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• Changing an Action Type="click" to an auto action in SVG

  - by Dustin Myers

  I have a SVG document that I exported from Visio 2003 that would like to edit. This file has an action where you click a button it will navigate to a new screen. What I would like to do is have the navigation be based off of a data point rather than having to click the button. As an example I have a dynamic point data being brought into the SVG file and when that value changes from 0 to 1, I want this screen to automatically navigate to another screen. Below is the code I for clicking the button. <title content="structured text">Sheet.1107</title> <desc content="structured text">Button 1</desc> <v:custProps> <v:cp v:ask="false" v:langID="1033" v:invis="false" v:cal="0" v:val="VT4(Test Graphic 2)" v:type="0" v:prompt="" v:nameU="ObjRef" v:sortKey="" v:lbl="" v:format=""/> <v:cp v:ask="false" v:langID="1033" v:invis="false" v:cal="0" v:val="VT4(SF-S)" v:type="0" v:prompt="" v:nameU="DataPt" v:sortKey="" v:lbl="" v:format=""/> </v:custProps> <v:userDefs> <v:ud v:prompt="" v:nameU="NAVIGATE" v:val="VT4(NAVIGATE Test Graphic 2,&apos;&apos;,)"/> </v:userDefs> <v:textBlock v:margins="rect(4,4,4,4)"/> <v:textRect width="125.01" height="35" cx="62.5" cy="517.5"/> <rect x="0" width="125" y="500" height="35" class="st3"/> <text x="40.15" y="521.1" v:langID="1033" class="st4"><v:paragraph v:horizAlign="1"/><v:tabList/>Button 1</text> <jci:action type="click" count="1">if(evt.button == 0) nav(&apos;Test Graphic 2&apos;,&apos;&apos;,&apos;&apos;);</jci:action></g></a> In the above code I am bringing in the data value from SF-S. Once that value is equal to 1 I want this screen to automatically navigate to Test Graphic 2. I don't have any experience with coding so I am hoping someone here will be able to help me. Thanks, DMyers

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• Convert NSData into Hex NSString

  - by Dawson

  With reference to the following question: Convert NSData into HEX NSSString I have solved the problem using the solution provided by Erik Aigner which is: NSData *data = ...; NSUInteger capacity = [data length] * 2; NSMutableString *stringBuffer = [NSMutableString stringWithCapacity:capacity]; const unsigned char *dataBuffer = [data bytes]; NSInteger i; for (i=0; i<[data length]; ++i) { [stringBuffer appendFormat:@"%02X", (NSUInteger)dataBuffer[i]]; } However, there is one small problem in that if there are extra zeros at the back, the string value would be different. For eg. if the hexa data is of a string @"3700000000000000", when converted using a scanner to integer: unsigned result = 0; NSScanner *scanner = [NSScanner scannerWithString:stringBuffer]; [scanner scanHexInt:&result]; NSLog(@"INTEGER: %u",result); The result would be 4294967295, which is incorrect. Shouldn't it be 55 as only the hexa 37 is taken? So how do I get rid of the zeros? EDIT: (In response to CRD) Hi, thanks for clarifying my doubts. So what you're doing is to actually read the 64-bit integer directly from a byte pointer right? However I have another question. How do you actually cast NSData to a byte pointer? To make it easier for you to understand, I'll explain what I did originally. Firstly, what I did was to display the data of the file which I have (data is in hexadecimal) NSData *file = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile:@"file path here"]; NSLog(@"Patch File: %@",file); Output: Next, what I did was to read and offset the first 8 bytes of the file and convert them into a string. // 0-8 bytes [file seekToFileOffset:0]; NSData *b = [file readDataOfLength:8]; NSUInteger capacity = [b length] * 2; NSMutableString *stringBuffer = [NSMutableString stringWithCapacity:capacity]; const unsigned char *dataBuffer = [b bytes]; NSInteger i; for (i=0; i<[b length]; ++i) { [stringBuffer appendFormat:@"%02X", (NSUInteger)dataBuffer[i]]; } NSLog(@"0-8 bytes HEXADECIMAL: %@",stringBuffer); As you can see, 0x3700000000000000 is the next 8 bytes. The only changes I would have to make to access the next 8 bytes would be to change the value of SeekFileToOffset to 8, so as to access the next 8 bytes of data. All in all, the solution you gave me is useful, however it would not be practical to enter the hexadecimal values manually. If formatting the bytes as a string and then parsing them is not the way to do it, then how do I access the first 8 bytes of the data directly and cast them into a byte pointer?

