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• How and why do I set up a C# build machine?

  - by mmr

  Hi all, I'm working with a small (4 person) development team on a C# project. I've proposed setting up a build machine which will do nightly builds and tests of the project, because I understand that this is a Good Thing. Trouble is, we don't have a whole lot of budget here, so I have to justify the expense to the powers that be. So I want to know: What kind of tools/licenses will I need? Right now, we use Visual Studio and Smart Assembly to build, and Perforce for source control. Will I need something else, or is there an equivalent of a cron job for running automated scripts? What, exactly, will this get me, other than an indication of a broken build? Should I set up test projects in this solution (sln file) that will be run by these scripts, so I can have particular functions tested? We have, at the moment, two such tests, because we haven't had the time (or frankly, the experience) to make good unit tests. What kind of hardware will I need for this? Once a build has been finished and tested, is it a common practice to put that build up on an ftp site or have some other way for internal access? The idea is that this machine makes the build, and we all go to it, but can make debug builds if we have to. How often should we make this kind of build? How is space managed? If we make nightly builds, should we keep around all the old builds, or start to ditch them after about a week or so? Is there anything else I'm not seeing here? I realize that this is a very large topic, and I'm just starting out. I couldn't find a duplicate of this question here, and if there's a book out there I should just get, please let me know. EDIT: I finally got it to work! Hudson is completely fantastic, and FxCop is showing that some features we thought were implemented were actually incomplete. We also had to change the installer type from Old-And-Busted vdproj to New Hotness WiX. Basically, for those who are paying attention, if you can run your build from the command line, then you can put it into hudson. Making the build run from the command line via MSBuild is a useful exercise in itself, because it forces your tools to be current.

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• Correct way to make datasources/resources a deploy-time setting

  - by Draemon

  I have a web-app that requires two settings: A JDBC datasource A string token I desperately want to be able to deploy one .war to various different containers (jetty,tomcat,gf3 minimum) and configure these settings at application level within the container. My code does this: InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); Context envCtx = (javax.naming.Context) ctx.lookup("java:comp/env"); token = (String)envCtx.lookup("token"); ds = (DataSource)envCtx.lookup("jdbc/datasource") Let's assume I've used the glassfish management interface to create two jdbc resources: jdbc/test-datasource and jdbc/live-datasource which connect to different copies of the same schema, on different servers, different credentials etc. Say I want to deploy this to glassfish with and point it at the test datasource, I might have this in my sun-web.xml: ... <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/datasource</res-ref-name> <jndi-name>jdbc/test-datasource</jndi-name> </resource-ref> ... but sun-web.xml goes inside my war, right? surely there must be a way to do this through the management interface Am I even trying to do the right thing? Do other containers make this any easier? I'd be particularly interested in how jetty 7 handles this since I use it for development. EDIT Tomcat has a reasonable way to do this: Create $TOMCAT_HOME/conf/Catalina/localhost/webapp.xml with: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Context antiResourceLocking="false" privileged="true"> <!-- String resource --> <Environment name="token" value="value of token" type="java.lang.String" override="false" /> <!-- Linking to a global resource --> <ResourceLink name="jdbc/datasource1" global="jdbc/test" type="javax.sql.DataSource" /> <!-- Derby --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource2" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDataSource" url="jdbc:derby:test;create=true" /> <!-- H2 --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource3" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.h2.jdbcx.JdbcDataSource" url="jdbc:h2:~/test" username="sa" password="" /> </Context> Note that override="false" means the opposite. It means that this setting can't be overriden by web.xml. I like this approach because the file is part of the container configuration not the war, but it's not part of the global configuration; it's webapp specific. I guess I expect a bit more from glassfish since it is supposed to have a full web admin interface, but I would be happy enough with something equivalent to the above.

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• Disable button after submit

  - by Chris Philpotts

  I'm trying to disable a button when a user submits a payment form and the code to post the form is causing a double post in firefox. This problem does not occur when the code is removed, and does not occur in any browser other than firefox. Any idea how to prevent the double post here? System.Text.StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("if (typeof(Page_ClientValidate) == 'function') { "); sb.Append("if (Page_ClientValidate() == false) { return false; }} "); sb.Append("this.value = 'Please wait...';"); sb.Append("this.disabled = true;"); sb.Append(Page.GetPostBackEventReference(btnSubmit )); sb.Append(";"); btnSubmit.Attributes.Add("onclick", sb.ToString()); it's the sb.Append(Page.GetPostBackEventReference(btnSubmit )) line that's causing the issue Thanks EDIT: Here's the c# of the button: <asp:Button ID="cmdSubmit" runat="server" Text="Submit" /> here's the html This code posts twice (and disables the submit button and verifies input): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="if (typeof(Page_ClientValidate) == 'function') { if (Page_ClientValidate() == false) { return false; }} this.value = 'Please wait...';this.disabled = true;document.getElementById('ctl00_MainContent_cmdBack').disabled = true;__doPostBack('ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit','');" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code posts twice (but doesn’t disable the submit button): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="__doPostBack('ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit','');" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code posts once (but doesn’t verify the user input and doesn’t disable the submit button): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code posts once (but doesn’t disable submit button): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="javascript:WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code doesn’t post at all: <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="this.disabled = true;WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> Obviously it’s the disabling of the submit button that’s posing the problem. Do you have any ideas how we can disable the submit to avoid multiple clicking?

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• How to get compatibility between C# and SQL2k8 AES Encryption?

