here's my settings: Canvas Callback URL http://www.my-actual-website.com/test/ Canvas URL http://apps.facebook.com/gogre_testapp/ FBML/iframe iframe Application Type Website Post-Remove URL http://www.my-actual-website.com/test/ Post-Authorize URL http://www.my-actual-website.com/test/ Please, somebody help me out! I've been trying unsuccessfully for days

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  • How can I capture the keystroke that triggers "CellEndEdit" on a DataGridView in C#?

    - by Andy Stampor
    I have a DataGridView that is set to EditOnF2. I do some special processing of data in the CellEndEdit eventhandler that sets the value of the cell. I still want the functionality of the EditOnKeystrokeOrF2 of reverting to the original value when the Esc key is pressed. Unfortunately, at the CellEndEdit eventhandler, I don't see a way to tell what caused the CellEndEdit event to be fired. I only want to change the value of the cell if the Esc key is not pressed. How can I tell if it was or not? Edit: It is worth noting that the KeyDown event does not get fired when the cell is being edited, nor for the final ending keystroke. Edit2: I have tried the KeyPreview suggestion, but the form still does not capture the Escape key being pressed. Edit3: I've been experimenting with trying to get this working. I originally posted some of the following as a separate post, but feel it might be more relevant to include it here. I have a cell in a DataGridView that is now set to EditProgrammatically. To capture the keystroke that starts an edit, I am setting the cell.Value equal to the keystroke. However, this ruins the "Escape" functionality of the cell - when you press escape, instead of reverting to the original value, it reverts to the keystroke that I programmatically inserted into the cell. I believe that if I could set the "EditedFormattedValue" on a cell, this would be where I want to put my keystroke value, however this appears to be read only. How can I accomplish what I am attempting? An example to clarify: If the cell has a value of "54.3" in it, and I press the "9" key, it begins editing the cell and places a "9" there. If I hit Escape, instead of reverting to "54.3" it reverts to "9". What I want is for it to return to its original value of "54.3". So, I am trying to tackle this issue from both the beginning and the end. I think the real problem is that I am overwriting the original value and have no way to determine if I should revert it or not. Edit4: It looks like CellValidating might be worth using, but I am seeing strange behavior when I experiment with it. In a new project, I create the DataGridView and register for the various events and see that CellValidating is fired before the CellEndEdit. However, in my project where I am trying to get this to work, CellEndEdit is firing BEFORE CellValidating. Any ideas on what the difference might be?

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  • Qt - problem appending to QList of QList

    - by bullettime
    I'm trying to append items to a QList at runtime, but I'm running on a error message. Basically what I'm trying to do is to make a QList of QLists and add a few customClass objects to each of the inner lists. Here's my code: widget.h: class Widget : public QWidget { Q_OBJECT public: Widget(QWidget *parent = 0); ~Widget(); public slots: static QList<QList<customClass> > testlist(){ QList<QList<customClass> > mylist; for(int w=0 ; w<5 ; w++){ mylist.append(QList<customClass>()); } for(int z=0 ; z<mylist.size() ; z++){ for(int x=0 ; x<10 ; x++){ customClass co = customClass(); mylist.at(z).append(co); } } return mylist; } }; customclass.h: class customClass { public: customClass(){ this->varInt = 1; this->varQString = "hello world"; } int varInt; QString varQString; }; main.cpp: int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { QApplication a(argc, argv); Widget w; QList<QList<customClass> > list; list = w.testlist(); w.show(); return a.exec(); } But when I try to run the application, it gives off this error: error: passing `const QList<customClass>' as `this' argument of `void List<T>::append(const T&) [with T = customClass]' discards qualifiers I also tried inserting the objects using foreach: foreach(QList<customClass> list, mylist){ for(int x=0 ; x<10 ; x++){ list.append(customClass()); } } The error was gone, but the customClass objects weren't appended, I could verify that by using a debugging loop in main that showed the inner QLists sizes as zero. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Loading a SWF dynamically causes previously loaded SWFs to misbehave

    - by Aaron
    I have run into a very strange problem with Flash and Flex. It appears that under certain circumstances, movie clips from a SWF loaded at runtime (using Loader) cannot be instantiated if another SWF has been loaded in the mean time. Here is the complete code for a program that reproduces the error. It is compiled using mxmlc, via Ensemble Tofino: package { import flash.display.*; import flash.events.*; import flash.net.*; import flash.system.*; public class DynamicLoading extends Sprite { private var testAppDomain:ApplicationDomain; public function DynamicLoading() { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/content/test.swf"); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onTestLoadComplete); loader.load(request); } private function onTestLoadComplete(e:Event):void { var loaderInfo:LoaderInfo = LoaderInfo(e.target); testAppDomain = loaderInfo.applicationDomain; // To get the error, uncomment these lines... //var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/content/tiny.swf"); //var loader:Loader = new Loader(); //loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onTinyLoadComplete); //loader.load(request); // ...and comment this one: onTinyLoadComplete(); } private function onTinyLoadComplete(e:Event = null):void { var spriteClass:Class = Class(testAppDomain.getDefinition("TopSymbol")); var sprite:Sprite = Sprite(new spriteClass()); sprite.x = sprite.y = 200; addChild(sprite); } } } With the second loading operation commented out as shown above, the code works. However, if the second loading operation is uncommented and onTinyLoadComplete runs after the second SWF is loaded, the line containing new spriteClass() fails with the following exception: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert flash.display::MovieClip@2dc8ba1 to SubSymbol. at flash.display::Sprite/constructChildren() at flash.display::Sprite() at flash.display::MovieClip() at TopSymbol() at DynamicLoading/onTinyLoadComplete()[C:\Users\...\TestFlash\DynamicLoading.as:38] test.swf and tiny.swf were created in Flash CS4. test.swf contains two symbols, both exported for ActionScript, one called TopSymbol and one called SubSymbol. SubSymbol contains a simple graphic (a scribble) and TopSymbol contains a single instance of SubSymbol. tiny.swf contains nothing; it is the result of publishing a new, empty ActionScript 3 project. If I modify test.swf so that SubSymbol is not exported for ActionScript, the error goes away, but in our real project we need the ability to dynamically load sprite classes that contain other, exported sprite classes as children. Any ideas as to what is causing this, or how to fix it?