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• IE browser caching and the jQuery Form Plugin

  - by Harfleur

  Like so many lost souls before me, I'm floundering in the snake pit that is Ajax form submission and IE browser caching. I'm trying to write a simple script using the jQuery Form Plugin to Ajaxify Wordpress comments. It's working fine in Firefox, Chrome, Safari, et. al., but in IE, the response text is cached with the result that Ajax is pulling in the wrong comment. jQuery(this).ajaxSubmit({ success: function(data) { var response = $("<ol>"+data+"</ol>"); response.find('.commentlist li:last').hide().appendTo(jQuery('.commentlist')).slideDown('slow'); } }); ajaxSubmit sends the comment to wp-comments-post.php, which inelegantly spits back the entire page as a response. So, despite the fact that it's ugly as toads, I'm sticking the response text in a variable, using :last to isolate the most recent comment, and sliding it down in its place. IE, however, is returning the cached version of the page, which doesn't include the new comment. So ".commentlist li:last" selects the previous comment, a duplicate of which then uselessly slides down beneath the original. I've tried setting "cache: false" in the ajaxSubmit options, but it has no effect. I've tried setting a url option and tacking on a random number or timestamp, but it winds up being attached to the POST that submits the comment to the server rather than the GET that returns the response, and so has no effect. I'm not sure what else to try. Everything works fine in IE if I turn off browser caching, but that's obviously not something I can expect anyone viewing the page to do. Any help will be hugely appreciated. Thanks in advance! EDIT WITH A PROGRESS REPORT: A couple of people have suggested using PHP headers to prevent caching, and this does indeed work. The trouble is that wp-comments-post is spitting back the entire page when a new comment is submitted, and the only way I can see to add headers is to put them in the Wordpress post template, which disables caching on all posts at all times--not quite the behavior I'm looking for. Is there a way to set a php conditional--"if is_ajax" or something like that--that would keep the headers from being applied during regular pageloads, but plug them in if the page was called by an Ajax GET?

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• Scalable Database Tagging Schema

  - by Longpoke

  EDIT: To people building tagging systems. Don't read this. It is not what you are looking for. I asked this when I wasn't aware that RDBMS all have their own optimization methods, just use a simple many to many scheme. I have a posting system that has millions of posts. Each post can have an infinite number of tags associated with it. Users can create tags which have notes, date created, owner, etc. A tag is almost like a post itself, because people can post notes about the tag. Each tag association has an owner and date, so we can see who added the tag and when. My question is how can I implement this? It has to be fast searching posts by tag, or tags by post. Also, users can add tags to posts by typing the name into a field, kind of like the google search bar, it has to fill in the rest of the tag name for you. I have 3 solutions at the moment, but not sure which is the best, or if there is a better way. Note that I'm not showing the layout of notes since it will be trivial once I get a proper solution for tags. Method 1. Linked list tagId in post points to a linked list in tag_assoc, the application must traverse the list until flink=0 post: id, content, ownerId, date, tagId, notesId tag_assoc: id, tagId, ownerId, flink tag: id, name, notesId Method 2. Denormalization tags is simply a VARCHAR or TEXT field containing a tab delimited array of tagId:ownerId. It cannot be a fixed size. post: id, content, ownerId, date, tags, notesId tag: id, name, notesId Method 3. Toxi (from: http://www.pui.ch/phred/archives/2005/04/tags-database-schemas.html, also same thing here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/20856/how-do-you-recommend-implementing-tags-or-tagging) post: id, content, ownerId, date, notesId tag_assoc: ownerId, tagId, postId tag: id, name, notesId Method 3 raises the question, how fast will it be to iterate through every single row in tag_assoc? Methods 1 and 2 should be fast for returning tags by post, but for posts by tag, another lookup table must be made. The last thing I have to worry about is optimizing searching tags by name, I have not worked that out yet. I made an ASCII diagram here: http://pastebin.com/f1c4e0e53

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• On Click alert if $.get returns a value, if not, submit the form