  - by Victor Rodrigues

  I have an AES encryption being made on two columns: one of these columns is stored at a SQL Server 2000 database; the other is stored at a SQL Server 2008 database. As the first column's database (2000) doesn't have native functionality for encryption / decryption, we've decided to do the cryptography logic at application level, with .NET classes, for both. But as the second column's database (2008) allow this kind of functionality, we'd like to make the data migration using the database functions to be faster, since the data migration in SQL 2k is much smaller than this second and it will last more than 50 hours because of being made at application level. My problem started at this point: using the same key, I didn't achieve the same result when encrypting a value, neither the same result size. Below we have the full logic in both sides.. Of course I'm not showing the key, but everything else is the same: private byte[] RijndaelEncrypt(byte[] clearData, byte[] Key) { var memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); Rijndael algorithm = Rijndael.Create(); algorithm.Key = Key; algorithm.IV = InitializationVector; var criptoStream = new CryptoStream(memoryStream, algorithm.CreateEncryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write); criptoStream.Write(clearData, 0, clearData.Length); criptoStream.Close(); byte[] encryptedData = memoryStream.ToArray(); return encryptedData; } private byte[] RijndaelDecrypt(byte[] cipherData, byte[] Key) { var memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); Rijndael algorithm = Rijndael.Create(); algorithm.Key = Key; algorithm.IV = InitializationVector; var criptoStream = new CryptoStream(memoryStream, algorithm.CreateDecryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write); criptoStream.Write(cipherData, 0, cipherData.Length); criptoStream.Close(); byte[] decryptedData = memoryStream.ToArray(); return decryptedData; } This is the SQL Code sample: open symmetric key columnKey decryption by password = N'{pwd!!i_ll_not_show_it_here}' declare @enc varchar(max) set @enc = dbo.VarBinarytoBase64(EncryptByKey(Key_GUID('columnKey'), 'blablabla')) select LEN(@enc), @enc This varbinaryToBase64 is a tested sql function we use to convert varbinary to the same format we use to store strings in the .net application. The result in C# is: eg0wgTeR3noWYgvdmpzTKijkdtTsdvnvKzh+uhyN3Lo= The same result in SQL2k8 is: AI0zI7D77EmqgTQrdgMBHAEAAACyACXb+P3HvctA0yBduAuwPS4Ah3AB4Dbdj2KBGC1Dk4b8GEbtXs5fINzvusp8FRBknF15Br2xI1CqP0Qb/M4w I just didn't get yet what I'm doing wrong. Do you have any ideas? EDIT: One point I think is crucial: I have one Initialization Vector at my C# code, 16 bytes. This IV is not set at SQL symmetric key, could I do this? But even not filling the IV in C#, I get very different results, both in content and length.

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• Finding N contiguous zero bits in an integer to the left of the MSB position of another integer

  - by James Morris

  The problem is: given an integer val1 find the position of the highest bit set (Most Significant Bit) then, given a second integer val2 find a contiguous region of unset bits, with the minimum number of zero bits given by width to the left of the position (ie, in the higher bits). Here is the C code for my solution: typedef unsigned int t; unsigned const t_bits = sizeof(t) * CHAR_BIT; _Bool test_fit_within_left_of_msb( unsigned width, t val1, t val2, unsigned* offset_result) { unsigned offbit = 0; unsigned msb = 0; t mask; t b; while(val1 >>= 1) ++msb; while(offbit + width < t_bits - msb) { mask = (((t)1 << width) - 1) << (t_bits - width - offbit); b = val2 & mask; if (!b) { *offset_result = offbit; return true; } if (offbit++) /* this conditional bothers me! */ b <<= offbit - 1; while(b <<= 1) offbit++; } return false; } Aside from faster ways of finding the MSB of the first integer, the commented test for a zero offbit seems a bit extraneous, but necessary to skip the highest bit of type t if it is set. I have also implemented similar algorithms but working to the right of the MSB of the first number, so they don't require this seemingly extra condition. How can I get rid of this extra condition, or even, are there far more optimal solutions? Edit: Some background not strictly required. The offset result is a count of bits from the high bit, not from the low bit as maybe expected. This will be part of a wider algorithm which scans a 2D array for a 2D area of zero bits. Here, for testing, the algorithm has been simplified. val1 represents the first integer which does not have all bits set found in a row of the 2D array. From this the 2D version would scan down which is what val2 represents. Here's some output showing success and failure: t_bits:32 t_high: 10000000000000000000000000000000 ( 2147483648 ) --------- ----------------------------------- *** fit within left of msb test *** ----------------------------------- val1: 00000000000000000000000010000000 ( 128 ) val2: 01000001000100000000100100001001 ( 1091569929 ) msb: 7 offbit:0 + width: 8 = 8 mask: 11111111000000000000000000000000 ( 4278190080 ) b: 01000001000000000000000000000000 ( 1090519040 ) offbit:8 + width: 8 = 16 mask: 00000000111111110000000000000000 ( 16711680 ) b: 00000000000100000000000000000000 ( 1048576 ) offbit:12 + width: 8 = 20 mask: 00000000000011111111000000000000 ( 1044480 ) b: 00000000000000000000000000000000 ( 0 ) offbit:12 iters:10 ***** found room for width:8 at offset: 12 ***** ----------------------------------- *** fit within left of msb test *** ----------------------------------- val1: 00000000000000000000000001000000 ( 64 ) val2: 00010000000000001000010001000001 ( 268469313 ) msb: 6 offbit:0 + width: 13 = 13 mask: 11111111111110000000000000000000 ( 4294443008 ) b: 00010000000000000000000000000000 ( 268435456 ) offbit:4 + width: 13 = 17 mask: 00001111111111111000000000000000 ( 268402688 ) b: 00000000000000001000000000000000 ( 32768 ) ***** mask: 00001111111111111000000000000000 ( 268402688 ) offbit:17 iters:15 ***** no room found for width:13 ***** (iters is the count of iterations of the inner while loop)

