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• DirectShow EVR resizing window problem

  - by Daniel

  So I've been looking into the world of media playback for windows and I've started making a C# Media Player using DirectShow. I started off using the VRM-7 windowed video renderer and it was brilliant except it had a couple of small problems (multi monitors, fullscreen). But after some research I found that it's deprecated and I should be using VRM9. So I changed it to use VRM9 windowless then found out that was an old post rofl _< so finally I'm using Vista/Win7 (or XP .net 3) Enhanced Video Renderer (EVR) which is apparently the most up to date Microsoft video renderer and has all the flashy performance/quality things added to it. (tbh I haven't noticed any difference but maybe I need a blue-ray or HQ video to notice it). With using EVR everything is working fine except resizing the video. Its really laggy/choppy/teary and probably something to do with its frame queueing mechanism. To demonstrate my problem open up windows media player classic. View - Options - Playback - output Chose the "EVR" DirectShow Video renderer Now restart wmp class and play a video, while it's playing click and drag a corner to resize it. You'll notice its horribly laggy. This is the exact same problem i am having. But if you chose "EVR Custom Pres. *" or EVR Sync *" resizing works beautifully! So i tried googling around for anything about EVR resizing issues and how to fix it but i couldn't believe how little i could find. I'm guessing "Custom Pres." stands for "Custom Presenter" which sounds like they made their own. Also you'll notice on the right hand size when you swap between EVR and the other EVR's the Resizer drop down on the right greys out. So basically I wan't to know how I can fix this retarded resizing problem and is there any decent documentation out there? There is a fair bit for VMR7/9 but not much for EVR. I downloaded the DirectX SDK which apparently has samples but it was a waste of 500mb of bandwidth as it had nothing relevant. Perhaps there is some way to force it not queueing up frames if that is the problem? If you want code say the word and I'll paste some in. But it's really quite simple and nothing much happens, i'm convinced it's a problem with the EVR renderer. EDIT: Oh and one other thing, what does VLC use? If you go into vlc options and change the renderer to anything but default, they all suck. So is it using VMR7? Or its own?

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• Memory efficient int-int dict in Python

  - by Bolo

  Hi, I need a memory efficient int-int dict in Python that would support the following operations in O(log n) time: d[k] = v # replace if present v = d[k] # None or a negative number if not present I need to hold ~250M pairs, so it really has to be tight. Do you happen to know a suitable implementation (Python 2.7)? EDIT Removed impossible requirement and other nonsense. Thanks, Craig and Kylotan! To rephrase. Here's a trivial int-int dictionary with 1M pairs: >>> import random, sys >>> from guppy import hpy >>> h = hpy() >>> h.setrelheap() >>> d = {} >>> for _ in xrange(1000000): ... d[random.randint(0, sys.maxint)] = random.randint(0, sys.maxint) ... >>> h.heap() Partition of a set of 1999530 objects. Total size = 49161112 bytes. Index Count % Size % Cumulative % Kind (class / dict of class) 0 1 0 25165960 51 25165960 51 dict (no owner) 1 1999521 100 23994252 49 49160212 100 int On average, a pair of integers uses 49 bytes. Here's an array of 2M integers: >>> import array, random, sys >>> from guppy import hpy >>> h = hpy() >>> h.setrelheap() >>> a = array.array('i') >>> for _ in xrange(2000000): ... a.append(random.randint(0, sys.maxint)) ... >>> h.heap() Partition of a set of 14 objects. Total size = 8001108 bytes. Index Count % Size % Cumulative % Kind (class / dict of class) 0 1 7 8000028 100 8000028 100 array.array On average, a pair of integers uses 8 bytes. I accept that 8 bytes/pair in a dictionary is rather hard to achieve in general. Rephrased question: is there a memory-efficient implementation of int-int dictionary that uses considerably less than 49 bytes/pair?