  - by bradenkeith

  If the submit button is clicked, prevent the default action and see if the field 'account_name' is already in use. If the $.get() returns a result, alert the user of the results. If it doesn't, submit form with id="add_account_form". My problem is that my else{} statement is not submitting the form. I get no response when submit is clicked & there is no value returned. Also I would like to change my code where it goes $("#add_account_form").submit(..) instead of .click() however, would that cause a problem when trying to submit the form later in the script? <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function () { $("#submit").click( function () { var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.get( "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", {account_name: account_name}, function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." ); }else{ $("#add_account_form").submit(); } }); return false; }); }); </script> <p> <input type="submit" id="submit" class="submit small" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form> Thanks for your help. EDIT So anyone who runs into my problems, it's that $.get() is asynchronous, so it will always return false, or true depending on what submitForm is defined as. $.ajax() however, allows async to be set as false, which allows the function to finish before moving on. See what I mean: $(document).ready( function () { $("#add_account_form").submit( function () { var submitForm = true; var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", async: false, url: "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", data: ({account_name: account_name}), success: function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ if(!confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." )){ submitForm = false; } } } }); if (submitForm == false ) { return false; } }); }); Thanks for your help @Dan

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• asp.net custom templated datalist - throws argument out of range (index) on button press

  - by MrTortoise

  I have a class BaseTemplate public abstract class BaseTemplate : ITemplate This adds the controls, and provides abstract methods to implement in the inheriting class. The inheriting class then adds its html according to its data source and manages the data binding. this all works fine - I get the control appearing with properly parsed html. the problem is that the base class adds controls into the template that have their own CommandName arguments ... the idea is that the class that implements the custom templated dataList will provide the logic of setting the Selected and Edit Indexes. This class also manages the data binding etc. It sets all of the templates ont he datalist in the Init method (which was another cause of this exception). the exception gets throw when i hit one of these buttons .. but after the ItemCommand event is being processed. The stack trace does not include any references to my methods or objects which is why i am so stuck. The Exception Details Exception Details: System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: index The Stack Trace: [ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: index] System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.get_Item(Int32 index) +8665582 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.GetItem(ListItemType itemType, Int32 repeatIndex) +8667655 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.System.Web.UI.WebControls.IRepeatInfoUser.GetItemStyle(ListItemType itemType, Int32 repeatIndex) +11 System.Web.UI.WebControls.RepeatInfo.RenderVerticalRepeater(HtmlTextWriter writer, IRepeatInfoUser user, Style controlStyle, WebControl baseControl) +8640873 System.Web.UI.WebControls.RepeatInfo.RenderRepeater(HtmlTextWriter writer, IRepeatInfoUser user, Style controlStyle, WebControl baseControl) +27 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter writer) +208 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataList.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +30 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +163 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +32 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +51 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +40 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +29 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1266 This is driving me absolutley stark raving bonkers ... im talking cthulu style.

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• JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

  - by IrishDubGuy

  I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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• How to check for local Wi-Fi (not just cellular connection) using iPhone SDK?

  - by Michael

  I'm currently using the following to check whether Wi-Fi is available for my application: #import <SystemConfiguration/SystemConfiguration.h> static inline BOOL addressReachable(const struct sockaddr_in *hostAddress); BOOL localWiFiAvailable() { struct sockaddr_in localWifiAddress; bzero(&localWifiAddress, sizeof(localWifiAddress)); localWifiAddress.sin_len = sizeof(localWifiAddress); localWifiAddress.sin_family = AF_INET; // IN_LINKLOCALNETNUM is defined in <netinet/in.h> as 169.254.0.0 localWifiAddress.sin_addr.s_addr = htonl(IN_LINKLOCALNETNUM); return addressReachable(&localWifiAddress); } static inline BOOL addressReachable(const struct sockaddr_in *hostAddress) { const SCNetworkReachabilityRef target = SCNetworkReachabilityCreateWithAddress(kCFAllocatorDefault, (const struct sockaddr *)hostAddress); if (target != NULL) { SCNetworkReachabilityFlags flags = 0; const BOOL reachable = SCNetworkReachabilityGetFlags(target, &flags); CFRelease(target); return reachable && (flags & kSCNetworkFlagsReachable); } return NO; } This, however, does not return NO as it should when the iPhone is connected only to a cellular network but not a Wi-Fi network. Does anyone know how to fix this? Edit So this is what I ended up using: #import <arpa/inet.h> // For AF_INET, etc. #import <ifaddrs.h> // For getifaddrs() #import <net/if.h> // For IFF_LOOPBACK BOOL localWiFiAvailable() { struct ifaddrs *addresses; struct ifaddrs *cursor; BOOL wiFiAvailable = NO; if (getifaddrs(&addresses) != 0) return NO; cursor = addresses; while (cursor != NULL) { if (cursor -> ifa_addr -> sa_family == AF_INET && !(cursor -> ifa_flags & IFF_LOOPBACK)) // Ignore the loopback address { // Check for WiFi adapter if (strcmp(cursor -> ifa_name, "en0") == 0) { wiFiAvailable = YES; break; } } cursor = cursor -> ifa_next; } freeifaddrs(addresses); return wiFiAvailable; } Thanks "unforgiven" (and Matt Brown apparently).