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• Calling data from different model in Rails

  - by Danny McClelland

  Hi Everyone, I need to be able to call data from a different model - not just one field, but any of them. At the moment I have the following models: kase person company party I can call information from the company to the kase and from the person to the kase using this: <li>Client Company Address: <span class="address"><%=h @kase.company.companyaddress %></span></li> <li>Case Handler: <span><%=h @kase.person.personname %></span></li> Those two work, however if I add the following: <li>Client Company Fax: <span><%=h @kase.company.companyfax %></span></li> <li>Case Handler Tel: <span><%=h @kase.person.personmobile %></span></li> <li>Case Handler Email: <span><%=h @kase.person.personemail %></span></li> Any idea whats wrong? Thanks, Danny EDIT: I get the following error message: NoMethodError in Kases#show Showing app/views/kases/show.html.erb where line #37 raised: You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! The error occurred while evaluating nil.personname The lines that are noted are as follows: 34: <div id="clientinfo_showhide" style="display:none"> 35: <li>Client Company Address: <span class="address"><%=h @kase.company.companyaddress %></span></li> 36: <li>Client Company Fax: <span><%=h @kase.company.companyfax %></span></li> 37: <li>Case Handler: <span><%=h @kase.person.personname %></span></li> 38: <li>Case Handler Tel: <span><%=h @kase.person.personmobile %></span></li> 39: <li>Case Handler Email: <span><%=h @kase.person.personemail %></span></li> 40: </div> The model for the kase is as follows: class Kase belongs_to :company # foreign key: company_id belongs_to :person # foreign key in join table The model for the person is as follows: class Person has_many :kases # foreign key in join table belongs_to :company The model for the company is as follows: class Company has_many :kases has_many :people def to_s; companyname; end Hope this helps!

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• What is the best practice for adding persistence to an MVC model?

  - by etheros

  I'm in the process of implementing an ultra-light MVC framework in PHP. It seems to be a common opinion that the loading of data from a database, file etc. should be independent of the Model, and I agree. What I'm unsure of is the best way to link this "data layer" into MVC. Datastore interacts with Model //controller public function update() { $model = $this->loadModel('foo'); $data = $this->loadDataStore('foo', $model); $data->loadBar(9); //loads data and populates Model $model->setBar('bar'); $data->save(); //reads data from Model and saves } Controller mediates between Model and Datastore Seems a bit verbose and requires the model to know that a datastore exists. //controller public function update() { $model = $this->loadModel('foo'); $data = $this->loadDataStore('foo'); $model->setDataStore($data); $model->getDataStore->loadBar(9); //loads data and populates Model $model->setBar('bar'); $model->getDataStore->save(); //reads data from Model and saves } Datastore extends Model What happens if we want to save a Model extending a database datastore to a flatfile datastore? //controller public function update() { $model = $this->loadHybrid('foo'); //get_class == Datastore_Database $model->loadBar(9); //loads data and populates $model->setBar('bar'); $model->save(); //saves } Model extends datastore This allows for Model portability, but it seems wrong to extend like this. Further, the datastore cannot make use of any of the Model's methods. //controller extends model public function update() { $model = $this->loadHybrid('foo'); //get_class == Model $model->loadBar(9); //loads data and populates $model->setBar('bar'); $model->save(); //saves } EDIT: Model communicates with DAO //model public function __construct($dao) { $this->dao = $dao; } //model public function setBar($bar) { //a bunch of business logic goes here $this->dao->setBar($bar); } //controller public function update() { $model = $this->loadModel('foo'); $model->setBar('baz'); $model->save(); } Any input on the "best" option - or alternative - is most appreciated.

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• How to deal with class composition when components cannot be accessed from the outside?

  - by Chathuranga

  For example if I say I have three classes A, B, and C where B and C have a composition relation ship with A. That means the life of B and C is handled by A, and also B and C cannot access directly from the outside. For some reason my DataService class needs to return objects of B and C as It cant return a object of A as B and C cannot be initialized at the same time. (to be able to initializeC you have to initializeB first). So that I'm returning DataTables from DataService and then inside the class A those data tables are converted to B / C objects. If B and C objects cannot be initialized at the same time is it valid to say that B and C have a composition relationship with A? If its composition is it must to generate A with B and C inside? What is the proper way to handle this sort of a problem? EDIT: Following code explains the way I'm doing it now with DataTables. Example: class A { private List<B> B; private List <C> C; public A() { B= new List<B>(); C= new List<C>(); } public List<B> GetB( DataTable dt) { // Create a B list from dt return B; } } class Presenter { private void Show B() { _View.DataGrid = A.GetB(DataService.GetAListOfB()); } } The actual scenario is I have a class called WageInfo and classes Earning and Deduction having a composition relationship in the design. But for you to generate Deductions first you should Generate earnings and should be saved in a table. Then only you can generate deductions for the earnings to calculate balance wages. Also note that these contained classes have a one to many relationship with the containing class WageInfo. So actually WageInfo has a List<Earnings> and List<Deduction> My initial question was, is it ok if my DataService class returns Deductions / Earnings objects (actually lists) not a WageInfo? Still not clear?