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  • c# - How do you get a variable's name as it was physically typed in its declaration?

    - by Petras
    The class below contains the field city. I need to dynamically determine the field's name as it is typed in the class declaration i.e. I need to get the string "city" from an instance of the object city. I have tried to do this by examining its Type in DoSomething() but can't find it when examining the contents of the Type in the debugger. Is it possible? public class Person { public string city = "New York"; public Person() { } public void DoSomething() { Type t = city.GetType(); string field_name = t.SomeUnkownFunction(); //would return the string "city" if it existed! } } Some people in their answers below have asked me why I want to do this. Here's why. In my real world situation, there is a custom attribute above city. [MyCustomAttribute("param1", "param2", etc)] public string city = "New York"; I need this attribute in other code. To get the attribute, I use reflection. And in the reflection code I need to type the string "city" MyCustomAttribute attr; Type t = typeof(Person); foreach (FieldInfo field in t.GetFields()) { if (field.Name == "city") { //do stuff when we find the field that has the attribute we need } } Now this isn't type safe. If I changed the variable "city" to "workCity" in my field declaration in Person this line would fail unless I knew to update the string if (field.Name == "workCity") //I have to make this change in another file for this to still work, yuk! { } So I am trying to find some way to pass the string to this code without physically typing it. Yes, I could declare it as a string constant in Person (or something like that) but that would still be typing it twice. Phew! That was tough to explain!! Thanks Thanks to all who answered this * a lot*. It sent me on a new path to better understand lambda expressions. And it created a new question.

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  • What is a good platform for building a game framework targetting both web and native languages?

    - by fuzzyTew
    I would like to develop (or find, if one is already in development) a framework with support for accelerated graphics and sound built on a system flexible enough to compile to the following: native ppc/x86/x86_64/arm binaries or a language which compiles to them javascript actionscript bytecode or a language which compiles to it (actionscript 3, haxe) optionally java I imagine, for example, creating an API where I can open windows and make OpenGL-like calls and the framework maps this in a relatively efficient manner to either WebGL with a canvas object, 3d graphics in Flash, OpenGL ES 2 with EGL, or desktop OpenGL in an X11, Windows, or Cocoa window. I have so far looked into these avenues: Building the game library in haXe Pros: Targets exist for php, javascript, actionscript bytecode, c++ High level, object oriented language Cons: No support for finally{} blocks or destructors, making resource cleanup difficult C++ target does not allow room for producing highly optimized libraries -- the foreign function interface requires all primitive types be boxed in a wrapper object, as if writing bindings for a scripting language; these feel unideal for real-time graphics and audio, especially exporting low-level functions. Doesn't seem quite yet mature Using the C preprocessor to create a translator, writing programs entirely with macros Pros: CPP is widespread and simple to use Cons: This is an arduous task and probably the wrong tool for the job CPP implementations differ widely in support for features (e.g. xcode cpp has no variadic macros despite claiming C99 compliance) There is little-to-no room for optimization in this route Using llvm's support for multiple backends to target c/c++ to web languages Pros: Can code in c/c++ LLVM is a very mature highly optimizing compiler performing e.g. global inlining Targets exist for actionscript (alchemy) and javascript (emscripten) Cons: Actionscript target is closed source, unmaintained, and buggy. Javascript targets do not use features of HTML5 for appropriate optimization (e.g. linear memory with typed arrays) and are immature An LLVM target must convert from low-level bytecode, so high-level constructs are lost and bloated unreadable code is created from translating individual instructions, which may be more difficult for an unprepared JIT to optimize. "jump" instructions cause problems for languages with no "goto" statements. Using libclang to write a translator from C/C++ to web languages Pros: A beautiful parsing library providing easy access to the code structure Can code in C/C++ Has sponsored developer effort from Apple Cons: Incomplete; current feature set targets IDEs. Basic operators are unexposed and must be manually parsed from the returned AST element to be identified. Translating code prior to compilation may forgo optimizations assumed in c/c++ such as inlining. Creating new code generators for clang to translate into web languages Pros: Can code in C/C++ as libclang Cons: There is no API; code structure is unstable A much larger job than using libclang; the innards of clang are complex Building the game library in Common Lisp Pros: Flexible, ancient, well-developed language Extensive introspection should ease writing translators Translators exist for at least javascript Cons: Unfamiliar language No standardized library functions, widely varying implementations Which of these avenues should I pursue? Do you know of any others, or any systems that might be useful? Does a general project like this exist somewhere already? Thank you for any input.