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• Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

  - by imageWorker

  I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

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• flash cs4 file reference. Event.COMPLETE not called on a MAC,

  - by jobbie jones

  Hi, I am working with a fileReference, however I'm having issues running on Safari on a MAC... EDIT The below example also doesnt work on Safari on a MAC... http://www.permadi.com/blog/2010/06/flash-as3-using-filereference-to-load-files-example-for-flash-cs4-and-above/ # The workflow on a PC runs as such: 1) Create file reference 2) attach addEventListener's for Event.SELECT and Event.COMPLETE 3) call the browse() method On a PC, Event.SELECT is fired when a file has been selected. Event.COMPLETE is fired when the file data is available to flash. If I select an 500meg file, it takes a few seconds before Event.COMPLETE is fired. If I attempt to access the file data properties (such as reading the data stream) before Event.COMPLETE is fired, I receive null reference errors... So far so good. However, on a MAC (speficially Safari, not tested other browsers), the Event.COMPLETE is not fired. I have checked the Adobe docs, which say Event.COMPLETE is fired when the upload is completed. So why does it get fired on windows when the fileReference has parsed the file, but the upload method has not yet been called... Can anyone help? Here's snippets of the code I am working on: public function browseFile(target:Object):void { var imagesFilter:FileFilter = new FileFilter("Allowed files", "*.jpg;*.bmp;*.flv;"); fileReference.browse([imagesFilter]); fileReference.addEventListener(Event.SELECT, fileSelect); fileReference.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, fileSelectComplete); } private function fileSelect(event:Event):void { // update label - IMPORTANT for large files as there's a delay while flash parses file, before control is handed back to this script... setStatusLabel("...loading file"); var fileReference:FileReference = event.target as FileReference; fileReference.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, fileSelectComplete); // load the file into the fileReference object fileReference.load(); } // Called when upload file has been processed by flash (a few secs for large files, or fileRef.data is null...) private function fileSelectComplete(event:Event):void { var fileReference:FileReference=event.target as FileReference; trace("ready to do things - but not fired on Safari on a MAC "); }

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• How to make html image clickable inside a TextView

  - by Gonan

  I have the following text in a string in the resources file: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;</a> It shows the image fine (I implemented ImageGetter) but it is not clickable. I have tried adding the Linkify thingy but I don't think it's meant for this case, and so it doesn't work. The setMovementMethod doesn't work either. I have tried different combinations of the above: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;hello</a> Here, even the "hello" part is not clickable (neither blue nor underlined). <a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail_big" /></a> This doesn't even show the image. &lt;a href="mailto:[email protected]"&gt;&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;&lt;/a&gt; If I just write the email, without the <a> tag it works perfectly, but I would like to use the image of an envelope that the user can click on. It's not possible to use an imagebutton because this text is in the middle of a string and so I can't split it. Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: I found a solution or rather found how to do it correctly. All I had to do was adding the setMovementMethod call before the call to setText in the TextView and ALSO, and COMPLETELY NECESSARY, remove the attribute "android:autoLink="all" from the layout. Apparently, parsing mails and urls in a string is mutually exclusive to interpreting the link tags in a string. So one or the other but not both. Finally my layout is just a TextView with nothing special, just width and height. The activity is like this: TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.about_text); tv.setMovementMethod(LinkMovementMethod.getInstance()); tv.setText(Html.fromHtml(getString(R.string.about_content), new ImageGetter(), null)); And the string is like this: <string name="about_content"><a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail" /></a></string>

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• How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

  - by Joe

  I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

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• Implementing Skip List in C++