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• How to match multiple substrings in jQuery combobox autocomplete

  - by John R

  I found more than a couple examples of this with a plain jquery autocomplete but not in a way that will work with the autocomplete included in the combobox code from the demo because the structure of the code is structured so differently. I want to match every item that has all of the search tokens anywhere in any word. I don't need to match the start of any word, any part of it is fine. I don't care if the search strings are highlighted in the autocomplete list if that makes things too complicated. Desired search/result combos: (please excuse the spacing) "fi th" "fi rst second th ird" "rs on" "fi rs t sec on d third" "ec rd" "first s ec ond thi rd" but not limited to any max/min length or number of tokens. EDIT I figured part of it out using the code structure from the other autocorrect I had working. source: function( requestObj, responseFunc ) { var matchArry = $("select > option").map(function(){return this.innerHTML;}).get(); var srchTerms = $.trim(requestObj.term).split(/\s+/); // For each search term, remove non-matches $.each (srchTerms, function (J, term) { var regX = new RegExp (term, "i"); matchArry = $.map (matchArry, function (item) { if( regX.test(item) ){ return{ label: item, value: item, option: HTMLOptionElement } ? item :null; } } ); }); // Return the match results responseFunc (matchArry); }, and select: function( event, ui ) { ui.item.option.selected = true; self._trigger( "selected", event, { item: ui.item.option }); $("destination").val(ui.item.value); // I added this line }, but I can't get both multiple words AND being able to click to select working at the same time. If I remove the } ? item :null; on the return in the map function I can click to select an item. If I leave it I can type multiple words, but I can't click any of the items... Is that the problem or the option: this? I've tried replacing it with HTMLOptionElement and null and I'm stuck. I am able to set the value of another field with ui.item.value within the select label but that doesn't put the value in the search box or close the dropdown menu. Fiddle of current code: http://jsfiddle.net/eY3hM/

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• QValidator for hex input

  - by Evan Teran

  I have a Qt widget which should only accept a hex string as input. It is very simple to restrict the input characters to [0-9A-Fa-f], but I would like to have it display with a delimiter between "bytes" so for example if the delimiter is a space, and the user types 0011223344 I would like the line edit to display 00 11 22 33 44 Now if the user presses the backspace key 3 times, then I want it to display 00 11 22 3. I almost have what i want, so far there is only one subtle bug involving using the delete key to remove a delimiter. Does anyone have a better way to implement this validator? Here's my code so far: class HexStringValidator : public QValidator { public: HexStringValidator(QObject * parent) : QValidator(parent) {} public: virtual void fixup(QString &input) const { QString temp; int index = 0; // every 2 digits insert a space if they didn't explicitly type one Q_FOREACH(QChar ch, input) { if(std::isxdigit(ch.toAscii())) { if(index != 0 && (index & 1) == 0) { temp += ' '; } temp += ch.toUpper(); ++index; } } input = temp; } virtual State validate(QString &input, int &pos) const { if(!input.isEmpty()) { // TODO: can we detect if the char which was JUST deleted // (if any was deleted) was a space? and special case this? // as to not have the bug in this case? const int char_pos = pos - input.left(pos).count(' '); int chars = 0; fixup(input); pos = 0; while(chars != char_pos) { if(input[pos] != ' ') { ++chars; } ++pos; } // favor the right side of a space if(input[pos] == ' ') { ++pos; } } return QValidator::Acceptable; } }; For now this code is functional enough, but I'd love to have it work 100% as expected. Obviously the ideal would be the just separate the display of the hex string from the actual characters stored in the QLineEdit's internal buffer but I have no idea where to start with that and I imagine is a non-trivial undertaking. In essence, I would like to have a Validator which conforms to this regex: "[0-9A-Fa-f]( [0-9A-Fa-f])*" but I don't want the user to ever have to type a space as delimiter. Likewise, when editing what they types, the spaces should be managed implicitly.

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• JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

  - by timaschew

  I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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• How to use Crtl in a Delphi unit in a C++Builder project? (or link to C++Builder C runtime library)

  - by Craig Peterson

  I have a Delphi unit that is statically linking a C .obj file using the {$L xxx} directive. The C file is compiled with C++Builder's command line compiler. To satisfy the C file's runtime library dependencies (_assert, memmove, etc), I'm including the crtl unit Allen Bauer mentioned here. unit FooWrapper; interface implementation uses Crtl; // Part of the Delphi RTL {$L FooLib.obj} // Compiled with "bcc32 -q -c foolib.c" procedure Foo; cdecl; external; end. If I compile that unit in a Delphi project (.dproj) everthing works correctly. If I compile that unit in a C++Builder project (.cbproj) it fails with the error: [ILINK32 Error] Fatal: Unable to open file 'CRTL.OBJ' And indeed, there isn't a crtl.obj file in the RAD Studio install folder. There is a .dcu, but no .pas. Trying to add crtdbg to the uses clause (the C header where _assert is defined) gives an error that it can't find crtdbg.dcu. If I remove the uses clause, it instead fails with errors that __assert and _memmove aren't found. So, in a Delphi unit in a C++Builder project, how can I export functions from the C runtime library so they're available for linking? I'm already aware of Rudy Velthuis's article. I'd like to avoid manually writing Delphi wrappers if possible, since I don't need them in Delphi, and C++Builder must already include the necessary functions. Edit For anyone who wants to play along at home, the code is available in Abbrevia's Subversion repository at https://tpabbrevia.svn.sourceforge.net/svnroot/tpabbrevia/trunk. I've taken David Heffernan's advice and added a "AbCrtl.pas" unit that mimics crtl.dcu when compiled in C++Builder. That got the PPMd support working, but the Lzma and WavPack libraries both fail with link errors: [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external '_beginthreadex' referenced from ABLZMA.OBJ [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external 'sprintf' referenced from ABWAVPACK.OBJ [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external 'strncmp' referenced from ABWAVPACK.OBJ [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external '_ftol' referenced from ABWAVPACK.OBJ AFAICT, all of them are declared correctly, and the _beginthreadex one is actually declared in AbLzma.pas, so it's used by the pure Delphi compile as well. To see it yourself, just download the trunk (or just the "source" and "packages" directories), disable the {$IFDEF BCB} block at the bottom of AbDefine.inc, and try to compile the C++Builder "Abbrevia.cbproj" project.