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  • Howcome I cannot make my javascript 'executable' in an address bar

    - by imHavoc
    The second link does not work like the first one. How come? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>Dynamic CSS Properties</title> <script language="JavaScript"> function change(){ //document.getElementById("box1").style.visibility = "visible"; var spanArray = document.getElementsByTagName('span'); var number_spans = spanArray.length ; for( var i = 0; i < number_spans ; i++ ){ var target = spanArray[ i ] ; // do something with target like set visibility target.style.visibility = "visible"; } } function change2(){ var spanArray=document.getElementsByTagName('span');var number_spans=spanArray.length;for(var i=0;i<number_spans;i++){var target=spanArray[i];target.style.visibility="visible";} } </script> </head> <body> <a href="javascript:change2();">Change</a> <br /> <a href="javascript:var spanArray=document.getElementsByTagName('span');va r number_spans=spanArray.length;for(var i=0;i<number_spans;i++){var target=spanArray[i];target.style.visibility='visible';}; ">Show Spans</a> <br /> <div style="position: relative; overflow: hidden;"><center> <br><br> <font size="5" color="blue"> 1. just press the <img src="http://up203.siz.co.il/up1/jw2k4az1imny.jpg"> button on the top to see the picture i promise you its so funny!!!!: <br><br><br> <span style="background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% white;"><span style="visibility: hidden;"> <a onmousedown="UntrustedLink.bootstrap($(this), &quot;77a0d&quot;, event)" rel="nofollow" target="_blank" onclick="(new Image()).src = '/ajax/ct.php?app_id=4949752878&amp;action_type=3&amp;post_form_id=3917211492ade40ee468fbe283b54b3b&amp;position=16&amp;' + Math.random();return true;" href="http://thebigbrotherisrael.blogspot.com/2010/04/all-family-guy-characters-in-real-life.html">Press here to see the picture!!!</a> </span><span style="visibility: visible;"></span></span></font></center></div> </body> </html>

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  • DirectShow EVR resizing window problem

    - by Daniel
    So I've been looking into the world of media playback for windows and I've started making a C# Media Player using DirectShow. I started off using the VRM-7 windowed video renderer and it was brilliant except it had a couple of small problems (multi monitors, fullscreen). But after some research I found that it's deprecated and I should be using VRM9. So I changed it to use VRM9 windowless then found out that was an old post rofl _< so finally I'm using Vista/Win7 (or XP .net 3) Enhanced Video Renderer (EVR) which is apparently the most up to date Microsoft video renderer and has all the flashy performance/quality things added to it. (tbh I haven't noticed any difference but maybe I need a blue-ray or HQ video to notice it). With using EVR everything is working fine except resizing the video. Its really laggy/choppy/teary and probably something to do with its frame queueing mechanism. To demonstrate my problem open up windows media player classic. View - Options - Playback - output Chose the "EVR" DirectShow Video renderer Now restart wmp class and play a video, while it's playing click and drag a corner to resize it. You'll notice its horribly laggy. This is the exact same problem i am having. But if you chose "EVR Custom Pres. *" or EVR Sync *" resizing works beautifully! So i tried googling around for anything about EVR resizing issues and how to fix it but i couldn't believe how little i could find. I'm guessing "Custom Pres." stands for "Custom Presenter" which sounds like they made their own. Also you'll notice on the right hand size when you swap between EVR and the other EVR's the Resizer drop down on the right greys out. So basically I wan't to know how I can fix this retarded resizing problem and is there any decent documentation out there? There is a fair bit for VMR7/9 but not much for EVR. I downloaded the DirectX SDK which apparently has samples but it was a waste of 500mb of bandwidth as it had nothing relevant. Perhaps there is some way to force it not queueing up frames if that is the problem? If you want code say the word and I'll paste some in. But it's really quite simple and nothing much happens, i'm convinced it's a problem with the EVR renderer. EDIT: Oh and one other thing, what does VLC use? If you go into vlc options and change the renderer to anything but default, they all suck. So is it using VMR7? Or its own?