  - by trikker

  [SOLVED] So I decided to try and create a sorted doubly linked skip list... I'm pretty sure I have a good grasp of how it works. When you insert x the program searches the base list for the appropriate place to put x (since it is sorted), (conceptually) flips a coin, and if the "coin" lands on a then that element is added to the list above it(or a new list is created with element in it), linked to the element below it, and the coin is flipped again, etc. If the "coin" lands on b at anytime then the insertion is over. You must also have a -infinite stored in every list as the starting point so that it isn't possible to insert a value that is less than the starting point (meaning that it could never be found.) To search for x, you start at the "top-left" (highest list lowest value) and "move right" to the next element. If the value is less than x than you continue to the next element, etc. until you have "gone too far" and the value is greater than x. In this case you go back to the last element and move down a level, continuing this chain until you either find x or x is never found. To delete x you simply search x and delete it every time it comes up in the lists. For now, I'm simply going to make a skip list that stores numbers. I don't think there is anything in the STL that can assist me, so I will need to create a class List that holds an integer value and has member functions, search, delete, and insert. The problem I'm having is dealing with links. I'm pretty sure I could create a class to handle the "horizontal" links with a pointer to the previous element and the element in front, but I'm not sure how to deal with the "vertical" links (point to corresponding element in other list?) If any of my logic is flawed please tell me, but my main questions are: How to deal with vertical links and whether my link idea is correct Now that I read my class List idea I'm thinking that a List should hold a vector of integers rather than a single integer. In fact I'm pretty positive, but would just like some validation. I'm assuming the coin flip would simply call int function where rand()%2 returns a value of 0 or 1 and if it's 0 then a the value "levels up" and if it's 0 then the insert is over. Is this incorrect? How to store a value similar to -infinite? Edit: I've started writing some code and am considering how to handle the List constructor....I'm guessing that on its construction, the "-infinite" value should be stored in the vectorname[0] element and I can just call insert on it after its creation to put the x in the appropriate place.

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• How to add new object to an IList mapped as a one-to-many with NHibernate?

  - by Jørn Schou-Rode

  My model contains a class Section which has an ordered list of Statics that are part of this section. Leaving all the other properties out, the implementation of the model looks like this: public class Section { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual IList<Static> Statics { get; private set; } } public class Static { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } } In the database, the relationship is implemented as a one-to-many, where the table Static has a foreign key pointing to Section and an integer column Position to store its index position in the list it is part of. The mapping is done in Fluent NHibernate like this: public SectionMap() { Id(x => x.Id); HasMany(x => x.Statics).Cascade.All().LazyLoad() .AsList(x => x.WithColumn("Position")); } public StaticMap() { Id(x => x.Id); References(x => x.Section); } Now I am able to load existing Statics, and I am also able to update the details of those. However, I cannot seem to find a way to add new Statics to a Section, and have this change persisted to the database. I have tried several combinations of: mySection.Statics.Add(myStatic) session.Update(mySection) session.Save(myStatic) but the closest I have gotten (using the first two statements), is to an SQL exception reading: "Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'Position'". Clearly an INSERT is attempted here, but NHibernate does not seem to automatically append the index position to the SQL statement. What am I doing wrong? Am I missing something in my mappings? Do I need to expose the Position column as a property and assign a value to it myself? EDIT: Apparently everything works as expected, if I remove the NOT NULL constraint on the Static.Position column in the database. I guess NHibernate makes the insert and immediatly after updates the row with a Position value. While this is an anwers to the question, I am not sure if it is the best one. I would prefer the Position column to be not nullable, so I still hope there is some way to make NHibernate provide a value for that column directly in the INSERT statement. Thus, the question is still open. Any other solutions?

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• Select latest group by in nhibernate

  - by Kendrick

  I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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• How do I update with a newly-created detached entity using NHibernate?

  - by Daniel T.