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• Javascript AJAX function not working in IE?

  - by Sam152

  I have this code: function render_message(id) { var xmlHttp; xmlHttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlHttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if(xmlHttp.readyState==4) { document.getElementById('message').innerHTML=xmlHttp.responseText; document.getElementById('message').style.display=''; } } var url="include/javascript/message.php"; url=url+"?q="+id; xmlHttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlHttp.send(null); } For some reason it does not work in IE and an error is being reported on this line "document.getElementById('message').innerHTML=xmlHttp.responseText;" with an "Unknown Runtime Error". Can anyone help? Edit: The code being added to the div is valid code ect. Here is the response: <div style="margin-left:auto;margin-right:auto;width:400px;"> <img src="/forum/img/avatars/2.gif" width="90" height="89" style="float:left;"> <div style="margin-left:100px;"> <span style="font-size:16pt;">Sam152</a></span><br> <span style="font-size:10pt;text-transform:uppercase;font-weight:bold;">From Sam152</span><br> <span style="font-size:10pt;font-weight:bold;">Recieved April 17, 2009, 9:44 am</span><br> <br><br> </div> </div> <div style="margin-left:auto;margin-right:auto;width:400px;"> asd</div> <div style="margin-left:auto;margin-right:auto;width:400px;text-align:right;padding-top:10px;"> <span onClick="requestPage('http://www.gametard.com/include/scripts/delete_message.php?id=14');document.getElementById('message14').style.display='none';document.getElementById('message').style.display='none';" class="button">Delete</span> <span onClick="document.getElementById('message').style.display='none';" class="button">Close</span> <span onClick="document.getElementById('to').value ='Sam152';document.getElementById('to').style.color ='#000';document.getElementById('newmessage').style.display='';" class="button">Reply</span> </div>

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• Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot find the file specified"

  - by Ted

  There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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• Android library to get pitch from WAV file

  - by Sakura

  I have a list of sampled data from the WAV file. I would like to pass in these values into a library and get the frequency of the music played in the WAV file. For now, I will have 1 frequency in the WAV file and I would like to find a library that is compatible with Android. I understand that I need to use FFT to get the frequency domain. Is there any good libraries for that? I found that [KissFFT][1] is quite popular but I am not very sure how compatible it is on Android. Is there an easier and good library that can perform the task I want? EDIT: I tried to use JTransforms to get the FFT of the WAV file but always failed at getting the correct frequency of the file. Currently, the WAV file contains sine curve of 440Hz, music note A4. However, I got the result as 441. Then I tried to get the frequency of G4, I got the result as 882Hz which is incorrect. The frequency of G4 is supposed to be 783Hz. Could it be due to not enough samples? If yes, how much samples should I take? //DFT DoubleFFT_1D fft = new DoubleFFT_1D(numOfFrames); double max_fftval = -1; int max_i = -1; double[] fftData = new double[numOfFrames * 2]; for (int i = 0; i < numOfFrames; i++) { // copying audio data to the fft data buffer, imaginary part is 0 fftData[2 * i] = buffer[i]; fftData[2 * i + 1] = 0; } fft.complexForward(fftData); for (int i = 0; i < fftData.length; i += 2) { // complex numbers -> vectors, so we compute the length of the vector, which is sqrt(realpart^2+imaginarypart^2) double vlen = Math.sqrt((fftData[i] * fftData[i]) + (fftData[i + 1] * fftData[i + 1])); //fd.append(Double.toString(vlen)); // fd.append(","); if (max_fftval < vlen) { // if this length is bigger than our stored biggest length max_fftval = vlen; max_i = i; } } //double dominantFreq = ((double)max_i / fftData.length) * sampleRate; double dominantFreq = (max_i/2.0) * sampleRate / numOfFrames; fd.append(Double.toString(dominantFreq)); Can someone help me out? EDIT2: I manage to fix the problem mentioned above by increasing the number of samples to 100000, however, sometimes I am getting the overtones as the frequency. Any idea how to fix it? Should I use Harmonic Product Frequency or Autocorrelation algorithms?

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• Eclipse RCP and JFace: Problems with Images in Context menu and TreeViewer

  - by Juri

  I'm working on an Eclipse RCP application. Today I experienced some troubles when displaying images in the context menu. What I wanted to do is to add a column to my table containing images of stars for representing a user rating. On Windows, this causes some problems, since the star images are squeezed up on the left corner of the table cell instead of expanding on the whole cell, but I'll solve that somehow. In addition I have a context menu on the table, with an entry called "rate" where again the different stars from 1 to 5 (representing the rating level) are shown, such that the user can click on it for choosing different ratings. That works fine on Windows. Now I switched to Linux (Ubuntu) to see how it works out there, and strangely, the stars in the table cell are layed out perfectly, while the stars on the context menu don't even show up. On the context menu I'm using an action class where I'm setting the image descriptor for the star images: public class RateAction extends Action { private final int fRating; private IStructuredSelection fSelection; public RateAction(int rating, IStructuredSelection selection) { super("", AS_CHECK_BOX); fRating = rating; fSelection = selection; setImageDescriptor(createImageDescriptor()); } /** * Creates the correct ImageDescriptor depending on the given rating * @return */ private ImageDescriptor createImageDescriptor() { ImageDescriptor imgDescriptor = null; switch (fRating) { case 0: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_0; case 1: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_1; case 2: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_2; case 3: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_3; case 4: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_4; case 5: return OwlUI.NEWS_STARON_5; default: break; } return imgDescriptor; } /* * @see org.eclipse.jface.action.Action#getText() */ @Override public String getText() { //return no text, since the images of the stars will be displayed return ""; } ... } Does somebody know why this strange behaviour appears? Thanks a lot. (For some strange reason, the images don't appear. Here are the direct URLs: http://img187.imageshack.us/img187/4427/starsratingho4.png http://img514.imageshack.us/img514/8673/contextmenuproblemgt1.png) //Edit: I did some tries and it seems as if the images just don't appear when using a Checkbox style for the context menu (see constructor of the RateAction). When I switched to a PushButton style, the images appeared, although not correctly scaled, but at least they were shown.