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  • string categorization strategies

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm the one-man dev team on a fledgling military history website. One aspect of the site is a catalog of ~1,200 individual battles, including the nations & formations (regiments, divisions, etc) which took part. The formation information (as well as the other battle info) was manually imported from a series of books by a 10-man volunteer team. The formations were listed in groups with varying formatting and abbreviation patterns. At the time I set up the data collection forms I couldn't think of a good way to process that data... and elected to store it all as strings in the MySQL database and sort it out later. Well, "later" - as it tends to happen - has arrived. :-) Each battle has 2+ records in the database - one for each nation that participated. Each record has a formations text string listing the formations present as the volunteer chose to add them. Some real examples: 39th Grenadier Rgmt, 26th Volksgrenadier Division 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, 246th Infantry Division 247th Rifle Division, 255th Tank Brigade 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, SS Cavalry Division 28th Tank Brigade, 158th Rifle Division, 135th Rifle Division, 81st Tank Brigade, 242nd Tank Brigade 78th Infantry Division 3rd Kure Special Naval Landing Force, Tulagi Seaplane Base personnel 1st Battalion 505th Infantry Regiment The ultimate goal is for each individual force to have an ID, so that its participation can be traced throughout the battle database. Formation hierarchy, such as the final item above 1st Battalion (of the) 505th Infantry Regiment also needs to be preserved. In that case, 1st Battalion and 505th Infantry Regiment would be split, but 1st Battalion would be flagged as belonging to the 505th. In database terms, I think I want to pull the formation field out of the current battle info table and create three new tables: FORMATION [id] [name] FORMATION_HIERARCHY [id] [parent] [child] FORMATION_BATTLE [f_id] [battle_id] It's simple to explain, but complicated to enact. What I'm looking for from the SO community is just some tips on how best to tackle this problem. Ideally there's some sort of method to solving this that I'm not aware of. However, as a last resort, I could always code a classification framework and call my volunteers back to sort through 2,500+ records...

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  • How to set which version of the VC++ runtime Visual Studio 2005 targets

    - by TallGuy
    I have an application that contains a VC++ project (along with C# projects). Previously, (i.e. during the last year or so) when a build has been done, Visual Studio 2005 appears to be targeting the VC++ runtime version 8.0.50727.762. At least, that is what the Assembly.dll.intermediate.manifest file is telling me: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.762' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> This version number matches the Visual Studio 2005 version number. The application worked fine when deployed to the webserver. The sun was shining, the birds were singing and all was right with the world. Now something has changed. I don't know what - a security patch, an obscure Visual Studio setting or something. Now Visual Studio 2005 seems to be targeting the wrong version of the VC++ runtime: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.4053' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> When I deploy the application to the webserver, I get the dreaded This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800736B1) error. This problem occurs even when I recompile previous versions of the application. I can absolutely guarantee that nothing at all has changed in the solution - we zip up the entire contents of the solution as part of the build process and archive it. I have unzipped a number of these to a temp directory, verified that the previous manifest file refers to 8.0.50727.762, recompiled using exactly the same command at the command line and then verified that the new manifest file now refers to 8.0.50727.4053. I am using Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 Version 8.0.50727.762 (SP.050727-7600) and Microsoft Visual C++ 2005 77646-008-0000007-41610. Why would Visual Studio revert to a previous version of the VC++ runtime? How do I specify which version it should use? What is going wrong here?

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  • Powershell $LastExitCode=0 but $?=False . Redirecting stderr to stdout gives NativeCommandError

    - by Colonel Panic
    Can anyone explain Powershell's surprising behaviour in the second example below? First, a example of sane behaviour: PS C:\> & cmd /c "echo Hello from standard error 1>&2"; echo "`$LastExitCode=$LastExitCode and `$?=$?" Hello from standard error $LastExitCode=0 and $?=True No surprises. I print a message to standard error (using cmd's echo). I inspect the variables $? and $LastExitCode. They equal to True and 0 respectively, as expected. However, if I ask Powershell to redirect standard error to standard output over the first command, I get a NativeCommandError: PS C:\> & cmd /c "echo Hello from standard error 1>&2" 2>&1; echo "`$LastExitCode=$LastExitCode and `$?=$?" cmd.exe : Hello from standard error At line:1 char:4 + cmd <<<< /c "echo Hello from standard error 1>&2" 2>&1; echo "`$LastExitCode=$LastExitCode and `$?=$?" + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (Hello from standard error :String) [], RemoteException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : NativeCommandError $LastExitCode=0 and $?=False My first question, why the NativeCommandError ? Secondly, why is $? False when cmd ran successfully and $LastExitCode is 0? Powershell's docs about_Automatic_Variables don't explicitly define $?. I always supposed it is True if and only if $LastExitCode is 0 but my example contradicts that. Here's how I came across this behaviour in the real-world (simplified). It really is FUBAR. I was calling one Powershell script from another. The inner script: cmd /c "echo Hello from standard error 1>&2" if (! $?) { echo "Job failed. Sending email.." exit 1 } # do something else Running this simply .\job.ps1, it works fine, no email is sent. However, I was calling it from another Powershell script, logging to a file .\job.ps1 2>&1 > log.txt. In this case, an email is sent! Here, the act of observing a phenomenon changes its outcome. This feels like quantum physics rather than scripting! [Interestingly: .\job.ps1 2>&1 may or not blow up depending on where you run it]

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  • How to configure the framesize using AudioUnit.framework on iOS