  Explanation: Let's say I have an object graph that's nested several levels deep and each entity has a bi-directional relationship with each other. A -> B -> C -> D -> E Or in other words, A has a collection of B and B has a reference back to A, and B has a collection of C and C has a reference back to B, etc... Now let's say I want to edit some data for an instance ofC. In Winforms, I would use something like this: var instanceOfC; using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // get the instance of C with Id = 3 instanceOfC = session.Linq<C>().Where(x => x.Id == 3); } SendToUIAndLetUserUpdateData(instanceOfC); using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // re-attach the detached entity and update it session.Update(instanceOfC); } In plain English, we grab a persistent instance out of the database, detach it, give it to the UI layer for editing, then re-attach it and save it back to the database. Problem: This works fine for Winform applications because we're using the same entity all throughout, the only difference being that it goes from persistent to detached to persistent again. The problem occurs when I'm using a web service and a browser, sending over JSON data. In this case, the data that comes back is no longer a detached entity, but rather a transient one that just happens to have the same ID as the persistent one. If I use this entity to update, it will wipe out the relationship to B and D unless I sent the entire object graph over to the UI and got it back in one piece. Question: My question is, how do I serialize detached entities over the web, receive them back, and save them, while preserving any relationships that I didn't explicitly change? I know about ISession.SaveOrUpdateCopy and ISession.Merge() (they seem to do the same thing?), but this will still wipe out the relationships if I don't explicitly set them. I could copy the fields from the transient entity to the persistent entity one by one, but this doesn't work too well when it comes to relationships and I'd have to handle version comparisons manually.

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• Hide jQuery Accordion while loading

  - by zac

  I am testing a site build with a slow connection and I noticed the jQuery Accordion stays expanded for a long time, until the rest of the site is loaded, and then finally collapses. Not very pretty. I was wondering how I could keep it collapsed through the loading process and only expand when clicked. I am working with the standalone 1.6 version of the accordion plugin. The basic structure : <div class="sidebar"> <ul id="navigation" class="ui-accordion-container"> <li><a class="head" href="#">1</a> <ul class="sub"> <li><a href="#">1a</a></li> <li><a href="#">2a</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </div> and the script jQuery().ready(function(){ jQuery('#navigation').accordion({ active: 'false', header: '.head', navigation: true, animated: 'easeslide', collapsible: true }); }); I tried to hide the elements in the CSS to keep them from appearing while loading but all that achieved is in having them always hidden. Maybe the problem is in the CSS I have a background image in each of the sub menus: #navigation{ margin:0px; margin-left: 10px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; font-size: 1.1em; width:200px; text-transform: uppercase; padding-bottom: 30px; } #navigation ul{ border-width:0px; margin:0px; padding:0px; text-indent:0px; } #navigation li{ list-style:none outside none; } #navigation li ul{ height:185px; overflow:auto; } #navigation li ul.sub{ background:url('../images/sub.jpg') no-repeat; dispaly: block; } #navigation li li a{ color:#000000; display:block; text-indent:20px; text-decoration: none; padding: 6px 0; } #navigation li li a:hover{ background-color:#FFFF99; color:#FF0000; } Thanks in advance for any advice on how to have this thing run a little smoother and having the accordion always collapsed. -edit - I forgot to mention that I am also hoping for a solution that will allow the nav to still be accessible for those without javscript.

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• Passing objects to a UITypeEditor

  - by Kath

  I am currently hoping to use a PropertyGrid to allow users to edit some of my classes, however I've hit a wall with passing objects to the UITypeEditor(s) they use. When the user presses the drop down I want to show a listbox of already loaded textures to choose from, if they want to use a texture the application hasn't loaded yet they can click a button to choose one from a file dialog. In case I make no sense here a mock of the form: . My problem: To fill the listbox I need access to the class that manages the list of resources from the UITypeEditor. Now I've solved this problem for my own classes by giving them a reference on creation to their managing object. In the UITypeEditor I then use that reference to access what I need. However I can't do this for classes I haven't written, such as the XNA Texture2D class. Here are what the classes I'm using look like: class StaticGeometryChunk { // Geometry data to draw with. Contains a reference to its managing // class for use in its UITypeEditor. public GeometryData { get; set; } .... } class Material { // These are XNA classes. I can't just add a reference to its managing // class (I think?). public Texture2D Texture1 { get; set; } public Texture2D Texture2 { get; set; } .... } I've been looking at my options and they seem to be: Make the managing classes static. I don't really want to do this. There are several managing classes as each resource is loaded differently. There are also classes that need to be created before these and are passed in. Make the managing classes singletons. I don't really want to do this either. It seems like a quick and dirty way to "hide" the problem instead of "solve" it. I also might want the option of having several managing classes in the future which the singletons eliminate. Create a wrapper class which holds the reference to a managing class and its target (such as the XNA Texture2D). This is currently what I'm thinking of doing. Its would be quite simple and quick to do but something about it nags me but I don't know what. Any thoughts on the above or other methods to pass what I need into the UITypeEditor? Thank you for reading.