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• Internationalization of static pages with Rails

  - by Gavin

  I feel like I'm missing something really simple and I keep spinning my wheels on this problem. I currently have internationalization working throughout my app. The translations work and the routes work perfectly. At least, most of the site works with the exception of the routes to my two static pages, my "About" and "FAQ" pages. Every other link throughout the app points to the proper localized route. For example if I select "french" as my language, links point to the appropriate "(/:locale)/controller(.:format)." However, despite the changes I make throughout the app my links for the "About" and "FAQ" refuse to point to "../fr/static/about" and always point to "/static/about." To make matters stranger, when I run rake routes I see: "GET (/:locale)/static/:permalink(.:format) pages#show {:locale=/en|fr/}" and when I manually type in "../fr/static/about" the page translates perfectly. My Routes file: devise_for :users scope "(:locale)", :locale => /en|fr/ do get 'static/:permalink', :controller => 'pages', :action => 'show' resources :places, only: [:index, :show, :destroy] resources :homes, only: [:index, :show] match '/:locale' => 'places#index' get '/'=>'places#index',:as=>"root" end My ApplicationController: before_filter :set_locale def set_locale I18n.locale=params[:locale]||I18n.default_locale end def default_url_options(options={}) logger.debug "default_url_options is passed options: #{options.inspect}\n" { :locale => I18n.locale } end and My Pages Controller: class PagesController < ApplicationController before_filter :validate_page PAGES = ['about_us', 'faq'] def show render params[:permalink] end def validate_page redirect_to :status => 404 unless PAGES.include?(params[:permalink]) end end I'd be very grateful for any help ... it's just been one of those days. Edit: Thanks to Terry for jogging me to include views. <div class="container-fluid nav-collapse"> <ul class="nav"> <li class="dropdown"> <a href="#" class="dropdown-toggle" data-toggle="dropdown"><%= t(:'navbar.about') %><b class="caret"></b></a> <ul class="dropdown-menu"> <li><%=link_to t(:'navbar.about_us'), "/static/about_us"%></li> <li><%=link_to t(:'navbar.faq'), "/static/faq"%></li> <li><%=link_to t(:'navbar.blog'), '#' %></li> </ul> </li>

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• Rails & Twilio: Receiving nil when storing texts received from Twilio

  - by Jon Smooth

  I have set up the request URL in my Twilio account to have it POST to: myurl.com/receivetext. It appears to be successfully posting because when I check the database using the Heroku console I see the following: Post id: 5, body: nil, from: nil, created_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01", updated_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01" Why is it receiving nil for the body and from attributes? I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong! The created and updated at are storing successfully but the two attributes that I care about continue to be stored as nil. Here's the Receive Text controller which is receiving the Post request from Twilio: class ReceiveTextController < ApplicationController def index @post=Post.create!(body: params[:Body], from: params[:From]) end end EDIT: When I dump the params I receive the following: "{\"controller\"=\"receive_text\", \"action\"=\"index\"}" I attained this by inserting the following into my ReceiveText controller. @params = Post.create!(body: params.inspect, from: "Dumping Params") and then opening up the Heroku console to find the database entry with from = "Dumping Params". I simulated a Twilio request with a curl with the following command curl -X POST myurl.com/receivetext route -d 'AccountSid=AC123&From=%2B19252411234' I checked the production database again and noticed that the curl request did work when obtaining the FROM atribute. It stored the following: params.inspect returned "{\"AccountSid\"=\"AC123\", \"From\"=\"+19252411234\", \"co..." I received a comment stating: "As long as twilio is hitting the same URL with the same method (GET/POST) it should be filling the params array as well" I have no idea how to make this comment actionable. Any help would be greatly appreciated! I'm very new to rails. Here's my database migration (I have both attributes set to string. I have tried setting it to text and that didn't work either) : class CreatePosts < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :posts do |t| t.string :body t.string :from t.timestamps end end end Here is my Post model: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :body, :from end Routes (everything appears to be routing just fine) : MovieApp::Application.routes.draw do get "receive_text/index" get "pages/home" get "send_text/send_text_message" root to: 'pages#home' match '/receivetext', to: 'receive_text#index' match '/pages/home', to: 'pages#home' match '/sendtext', to: 'send_text#send_text_message' end Here's my gemfile (incase it helps) source 'https://rubygems.org' gem 'rails', '3.2.3' gem 'badfruit' gem 'twilio-ruby' gem 'logger' gem 'jquery-rails' group :production do gem 'pg' end group :development, :test do gem 'sqlite3' end group :assets do gem 'sass-rails', '~> 3.2.3' gem 'coffee-rails', '~> 3.2.1' gem 'uglifier', '>= 1.0.3' end

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• Help with strange memory behavior. Looking for leaks both in my brain and in my code.