    - by Piperoman
    I have an audio app i need to capture mic samples to encode into mp3 with ffmpeg First configure the audio: /** * We need to specifie our format on which we want to work. * We use Linear PCM cause its uncompressed and we work on raw data. * for more informations check. * * We want 16 bits, 2 bytes (short bytes) per packet/frames at 8khz */ AudioStreamBasicDescription audioFormat; audioFormat.mSampleRate = SAMPLE_RATE; audioFormat.mFormatID = kAudioFormatLinearPCM; audioFormat.mFormatFlags = kAudioFormatFlagIsPacked | kAudioFormatFlagIsSignedInteger; audioFormat.mFramesPerPacket = 1; audioFormat.mChannelsPerFrame = 1; audioFormat.mBitsPerChannel = audioFormat.mChannelsPerFrame*sizeof(SInt16)*8; audioFormat.mBytesPerPacket = audioFormat.mChannelsPerFrame*sizeof(SInt16); audioFormat.mBytesPerFrame = audioFormat.mChannelsPerFrame*sizeof(SInt16); The recording callback is: static OSStatus recordingCallback(void *inRefCon, AudioUnitRenderActionFlags *ioActionFlags, const AudioTimeStamp *inTimeStamp, UInt32 inBusNumber, UInt32 inNumberFrames, AudioBufferList *ioData) { NSLog(@"Log record: %lu", inBusNumber); NSLog(@"Log record: %lu", inNumberFrames); NSLog(@"Log record: %lu", (UInt32)inTimeStamp); // the data gets rendered here AudioBuffer buffer; // a variable where we check the status OSStatus status; /** This is the reference to the object who owns the callback. */ AudioProcessor *audioProcessor = (__bridge AudioProcessor*) inRefCon; /** on this point we define the number of channels, which is mono for the iphone. the number of frames is usally 512 or 1024. */ buffer.mDataByteSize = inNumberFrames * sizeof(SInt16); // sample size buffer.mNumberChannels = 1; // one channel buffer.mData = malloc( inNumberFrames * sizeof(SInt16) ); // buffer size // we put our buffer into a bufferlist array for rendering AudioBufferList bufferList; bufferList.mNumberBuffers = 1; bufferList.mBuffers[0] = buffer; // render input and check for error status = AudioUnitRender([audioProcessor audioUnit], ioActionFlags, inTimeStamp, inBusNumber, inNumberFrames, &bufferList); [audioProcessor hasError:status:__FILE__:__LINE__]; // process the bufferlist in the audio processor [audioProcessor processBuffer:&bufferList]; // clean up the buffer free(bufferList.mBuffers[0].mData); //NSLog(@"RECORD"); return noErr; } With data: inBusNumber = 1 inNumberFrames = 1024 inTimeStamp = 80444304 // All the time same inTimeStamp, this is strange However, the framesize that i need to encode mp3 is 1152. How can i configure it? If i do buffering, that implies a delay, but i would like to avoid this because is a real time app. If i use this configuration, each buffer i get trash trailing samples, 1152 - 1024 = 128 bad samples. All samples are SInt16.

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  • Unmanaged Code calling leads to heavy memory leak!!

    - by konnychen
    Maybe I need change the title as "Unmanaged Code calling leads to heavy memory leak!" The leak is around 30M/hour I think maybe I need complete my code here because the memory leak maybe not from a static string whereas my real code derive this string from external device (see new code attached). so I handle also unmanaged code. Could it be possible the leak comes from unmanaged code? But I freed the resouce by Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(pos); oThread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(Cyclic_Call)); oThread2.Start(); delegate void SetText_lab_Statubar(string text); private void m_SetText_lab_Statubar(string text) { if (this.lab_Statubar.InvokeRequired) { SetText_lab_Statubar d = new SetText_lab_Statubar(m_SetText_lab_Statubar); this.Invoke(d, new object[] { text }); } else { this.lab_Statubar.Text = text; } } private void Cyclic_Call() { do { //... ... ReadMatrixCode(Station6, 0, str_Code); this.m_SetText_lab_Statubar(str_Code[4]); Thread.Sleep(100); } while (!b_AbortThraed); } private void ReadMatrixCode(Station st, int ItemNr, string[] str_Code) { IntPtr pItemStates = IntPtr.Zero; IntPtr pErrors = IntPtr.Zero; int NumItems = itemServerHandles.Length; m_SyncIO.Read(DataSrc, NumItems, itemServerHandles, out pItemStates, out pErrors); // This calls external dll which has some of "out IntPtr" errors = new int[NumItems]; Marshal.Copy(pErrors, errors, 0, NumItems); IntPtr pos = pItemStates; // Now get the read values and check errors for (int dwCount = 0; dwCount < NumItems; dwCount++) { result[dwCount] = (ITEMSTATE)Marshal.PtrToStructure(pos, typeof(ITEMSTATE)); pos = (IntPtr)(pos.ToInt32() + Marshal.SizeOf(typeof(ITEMSTATE))); } // Free allocated COM-ressouces Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(pItemStates); Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(pErrors); pItemStates = IntPtr.Zero; pErrors = IntPtr.Zero; } m_syncIO is a class and finally it will call COM component which is defined below [Guid("39C12B52-011E-11D0-9675-1020AFD8ADB3")] [InterfaceType(1)] [ComConversionLoss] public interface ISyncIO { void Read(DATASOURCE dwSource, int dwCount, int[] phServer, out IntPtr ppItemValues, out IntPtr ppErrors); void Write(int dwCount, int[] phServer, object[] pItemValues, out IntPtr ppErrors); }

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  • XML validation in Java - why does this fail?