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• Image Hover-HTML CSS

  - by LostSchemer

  I am having trouble creating a different image to appear when you place your curser over the original image. Heres my code without the rest of my listed buttons: <nav class="buttons"> <ul> <li class="left"> <a class="home" href="www.google.com"> <img src="img/Home_2.png"></a></li> </ul> </nav> Css: .buttons img{width: 190px; margin:0px; padding:0px; margin:0 auto; margin-top:55px;} .buttons ul{list-style-type: none; margin:0px; padding:0px} .left{float:left} .home:hover {background: url(../img/Home_crack.PNG)} Any suggestions? EDIT: Okay great suggestions, however when I hover over the "home button" now the stuff in the float tweeks out. Heres the code with the full float properties: HTML: <nav class="buttons"> <ul> <li class="left"> <a class="home" href="www.google.com"> <img src="img/Home_2.png"></a></li> <li class="left"> <a href="www.google.com" class="menu"> <img src="img/Menu_2.png"></a></li> <li class="right"> <a href="www.google.com" class="about"> <img src="img/About_2.png"></a></li> <li class="right"> <a href="www.google.com" class="contact"> <img src="img/Contact_2.png"></a></li> </ul> </nav> CSS: .buttons img{width: 190px; margin:0px; padding:0px; margin:0 auto; margin-top:55px;} .buttons ul{list-style-type: none; margin:0px; padding:0px} .left{float:left} .home:hover img{display:none} .home:hover {background: url(../img/Home_crack.PNG);} .right{float:right} Basically i wanted to separate 4 buttons.... one in the left float and one in the right float, then on the hover, the buttons would change to a different image....With the new img{display:none} the left float rapidly flashes.

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• IE 8: Object Expected for Every Javascript Function

  - by Yetkin EREN

  Hi; Moz say's everything is ok! IE say's object expected everywhere.. for example this my make a box function (in all.js file); function kutuyap(Eid,iduzan,text,yer,ekle){ var div; if (document.createElement && (div = document.createElement('div'))) { div.name = div.id = Eid+iduzan; document.getElementById(yer).appendChild(div); } //$('#'+yer).append("<div id="+Eid+iduzan+"></div>") $('#'+Eid+iduzan).addClass("minikutu"); $('#'+Eid+iduzan).html("&nbsp;"+text+'<span id='+Eid+'y'+iduzan+' class="yokedici">X</span>'); $("#"+Eid+'y'+iduzan).attr("onclick","kutusil('"+Eid+"y"+iduzan+"','"+iduzan+"','"+ekle+"');"); $('#'+ekle).val($('#'+ekle).val()+Eid+'-'); } and after that i call function like this; HTML; <select name="Mturs" class="inputs" id="Mturs"> <option value="0" selected="selected">Choise One</option> <option value="4">Pop</option> <option value="3">Pop-Rock </option> <option value="5">Rock (Yabanci)</option> </select> <input name="secMtur" id="secMtur" value="" type="hidden"> <script> $('#Mturs').live('change', function() { $('#Mturs :selected').each(function (i) { if ( $('#Mturs :selected').val() != 0 ) { secMturde=$('#secMtur').val().indexOf($('#Mturs :selected').val()+'-'); splitter=$('#secMtur').val().split("-") if(splitter.length<=12){ if (secMturde<0) { kutuyap($('#Mturs :selected').val(),'mtur',$(this).html(),'divmtur','secMtur'); }else{ alert("Choisen before") } }else{ alert("Max limit is 12 !") } } }); }); </script> sory for my realy bad english.. edit: and i have this tags; <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=EmulateIE7" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.1/jquery.min.js"> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="alljs.js"></script>

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• Unexpected output from Bubblesort program with MSVC vs TCC

  - by Sujith S Pillai

  One of my friends sent this code to me, saying it doesn't work as expected: #include<stdio.h> void main() { int a [10] ={23, 100, 20, 30, 25, 45, 40, 55, 43, 42}; int sizeOfInput = sizeof(a)/sizeof(int); int b, outer, inner, c; printf("Size is : %d \n", sizeOfInput); printf("Values before bubble sort are : \n"); for ( b = 0; b &lt; sizeOfInput; b++) printf("%d\n", a[b]); printf("End of values before bubble sort... \n"); for ( outer = sizeOfInput; outer &gt; 0; outer-- ) { for ( inner = 0 ; inner &lt; outer ; inner++) { printf ( "Comparing positions: %d and %d\n",inner,inner+1); if ( a[inner] &gt; a[inner + 1] ) { int tmp = a[inner]; a[inner] = a [inner+1]; a[inner+1] = tmp; } } printf ( "Bubble sort total array size after inner loop is %d :\n",sizeOfInput); printf ( "Bubble sort sizeOfInput after inner loop is %d :\n",sizeOfInput); } printf ( "Bubble sort total array size at the end is %d :\n",sizeOfInput); for ( c = 0 ; c &lt; sizeOfInput; c++) printf("Element: %d\n", a[c]); } I am using Micosoft Visual Studio Command Line Tool for compiling this on a Windows XP machine. cl /EHsc bubblesort01.c My friend gets the correct output on a dinosaur machine (code is compiled using TCC there). My output is unexpected. The array mysteriously grows in size, in between. If you change the code so that the variable sizeOfInput is changed to sizeOfInputt, it gives the expected results! A search done at Microsoft Visual C++ Developer Center doesn't give any results for "sizeOfInput". I am not a C/C++ expert, and am curious to find out why this happens - any C/C++ experts who can "shed some light" on this? Unrelated note: I seriously thought of rewriting the whole code to use quicksort or merge sort before posting it here. But, after all, it is not Stooge sort... Edit: I know the code is not correct (it reads beyond the last element), but I am curious why the variable name makes a difference.