  - by BastiBechtold

  I spent the last few days trying to find memory leaks in a program we are developing. First of all, I tried using some leak detectors. After fixing a few issues, they do not find any leaks any more. However, I am also monitoring my application using perfmon.exe. Performance Monitor reports that 'Private Bytes' and 'Working Set - Private' are steadily rising when the app is used. To me, this suggests that the program is using more and more memory the longer it runs. Internal resources seem to be stable however, so this sounds like leaking to me. The program is loading a DLL at runtime. I suspect that these leaks or whatever they are occur in that library and get purged when the library is unloaded, hence they won't get picked up by the leak detectors. I used both DevPartner BoundsChecker and Virtual Leak Detector to look for memory leaks. Both supposedly catch leaks in DLLs. Also, the memory consumption is increasing in steps and those steps roughly, but not exactly, coincide with certain GUI actions I perform in the application. If these were errors in our code, they should get triggered every single time the actions are performed and not just most of the time. Whenever I am confronted with so much strangeness, I begin to question my basic assumptions. So I turn to you, who know everything, for suggestions. Is there a flaw in my assumptions? Do you have an idea of how to go about troubleshooting a problem like this? Edit: I am currently using Microsoft Visual C++ (x86) on Windows 7 64. Edit2: I just used IBM Purify to hunt for leaks. First of all, it lists a full 30% of the program as leaked memory. This can not be true. I guess it is identifying the whole DLL as leaked or something like that. However, if I search for new leaks every few actions, it reports leaks that correspond with the size increase reported by Performance Monitor. This could be a lead to a leak. Sadly, I am only using the trial version of Purify, so it won't show me the actual location of those leaks. (These leaks only show up at runtime. When the program exits, there are no leaks whatsoever reported by any tool.)

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• How to change the extension of a processed xml file (using eXist & cocoon)

  - by Carsten C.

  Hi all, I'm really new to this whole web stuff, so please be nice if I missed something important to post. Short: Is there a possibility to change the name of a processed file (eXist-DB) after serialization? Here my case, the following request to my eXist-db: http://localhost:8080/exist/cocoon/db/caos/test.xml and I want after serialization the follwing (xslt is working fine): http://localhost:8080/exist/cocoon/db/caos/test.html I'm using the followong sitemap.xmap with cocoon (hoping this is responsible for it) <map:match pattern="db/caos/**"> <!-- if we have an xpath query --> <map:match pattern="xpath" type="request-parameter"> <map:generate src="xmldb:exist:///db/caos/{../1}/#{1}"/> <map:act type="request"> <map:parameter name="parameters" value="true"/> <map:parameter name="default.howmany" value="1000"/> <map:parameter name="default.start" value="1"/> <map:transform type="filter"> <map:parameter name="element-name" value="result"/> <map:parameter name="count" value="{howmany}"/> <map:parameter name="blocknr" value="{start}"/> </map:transform> <map:transform src=".snip./webapp/stylesheets/db2html.xsl"> <map:parameter name="block" value="{start}"/> <map:parameter name="collection" value="{../../1}"/> </map:transform> </map:act> <map:serialize type="html" encoding="UTF-8"/> </map:match> <!-- if the whole file will be displayed --> <map:generate src="xmldb:exist:/db/caos/{1}"/> <map:transform src="..snip../stylesheets/caos2soac.xsl"> <map:parameter name="collection" value="{1}"/> </map:transform> <map:transform type="encodeURL"/> <map:serialize type="html" encoding="UTF-8"/> </map:match> So my Question is: How do I change the extension of the test.xml to test.html after processing the xml file? Background: I'm generating some information out of some xml-dbs, this infos will be displayed in html (which is working), but i want to change some entrys later, after I generated the html site. To make this confortable, I want to use Jquery & Jeditable, but the code does not work on the xml files. Saving the generated html is not an option. tia for any suggestions [and|or] help CC Edit: After reading all over: could it be, that the extension is irrelevant and that this is only a problem of port 8080? I'm confused...

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• Objective-c design advice for use of different data sources, swapping between test and live

  - by user200341

  I'm in the process of designing an application that is part of a larger piece of work, depending on other people to build an API that the app can make use of to retrieve data. While I was thinking about how to setup this project and design the architecture around it, something occurred to me, and I'm sure many people have been in similar situations. Since my work is depending on other people to complete their tasks, and a test server, this slows work down at my end. So the question is: What's the best practice for creating test repositories and classes, implementing them, and not having to depend on altering several places in the code to swap between the test classes and the actual repositories / proper api calls. Contemplate the following scenario: GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [[GetDataFromApiCommand alloc]init]; getDataCommand.delegate = self; [getDataCommand getData]; Once the data is available via the API, "GetDataFromApiCommand" could use the actual API, but until then a set of mock data could be returned upon the call of [getDataCommand getData] There might be multiple instances of this, in various places in the code, so replacing all of them wherever they are, is a slow and painful process which inevitably leads to one or two being overlooked. In strongly typed languages we could use dependency injection and just alter one place. In objective-c a factory pattern could be implemented, but is that the best route to go for this? GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [GetDataFromApiCommandFactory buildGetDataFromApiCommand]; getDataCommand.delegate = self; [getDataCommand getData]; What is the best practices to achieve this result? Since this would be most useful, even if you have the actual API available, to run tests, or work off-line, the ApiCommands would not necessarily have to be replaced permanently, but the option to select "Do I want to use TestApiCommand or ApiCommand". It is more interesting to have the option to switch between: All commands are test and All command use the live API, rather than selecting them one by one, however that would also be useful to do for testing one or two actual API commands, mixing them with test data. EDIT The way I have chosen to go with this is to use the factory pattern. I set up the factory as follows: @implementation ApiCommandFactory + (ApiCommand *)newApiCommand { // return [[ApiCommand alloc]init]; return [[ApiCommandMock alloc]init]; } @end And anywhere I want to use the ApiCommand class: GetDataFromApiCommand *getDataCommand = [ApiCommandFactory newApiCommand]; When the actual API call is required, the comments can be removed and the mock can be commented out. Using new in the message name implies that who ever uses the factory to get an object, is responsible for releasing it (since we want to avoid autorelease on the iPhone). If additional parameters are required, the factory needs to take these into consideration i.e: [ApiCommandFactory newSecondApiCommand:@"param1"]; This will work quite well with repositories as well.