    - by jd
    hi, first time dealing with xml, so please be patient. the code below is probably evil in a million ways (I'd be very happy to hear about all of them), but the main problem is of course that it doesn't work :-) public class Test { private static final String JSDL_SCHEMA_URL = "http://schemas.ggf.org/jsdl/2005/11/jsdl"; private static final String JSDL_POSIX_APPLICATION_SCHEMA_URL = "http://schemas.ggf.org/jsdl/2005/11/jsdl-posix"; public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println(Test.createJSDLDescription("/bin/echo", "hello world")); } private static String createJSDLDescription(String execName, String args) { Document jsdlJobDefinitionDocument = getJSDLJobDefinitionDocument(); String xmlString = null; // create the elements Element jobDescription = jsdlJobDefinitionDocument.createElement("JobDescription"); Element application = jsdlJobDefinitionDocument.createElement("Application"); Element posixApplication = jsdlJobDefinitionDocument.createElementNS(JSDL_POSIX_APPLICATION_SCHEMA_URL, "POSIXApplication"); Element executable = jsdlJobDefinitionDocument.createElement("Executable"); executable.setTextContent(execName); Element argument = jsdlJobDefinitionDocument.createElement("Argument"); argument.setTextContent(args); //join them into a tree posixApplication.appendChild(executable); posixApplication.appendChild(argument); application.appendChild(posixApplication); jobDescription.appendChild(application); jsdlJobDefinitionDocument.getDocumentElement().appendChild(jobDescription); DOMSource source = new DOMSource(jsdlJobDefinitionDocument); validateXML(source); try { Transformer transformer = TransformerFactory.newInstance().newTransformer(); transformer.setOutputProperty(OutputKeys.INDENT, "yes"); StreamResult result = new StreamResult(new StringWriter()); transformer.transform(source, result); xmlString = result.getWriter().toString(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return xmlString; } private static Document getJSDLJobDefinitionDocument() { DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder builder = null; try { builder = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } DOMImplementation domImpl = builder.getDOMImplementation(); Document theDocument = domImpl.createDocument(JSDL_SCHEMA_URL, "JobDefinition", null); return theDocument; } private static void validateXML(DOMSource source) { try { URL schemaFile = new URL(JSDL_SCHEMA_URL); Sche maFactory schemaFactory = SchemaFactory.newInstance(XMLConstants.W3C_XML_SCHEMA_NS_URI); Schema schema = schemaFactory.newSchema(schemaFile); Validator validator = schema.newValidator(); DOMResult result = new DOMResult(); validator.validate(source, result); System.out.println("is valid"); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } it spits out a somewhat odd message: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: cvc-complex-type.2.4.a: Invalid content was found starting with element 'JobDescription'. One of '{"http://schemas.ggf.org/jsdl/2005/11/jsdl":JobDescription}' is expected. Where am I going wrong here? Thanks a lot

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  • Move options between multiple dropdown lists

    - by Martha
    We currently have a form with the standard multi-select functionality of "here are the available options, here are the selected options, here are some buttons to move stuff back and forth." However, the client now wants the ability to not just select certain items, but to also categorize them. For example, given a list of books, they want to not just select the ones they own, but also the ones they've read, the ones they would like to read, and the ones they've heard about. (All examples fictional.) Thankfully, a selected item can only be in one category at a time. I can find many examples of moving items between listboxes, but not a single one for moving items between multiple listboxes. To add to the complication, the form needs to have two sets of list+categories, e.g. a list of movies that need to be categorized in addition to the aforementioned books. An additional problem is that sorting between lists is all well and good in the javascript-enabled world, but I can't really think of a good fallback interface for, say, mobile browsers. Maybe a pseudo-listbox with radio buttons next to each item? The master list of items will in general be very long - over 100 items, certainly, possibly many more. Any given category will most likely contain one or two selected items, but the possibility exists for a category to have dozens of selected items, or zero selected items. As far as OS and stuff, the site is in classic asp (quit snickering!), the server-side code is VBScript, and so far we've avoided the various Javascript libraries by the simple expedient of almost never using client-side scripting. This one form for this one client is currently the big exception. Give 'em an inch and they want a mile... Oh, and I have to add: I suck at Javascript, or really at any C-descendant language. Curly braces give me hives. I'd really, really like something I can just copy & paste into my page, maybe tweak some variable names, and never look at it again. A girl can dream, can't she? :)

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  • sendmail and MX records when mail server is not on web host

    - by Jim Nelson
    This is a problem I'm sure is easy to fix, but I've been banging my head on it all day. I'm developing a new web site for a client. The web site resides at (this is an example) website.com. I have a PHP form script to email visitors' requests to [email protected]. When I coded this on a staging server on a different domain, all worked fine. When I moved it to website.com, the mail messages never arrived. The web server is on a virtual host with a major ISP. Here's what I've learned since then: My client's mail server is Microsoft Exchange on a box physically in their office. Whenever someone on the outside world emails [email protected], the mail arrives. But if the web server sends to the same email address, it fails every time. This is not a PHP problem. I secure shell in to the web server and have tested this both with sendmail and the UNIX mail application. I've also tested it by emailing various email accounts from the shell. I can email myself, for example, just nobody at the website.com domain. In short, when I'm logged in to website.com, mail to [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] all fail. All other addresses work fine. What I've discovered is those dropped emails are routed to the web server's "catchall" account where they sit in its inbox. I've done an MX lookup on website.com. The MX record points to mailsec.website.com. I can telnet to mailsec.website.com port 25 and see the SMTP server. It appears to me that website.com isn't doing an MX lookup when it's sending mail to [email protected]. My theory is that it recognizes the domain as local, sees that there's no "requests" user account to deliver it to, and drops the mail into the catchall account. What I want is to force sendmail to do the MX lookup and send the message on to the Exchange server. I'm at wit's end here. I can't figure out how to do this. For that matter, I may be way off base here and have misdiagnosed this entirely. Internet mail and MX has always seemed a black art to me, and my ignorance is certainly showing in this question.