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• WordPress: Using custom field to define posts to display in loop

  - by j-man86

  Hi, I'm trying to use a custom field in which I input the post ID numbers of the posts I want to show, seperated by commas. For some reason though, only the first post of the series of the post IDs are displaying. Can someone help? The value of $nlPostIds is (minus the quotes): "1542,1534,1546". Here's the code... the most important part is the 4th line 'post__in' => array($nlPostIds) <?php $nlPostIds = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'nlPostIds', true); $args=array( 'post__in' => array($nlPostIds) ); query_posts($args); if ( $wp_query->have_posts() ) : while ( $wp_query->have_posts() ) : $wp_query->the_post(); ?> <div class="entry"> <div class="post" id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>"> <h2><a href="<?php the_permalink() ?>" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to <?php the_title_attribute(); ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a></h2> <div class="allinfos"><span class="date"><?php the_time('F jS, Y') ?></span> | <span class="comments"><?php comments_popup_link('No Comments', '1 Comment', '% Comments'); ?> </span> | <span class="category">Posted in <?php the_category(', ') ?></span> <!-- by <?php the_author() ?> --></div> <?php the_content('More &raquo;'); ?> <?php the_tags('Tags: ', ', ', ' '); ?> <?php edit_post_link('Edit', '[ ', ' ]'); ?> <div class="clear"></div> </div></div> <?php endwhile; endif; ?> Thanks!

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• NSLinguisticTagger on the contents of an NSTextStorage- crashing bug

  - by Remy Porter

  I'm trying to use an NSLinguisticTagger to monitor the contents of an NSTextStorage and provide some contextual information based on what the user types. To that end, I have an OverlayManager object, which wires up this relationship: -(void) setView:(NSTextView*) view { _view = view; _layout = view.layoutManager; _storage = view.layoutManager.textStorage; //get the TextStorage from the view [_tagger setString:_storage.string]; //pull the string out, this grabs the mutable version [self registerForNotificationsOn:self->_storage]; //subscribe to the willProcessEditing notification } When an edit occurs, I make sure to trap it and notify the tagger (and yes, I know I'm being annoyingly inconsistent with member access, I'm rusty on Obj-C, I'll fix it later): - (void) textStorageWillProcessEditing:(NSNotification*) notification{ if ([self->_storage editedMask] & NSTextStorageEditedCharacters) { NSRange editedRange = [self->_storage editedRange]; NSUInteger delta = [self->_storage changeInLength]; [_tagger stringEditedInRange:editedRange changeInLength:delta]; //should notify the tagger of the changes [self highlightEdits:self]; } } The highlightEdits message delegates the job out to a pool of "Overlay" objects. Each contains a block of code similar to this: [tagger enumerateTagsInRange:range scheme:NSLinguisticTagSchemeLexicalClass options:0 usingBlock:^(NSString *tag, NSRange tokenRange, NSRange sentenceRange, BOOL *stop) { if (tag == PartOfSpeech) { [self applyHighlightToRange:tokenRange onStorage:storage]; } }]; And that's where the problem is- the enumerateTagsInRange method crashes out with a message: 2014-06-04 10:07:19.692 WritersEditor[40191:303] NSMutableRLEArray replaceObjectsInRange:withObject:length:: Out of bounds This problem doesn't occur if I don't link to the mutable copy of the underlying string and instead do a [[_storage string] copy], but obviously I don't want to copy the entire backing store every time I want to do tagging. This all should be happening in the main run loop, so I don't think this is a threading issue. The NSRange I'm enumerating tags on exists both in the NSTextStorage and in the NSLinguisticTagger's view of the string. It's not even the fact that the applyHighlightToRange call adds attributes to the string, because it crashes before even reaching that line. I attempted to build a test case around the problem, but can't replicate it in those situations: - (void) testEdit { NSAttributedString* str = [[NSMutableAttributedString alloc] initWithString:@"Quickly, this is a test."]; text = [[NSTextStorage alloc] initWithAttributedString:str]; NSArray* schemes = [NSLinguisticTagger availableTagSchemesForLanguage:@"en"]; tagger = [[NSLinguisticTagger alloc] initWithTagSchemes:schemes options:0]; [tagger setString:[text string]]; [text beginEditing]; [[text mutableString] appendString:@"T"]; NSRange edited = [text editedRange]; NSUInteger length = [text changeInLength]; [text endEditing]; [tagger stringEditedInRange:edited changeInLength:length]; [tagger enumerateTagsInRange:edited scheme:NSLinguisticTagSchemeLexicalClass options:0 usingBlock:^(NSString *tag, NSRange tokenRange, NSRange sentenceRange, BOOL *stop) { //doesn't matter, this should crash }]; } That code doesn't crash.