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• Problems with creating and using of delegate-protocols

  - by Flocked

  Hello, I have the problem that I have created a delegate protocol, but the necessary methods are not executed, although I have implemented the protocol in my header file. Here are the detailed explanation: I created an instance of my ViewController (TimeLineViewController), which will be displayed. This ViewController contains a UITableView, which in turn receives the individual Cells / Rows from one instance of my TableViewCell. So the ViewController creates an instance of TableCellView. The TableViewCell contains a UITextView, which contains web links. Now I want, that not safari opens the links, but my own built-in browser. Unfortunately TableViewCell can not open a new ViewController with a WebView, so I decided to create a delegate protocol. The whole thing looks like this: WebViewTableCellDelegate.h: @protocol WebViewTableCellDelegate -(void)loadWeb; @end Then I created a instance WebViewDelegate in the TableViewCell: id <WebViewTableCellDelegate> _delegate; In the .m of the TableViewCell: @interface UITextView (Override) @end @class WebView, WebFrame; @protocol WebPolicyDecisionListener; @implementation UITextView (Override) - (void)webView:(WebView *)webView decidePolicyForNavigationAction:(NSDictionary *)actionInformation request:(NSURLRequest *)request frame:(WebFrame *)frame decisionListener:(id < WebPolicyDecisionListener >)listener { NSLog(@"request: %@", request); [_delegate loadWeb]; } @end - (void)setDelegate:(id <WebViewTableCellDelegate>)delegate{ _delegate = delegate;} And in my TimeLineViewController I implemented the protocol with < and the loadWeb-metode: - (void)loadWeb{ WebViewController *web = [[WebViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; web.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController: web animated:YES]; [web release]; } And when the instance of the TableViewCell will be created in the TimelineViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; MyIdentifier = @"tableCell"; TableViewCell *cell = (TableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if(cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"TableViewCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = tableCell;} [cell setDelegate:self]; //… } It is the first time I created a own delegate-protocol, so maybe there are stupid mistakes. Also I´m learnung Objective-C and programming generally only for 4 weeks. Thanks for your help! EDIT: I think i found the problem, but I dont know how to resolve it. I try to use [_delegate loadWeb]; in the subclass of the UITextView (because that is the only way i can react on the weblinks) and the subclass can´t use [_delegate loadWeb];. I tried this in a other methode and it worked.

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• Wordpress pages address rewrite

  - by kemp

  UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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• Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

  - by themoondothshine

  Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

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• Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

  - by gWiz

  I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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• I want to set the AutoCompleteMode property in ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl subroutine

  - by Ranjan Gupta

  Hi, I am creating a DataGridView Column. and it is working well. now I want to customise this column with AutoCompleteMode, and AutoCompleteSource properties to show the customised data. I made the properties for this columns, and these are also working well. but these properties are not working in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Please help me to use these column properties in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Public Class DataGridViewDataValueColumn Inherits DataGridViewColumn Dim m_AutoCompleteMode As AutoCompleteMode, _ m_AutoCompleteSource As AutoCompleteSource, _ m_AutoCompleteStringCollection As AutoCompleteStringCollection Public Sub New() MyBase.New(New DataValueCell()) End Sub Public Overrides Property CellTemplate() As DataGridViewCell Get Return MyBase.CellTemplate End Get Set(ByVal value As DataGridViewCell) ' Ensure that the cell used for the template is a DataValueCell. If (value IsNot Nothing) AndAlso _ Not value.GetType().IsAssignableFrom(GetType(DataValueCell)) _ Then Throw New InvalidCastException("Must be a DataValueCell") End If MyBase.CellTemplate = value End Set End Property Region "User Defined Properties" '&*--------------------------------------*&' <Description("Indicates the text completion behaviour of the combo box."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteMode.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteMode() As AutoCompleteMode Get Return m_AutoCompleteMode End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteMode) m_AutoCompleteMode = value End Set End Property <Description("The source of complete strings used to automatic completion."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteSource.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteSource() As AutoCompleteSource Get Return m_AutoCompleteSource End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteSource) m_AutoCompleteSource = value End Set End Property <Description("The autocomplete custom source.")> _ Public Property AutoCompleteCustomSource() As AutoCompleteStringCollection Get Return m_AutoCompleteStringCollection End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteStringCollection) m_AutoCompleteStringCollection = value End Set End Property End Region End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class DataValueCell Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxCell Public Sub New() ' End Sub Public Overrides ReadOnly Property EditType As Type Get Return GetType(PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl) End Get End Property End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' '&* Edit DataGridView Columns *&' '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Public Overrides Function EditingControlWantsInputKey(ByVal keyData As Keys, ByVal dataGridViewWantsInputKey As Boolean) As Boolean Select Case ((keyData And Keys.KeyCode)) Case Keys.Prior, Keys.Next, Keys.End, Keys.Home, Keys.Left, Keys.Up, Keys.Right, Keys.Down, Keys.Delete Return True End Select Return MyBase.EditingControlWantsInputKey(keyData, dataGridViewWantsInputKey) End Function Public Overrides Sub ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl(ByVal dataGridViewCellStyle As DataGridViewCellStyle) With DirectCast(Me, TextBox) '.AutoCompleteMode = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteMode_Value '.AutoCompleteSource = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteSource_Value '.AutoCompleteCustomSource = MyBase.AutoCompleteCustomSource End With End Sub End Class