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  • Extending Enums, Overkill?

    - by CkH
    I have an object that needs to be serialized to an EDI format. For this example we'll say it's a car. A car might not be the best example b/c options change over time, but for the real object the Enums will never change. I have many Enums like the following with custom attributes applied. public enum RoofStyle { [DisplayText("Glass Top")] [StringValue("GTR")] Glass, [DisplayText("Convertible Soft Top")] [StringValue("CST")] ConvertibleSoft, [DisplayText("Hard Top")] [StringValue("HT ")] HardTop, [DisplayText("Targa Top")] [StringValue("TT ")] Targa, } The Attributes are accessed via Extension methods: public static string GetStringValue(this Enum value) { // Get the type Type type = value.GetType(); // Get fieldinfo for this type FieldInfo fieldInfo = type.GetField(value.ToString()); // Get the stringvalue attributes StringValueAttribute[] attribs = fieldInfo.GetCustomAttributes( typeof(StringValueAttribute), false) as StringValueAttribute[]; // Return the first if there was a match. return attribs.Length > 0 ? attribs[0].StringValue : null; } public static string GetDisplayText(this Enum value) { // Get the type Type type = value.GetType(); // Get fieldinfo for this type FieldInfo fieldInfo = type.GetField(value.ToString()); // Get the DisplayText attributes DisplayTextAttribute[] attribs = fieldInfo.GetCustomAttributes( typeof(DisplayTextAttribute), false) as DisplayTextAttribute[]; // Return the first if there was a match. return attribs.Length > 0 ? attribs[0].DisplayText : value.ToString(); } There is a custom EDI serializer that serializes based on the StringValue attributes like so: StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append(car.RoofStyle.GetStringValue()); sb.Append(car.TireSize.GetStringValue()); sb.Append(car.Model.GetStringValue()); ... There is another method that can get Enum Value from StringValue for Deserialization: car.RoofStyle = Enums.GetCode<RoofStyle>(EDIString.Substring(4, 3)) Defined as: public static class Enums { public static T GetCode<T>(string value) { foreach (object o in System.Enum.GetValues(typeof(T))) { if (((Enum)o).GetStringValue() == value.ToUpper()) return (T)o; } throw new ArgumentException("No code exists for type " + typeof(T).ToString() + " corresponding to value of " + value); } } And Finally, for the UI, the GetDisplayText() is used to show the user friendly text. What do you think? Overkill? Is there a better way? or Goldie Locks (just right)? Just want to get feedback before I intergrate it into my personal framework permanently. Thanks.

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  • Drawing text to <canvas> with @font-face does not work at the first time

    - by lemonedo
    Hi all, First try the test case please: http://lemon-factory.net/test/font-face-and-canvas.html I'm not good at English, so I made the test case to be self-explanatory. On the first click to the DRAW button, it will not draw text, or will draw with an incorrect typeface instead of the specified "PressStart", according to your browser. After then it works as expected. At the first time the text does not appear correctly in all browsers I've tested (Firefox, Google Chrome, Safari, Opera). Is it the standard behavior or something? Thank you. PS: Following is the code of the test case <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv=Content-Type content="text/html;charset=utf-8"> <title>@font-face and canvas</title> <style> @font-face { font-family: 'PressStart'; src: url('http://lemon-factory.net/css/fonts/prstart.ttf'); } canvas, pre { border: 1px solid #666; } pre { float: left; margin: .5em; padding: .5em; } </style> </head> <body> <div> <canvas id=canvas width=250 height=250> Your browser does not support the CANVAS element. Try the latest Firefox, Google Chrome, Safari or Opera. </canvas> <button>DRAW</button> </div> <pre id=style></pre> <pre id=script></pre> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> var canvas = document.getElementById('canvas') var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d') var x = 30 var y = 10 function draw() { ctx.font = '12px PressStart' ctx.fillStyle = '#000' ctx.fillText('Hello, world!', x, y += 20) ctx.fillRect(x - 20, y - 10, 10, 10) } $('button').click(draw) $('pre#style').text($('style').text()) $('pre#script').text($('script').text()) </script> </body> </html>

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  • Cross-thread operation not valid: Control accessed from a thread other than the thread it was create