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• Finding N contiguous zero bits in an integer to the left of the MSB position of another integer

  - by James Morris

  The problem is: given an integer val1 find the position of the highest bit set (Most Significant Bit) then, given a second integer val2 find a contiguous region of unset bits, with the minimum number of zero bits given by width to the left of the position (ie, in the higher bits). Here is the C code for my solution: typedef unsigned int t; unsigned const t_bits = sizeof(t) * CHAR_BIT; _Bool test_fit_within_left_of_msb( unsigned width, t val1, t val2, unsigned* offset_result) { unsigned offbit = 0; unsigned msb = 0; t mask; t b; while(val1 >>= 1) ++msb; while(offbit + width < t_bits - msb) { mask = (((t)1 << width) - 1) << (t_bits - width - offbit); b = val2 & mask; if (!b) { *offset_result = offbit; return true; } if (offbit++) /* this conditional bothers me! */ b <<= offbit - 1; while(b <<= 1) offbit++; } return false; } Aside from faster ways of finding the MSB of the first integer, the commented test for a zero offbit seems a bit extraneous, but necessary to skip the highest bit of type t if it is set. I have also implemented similar algorithms but working to the right of the MSB of the first number, so they don't require this seemingly extra condition. How can I get rid of this extra condition, or even, are there far more optimal solutions? Edit: Some background not strictly required. The offset result is a count of bits from the high bit, not from the low bit as maybe expected. This will be part of a wider algorithm which scans a 2D array for a 2D area of zero bits. Here, for testing, the algorithm has been simplified. val1 represents the first integer which does not have all bits set found in a row of the 2D array. From this the 2D version would scan down which is what val2 represents. Here's some output showing success and failure: t_bits:32 t_high: 10000000000000000000000000000000 ( 2147483648 ) --------- ----------------------------------- *** fit within left of msb test *** ----------------------------------- val1: 00000000000000000000000010000000 ( 128 ) val2: 01000001000100000000100100001001 ( 1091569929 ) msb: 7 offbit:0 + width: 8 = 8 mask: 11111111000000000000000000000000 ( 4278190080 ) b: 01000001000000000000000000000000 ( 1090519040 ) offbit:8 + width: 8 = 16 mask: 00000000111111110000000000000000 ( 16711680 ) b: 00000000000100000000000000000000 ( 1048576 ) offbit:12 + width: 8 = 20 mask: 00000000000011111111000000000000 ( 1044480 ) b: 00000000000000000000000000000000 ( 0 ) offbit:12 iters:10 ***** found room for width:8 at offset: 12 ***** ----------------------------------- *** fit within left of msb test *** ----------------------------------- val1: 00000000000000000000000001000000 ( 64 ) val2: 00010000000000001000010001000001 ( 268469313 ) msb: 6 offbit:0 + width: 13 = 13 mask: 11111111111110000000000000000000 ( 4294443008 ) b: 00010000000000000000000000000000 ( 268435456 ) offbit:4 + width: 13 = 17 mask: 00001111111111111000000000000000 ( 268402688 ) b: 00000000000000001000000000000000 ( 32768 ) ***** mask: 00001111111111111000000000000000 ( 268402688 ) offbit:17 iters:15 ***** no room found for width:13 ***** (iters is the count of iterations of the inner while loop)

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• How to copy DispatcherObject (BitmapSource) into different thread?