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• How do I use a custom #theme function to a fieldset in a drupal module?

  - by Rob Crowell

  I have a module that builds a form that includes a fieldset. Instead of using the <legend> element to render the fieldset title, I want to place this content in a <div> element instead. But I want to change the behavior only for the form returned by my module, so I don't want to place any new functionality into my theme's template.php file. In mymod.module I have defined: // custom rendering function for fieldset elements function theme_mymod_fieldset($element) { return 'test'; } // implement hook_theme function mymod_theme() { return array( 'mymod_fieldset' => array('arguments' => array('element' => NULL)), 'mymod_form' => array('arguments' => array()) ); } // return a form that is based on the 'Basic Account Info' category of the user profile function mymod_form() { // load the user's profile global $user; $account = user_load($user->uid); // load the profile form, and then edit it $form_state = array(); $form = drupal_retrieve_form('user_profile_form', $form_state, $account, 'Basic Account Info'); // set the custom #theme function for this fieldset $form['Basic Account Info']['#theme'] = 'mymod_fieldset'; // more form manipulations // ... return $form; } When my page gets rendered, I expected to see the fieldset representing 'Basic Account Info' to be wholly replaced by my test message 'test'. Instead what happens is that the <fieldset> and <legend> elements are rendered as normal, but with the body of the fieldset replaced by the test message instead, like this: <fieldset> <legend>Basic Account Info</legend> test </fieldset> Why doesn't my #theme function have the chance to replace the entire <fieldset> element? If I wrap a textfield in this function instead, I am able to completely replace the <input> element along with its label. Furthermore, if I provide an override in my site's template.php for theme_fieldset, it works as expected and I am able to completely replace the <fieldset>, so I know it is possible. What's different about providing #theme functions to fieldsets inside a module?

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• ASP.NET ObjectDataSource, change CommandName property of FromView Button

  - by Tone

  I have an ObjectDataSource that I'm using with a FormView, and it works fine, but i want to change one small thing. On the FormView the button that fires the update has the CommandName attribute set to "Update," but I would like to change that attribute to something other than "Update" - when I do change that attribute the update no longer works. The reason I want to do this is I have multiple FormViews on the same page and need to have multiple update buttons. Below is my code: FormView: <asp:FormView ID="fvGeneralInfo" runat="server" DataSourceID="objInstructorDetails" CssClass="Gridview" OnItemCommand="fvGeneralInfo_ItemCommand" DefaultMode="Edit"> <EditItemTemplate> <table> .... <tr> <td style="text-align:right;"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblGeneralInfoMessage" Text="General Info updated successfully" Visible="false" /> </td> <td> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnUpdateGeneralInfo" ValidationGroup="UpdateGeneralInfo" Text="Update" CommandName="Update" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnCancelGeneralInfo" Text="Cancel" CommandName="CancelGeneralInfo" /> </td> </tr> </table> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> ObjectDataSource: <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="objInstructorDetails" runat="server" TypeName="AIMLibrary.BLL.Instructor" SelectMethod="GetInstructorDetails" InsertMethod="InsertInstructor" UpdateMethod="UpdateInstructor" OnInserting="objInstructorDetails_OnInserting" OnUpdating="objInstructorDetails_OnUpdating" > <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="InstructorId" QueryStringField="InstructorId" /> </SelectParameters> <UpdateParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="instructorId" Type="Int32" /> <asp:Parameter Name="firstName" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="middleName" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="lastName" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="phone" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="email" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="addressLine1" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="addressLine2" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="city" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="state" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="zip" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> <asp:Parameter Name="abcBoardNumber" Type="String" DefaultValue="" /> </UpdateParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource>

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• Using jQuery to store basic text string in mySQL base?

  - by Kenny Bones

  Could someone point me in the right direction here? Basically, I've got this jQuery code snippet: $('.bggallery_images').click(function () { var newBG = "url('" + $(this).attr('src'); var fullpath = $(this).attr('src'); var filename = fullpath.replace('img/Bakgrunner/', ''); $('#wrapper').css('background-image', newBG); // Lagre til SQL $.ajax({ url: "save_to_db.php", // The url to your function to handle saving to the db data: filename, dataType: 'Text', type: 'POST', // Could also use GET if you prefer success: function (data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); }); This is being run when I click a certain button. So it's actually within a click handler. If I understand this correctly, this snippet takes the source if the image I just clicked and strips it so I end up with only the filename. If I do an alert(filename), I get the filename only. So this is working ok. But then, it does an ajax call to a php file called "save_to_db.php" and sends data: filename. This is correct right? Then, it does a callback which does an alert + data. Does this seem correct so far? Cause my php file looks like this: <?php require("dbconnect2.php"); $uploadstring = $_POST['filename']; $sessionid = $_SESSION['id']; echo ($sessionid); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = '$uploadstring' WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id']); mysql_close(); ?> When I click the image, the jQuery snippet fires and I get the results of this php file as output for the alert box. I think that the variables somehow are empty. Because notice the echo($sessionid); which is a variable I've created just to test what the session ID is. And it returns nothing. What could be the issue here? Edit: I just tried to echo out the $uploadstring variable as well and it also returns nothing. It's like the jQuery snippet doesn't even pass the variable on to the php file?

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• Unset/Change Binding in WPF

  - by captcalamares

  How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

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