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• PHP - JSON Steam API query

  - by Hunter

  First time using "JSON" and I've just been working away at my dissertation and I'm integrating a few features from the steam API.. now I'm a little bit confused as to how to create arrays. function test_steamAPI() { $api = ('http://api.steampowered.com/ISteamUser/GetPlayerSummaries/v0002/?key='.get_Steam_api().'&steamids=76561197960435530'); $test = decode_url($api); var_dump($test['response']['players'][0]['personaname']['steamid']); } //Function to decode and return the data. function decode_url($url) { $decodeURL = $url; $data = file_get_contents($url); $data_output = json_decode($data, true); return $data_output; } So ea I've wrote a simple method to decode Json as I'll be doing a fair bit.. But just wondering the best way to print out arrays.. I can't for the life of me get it to print more than 1 element without it retunring an error e.g. Warning: Illegal string offset 'steamid' in /opt/lampp/htdocs/lan/lan-includes/scripts/class.steam.php on line 48 string(1) "R" So I can print one element, and if I add another it returns errors. EDIT -- Thanks for help, So this was my solution: function test_steamAPI() { $api = ('http://api.steampowered.com/ISteamUser/GetPlayerSummaries/v0002/?key='.get_Steam_api().'&steamids=76561197960435530,76561197960435530'); $data = decode_url($api); foreach($data ['response']['players'] as $player) { echo "Steam id:" . $player['steamid'] . "\n"; echo "Community visibility :" . $player['communityvisibilitystate'] . "\n"; echo "Player profile" . $player['profileurl'] ."\n"; } } //Function to decode and return the data. function decode_url($url) { $decodeURL = $url; $json = file_get_contents($decodeURL); $data_output = json_decode($json, true); return $data_output; } Worked this out by taking a look at the data.. and a couple json examples, this returns an array based on the Steam API URL (It works for multiple queries.... just FYI) and you can insert loops inside for items etc.. (if anyone searches for this).

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• Grid sorting with persistent master sort

  - by MikeWyatt

  I have a UI with a grid. Each record in the grid is sorted by a "master" sort column, let's call it a page number. Each record is a story in a magazine. I want the user to be able to drag and drop a record to a new position in the grid and automatically update the page number field to reflect the updated position. Easy enough, right? Now imagine that I also want to have the grid sortable by any other column (story title, section, author name, etc.). How does the drag and drop operation work now? Revert to page number sort during or after the drag and drop operation? This could confuse the user (why did my sort just change?). It would also result in arbitrary row positioning. Would the story now be before the row that was after it when the user dropped it? Or, would it be after the row that was before it? Those rows may now be widely separated after the master order sort. Disable the drag and drop feature if the grid isn't currently sorted by the page number? This would be easy, but the user might wonder why he can't drag and drop at certain times. Knowing to first sort by page number may not be very intuitive. Let the user rearrange his rows, but not make any changes to the page number? Require the user to enter a "Arrange Stories" mode, in which the grid sort is temporarily switched to page number and drag and drop is enabled? They would then exit the mode, and the previous sort would be reapplied. The big difference between this and the second option is that it would be more explicit than simply clicking on a column header. Any other ideas, or reasons why one of the above is the way to go? EDIT I'd like to point out that any of the above is technically possible, and easy to implement. My question is design-related. What is the most intuitive way to solve this problem, from the user's perspective?

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