    - by SilverHorse
    I have a scenario. (Windows Forms, C#, .NET) There is a main form which hosts some user control. The user control does some heavy data operation, such that if I directly call the Usercontrol_Load method the UI become nonresponsive for the duration for load method execution. To overcome this I load data on different thread (trying to change existing code as little as I can) I used a background worker thread which will be loading the data and when done will notify the application that it has done its work. Now came a real problem. All the UI (main form and its child usercontrols) was created on the primary main thread. In the LOAD method of the usercontrol I'm fetching data based on the values of some control (like textbox) on userControl. The pseudocode would look like this: //CODE 1 UserContrl1_LOadDataMethod() { if(textbox1.text=="MyName") <<======this gives exception { //Load data corresponding to "MyName". //Populate a globale variable List<string> which will be binded to grid at some later stage. } } The Exception it gave was Cross-thread operation not valid: Control accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. To know more about this I did some googling and a suggestion came up like using the following code //CODE 2 UserContrl1_LOadDataMethod() { if(InvokeRequired) // Line #1 { this.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(UserContrl1_LOadDataMethod)); return; } if(textbox1.text=="MyName") //<<======Now it wont give exception** { //Load data correspondin to "MyName" //Populate a globale variable List<string> which will be binded to grid at some later stage } } BUT BUT BUT... it seems I'm back to square one. The Application again become nonresponsive. It seems to be due to the execution of line #1 if condition. The loading task is again done by the parent thread and not the third that I spawned. I don't know whether I perceived this right or wrong. I'm new to threading. How do I resolve this and also what is the effect of execution of Line#1 if block? The situation is this: I want to load data into a global variable based on the value of a control. I don't want to change the value of a control from the child thread. I'm not going to do it ever from a child thread. So only accessing the value so that the corresponding data can be fetched from the database.

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  • Is there a way to split a widescreen monitor in to two or more virtual monitors?

    - by Mike Thompson
    Like most developers I have grown to love dual monitors. I won't go into all the reasons for their goodness; just take it as a given. However, they are not perfect. You can never seem to line them up "just right". You always end up with the monitors at slight funny angles. And of course the bezel always gets in the way. And this is with identical monitors. The problem is much worse with different monitors -- VMWare's multi monitor feature won't even work with monitors of differnt resolutions. When you use multiple monnitors, one of them becomes your primary monitor of focus. Your focus may flip from one monitor to the other, but at any point in time you are usually focusing on only one monitor. There are exceptions to this (WinDiff, Excel), but this is generally the case. I suggest that having a single large monitor with all the benefits of multiple smaller monitors would be a better solution. Wide screen monitors are fantastic, but it is hard to use all the space efficiently. If you are writing code you are generally working on the left-hand side of the window. If you maximize an editor on a wide-screen monitor the right-hand side of the window will be a sea of white. Programs like WinSplit Revolution will help to organise your windows, but this is really just addressing the symptom, not the problem. Even with WinSplit Revolution, when you maximise a window it will take up the whole screen. You can't lock a window into a specific section of the screen. This is where virtual monitors comes in. What would be really nice is a video driver that sits on top of the existing driver, but allows a single monitor to be virtualised into multiple monitors. Control Panel would see your single physical monitor as two or more virtual monitors. The software could even support a virtual bezel to emphasise what is happening, or you could opt for seamless mode. Programs like WinSplit Revolution and UltraMon would still work. This virtual video driver would allow you to slice & dice your physical monitor into as many virtual monitors as you want. Does anybody know if such software exists? If not, are there any budding Windows display driver guru's out there willing to take up the challenge? I am not after the myriad of virtual desktop/window manager programs that are available. I get frustrated with these programs. They seem good at first but they usually have some strange behaviour and don't work well with other programs (such as WinSplit Revolution). I want the real thing!

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  • Time required for a process to complete

    - by yelkawar
    I am new to C# world. I am attempting to calculate time taken by a algorithum for the purpose of comparison. Following code measures the elapsed time from when a subroutine is called until the subroutine returns to the main program.This example is taken from "Data structures through C#" by Michael McMillan. After running this program the output is Time=0, which is incorrect. The program appears to be logically correct. Can anybody help me. Following is the code using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Collections; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace Chap1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { int num1 = 100; int num2 = 200; Console.WriteLine("num1: " + num1); Console.WriteLine("num2: " + num2); Swap<int>(ref num1, ref num2); Console.WriteLine("num1: " + num1); Console.WriteLine("num2: " + num2); string str1 = "Sam"; string str2 = "Tom"; Console.WriteLine("String 1: " + str1); Console.WriteLine("String 2: " + str2); Swap<string>(ref str1, ref str2); Console.WriteLine("String 1: " + str1); Console.WriteLine("String 2: " + str2); Console.ReadKey(); } static void Swap<T>(ref T val1, ref T val2) { T temp; temp = val1; val1 = val2; val2 = temp; } } class Timing { TimeSpan StartTiming; TimeSpan duration; public Timing() { StartTiming = new TimeSpan(0); duration = new TimeSpan(0); } public TimeSpan startTime() { GC.Collect(); GC.WaitForPendingFinalizers(); StartTiming = Process.GetCurrentProcess().Threads[0].UserProcessorTime; return StartTiming; } public void stopTime() { duration = Process.GetCurrentProcess().Threads[0].UserProcessorTime.Subtract(StartTiming); } public TimeSpan result() { return duration; } } }

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