  - by Tomáš Kafka

  Hi, I am trying to figure out how can I copy DispatcherObject (in my case BitmapSource) into another thread. Use case: I have a WPF app that needs to show window in a new thread (the app is actually Outlook addin and we need to do this because Outlook has some hooks in the main UI thread and is stealing certain hotkeys that we need to use - 'lost in translation' in interop of Outlook, WPF (which we use for UI), and Winforms (we need to use certain microsoft-provided winforms controls)). With that, I have my implementation of WPFMessageBox, that is configured by setting some static properties - and and one of them is BitmapSource for icon. This is used so that in startup I can set WPFMessageBox.Icon once, and since then, every WPFMessageBox will have the same icon. The problem is that BitmapSource, which is assigned into icon, is a DispatcherObject, and when read, it will throw InvalidOperationException: "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it.". How can I clone that BitmapSource into the actual thread? It has Clone() and CloneCurrentValue() methods, which don't work (they throw the same exception as well). It also occured to me to use originalIcon.Dispatcher.Invoke( do the cloning here ) - but the BitmapSource's Dispatcher is null, and still - I'd create a copy on a wrong thread and still couldnt use it on mine. BitmapSource.IsFrozen == true. Any idea on how to copy the BitmapSource into different thread (without completely reconstructing it from an image file in a new thread)? EDIT: So, freezing does not help: In the end I have a BitmapFrame (Window.Icon doesn't take any other kind of ImageSource anyway), and when I assign it as a Window.Icon on a different thread, even if frozen, I get InvalidOperationException: "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." with a following stack trace: WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher.VerifyAccess() + 0x4a bytes WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherObject.VerifyAccess() + 0xc bytes PresentationCore.dll!System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapDecoder.Frames.get() + 0xe bytes PresentationFramework.dll!MS.Internal.AppModel.IconHelper.GetIconHandlesFromBitmapFrame(object callingObj = {WPFControls.WPFMBox.WpfMessageBoxWindow: header}, System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapFrame bf = {System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapFrameDecode}, ref MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle largeIconHandle = {MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle}, ref MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle smallIconHandle = {MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle}) + 0x3b bytes > PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.UpdateIcon() + 0x118 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.SetupInitialState(double requestedTop = NaN, double requestedLeft = NaN, double requestedWidth = 560.0, double requestedHeight = NaN) + 0x8a bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.CreateSourceWindowImpl() + 0x19b bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.SafeCreateWindow() + 0x29 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.ShowHelper(object booleanBox) + 0x81 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.Show() + 0x48 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.ShowDialog() + 0x29f bytes WPFControls.dll!WPFControls.WPFMBox.WpfMessageBox.ShowDialog(System.Windows.Window owner = {WPFControlsTest.MainWindow}) Line 185 + 0x10 bytes C#

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• Rails & Twilio: Receiving nil when storing texts received from Twilio

  - by Jon Smooth

  I have set up the request URL in my Twilio account to have it POST to: myurl.com/receivetext. It appears to be successfully posting because when I check the database using the Heroku console I see the following: Post id: 5, body: nil, from: nil, created_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01", updated_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01" Why is it receiving nil for the body and from attributes? I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong! The created and updated at are storing successfully but the two attributes that I care about continue to be stored as nil. Here's the Receive Text controller which is receiving the Post request from Twilio: class ReceiveTextController < ApplicationController def index @post=Post.create!(body: params[:Body], from: params[:From]) end end EDIT: When I dump the params I receive the following: "{\"controller\"=\"receive_text\", \"action\"=\"index\"}" I attained this by inserting the following into my ReceiveText controller. @params = Post.create!(body: params.inspect, from: "Dumping Params") and then opening up the Heroku console to find the database entry with from = "Dumping Params". I simulated a Twilio request with a curl with the following command curl -X POST myurl.com/receivetext route -d 'AccountSid=AC123&From=%2B19252411234' I checked the production database again and noticed that the curl request did work when obtaining the FROM atribute. It stored the following: params.inspect returned "{\"AccountSid\"=\"AC123\", \"From\"=\"+19252411234\", \"co..." I received a comment stating: "As long as twilio is hitting the same URL with the same method (GET/POST) it should be filling the params array as well" I have no idea how to make this comment actionable. Any help would be greatly appreciated! I'm very new to rails. Here's my database migration (I have both attributes set to string. I have tried setting it to text and that didn't work either) : class CreatePosts < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :posts do |t| t.string :body t.string :from t.timestamps end end end Here is my Post model: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :body, :from end Routes (everything appears to be routing just fine) : MovieApp::Application.routes.draw do get "receive_text/index" get "pages/home" get "send_text/send_text_message" root to: 'pages#home' match '/receivetext', to: 'receive_text#index' match '/pages/home', to: 'pages#home' match '/sendtext', to: 'send_text#send_text_message' end Here's my gemfile (incase it helps) source 'https://rubygems.org' gem 'rails', '3.2.3' gem 'badfruit' gem 'twilio-ruby' gem 'logger' gem 'jquery-rails' group :production do gem 'pg' end group :development, :test do gem 'sqlite3' end group :assets do gem 'sass-rails', '~> 3.2.3' gem 'coffee-rails', '~> 3.2.1' gem 'uglifier', '>= 1.0.3' end

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• Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Hibernate Based Java Servlet application powered by MySQL

  - by Vatsala

  Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?) edit - Here are the c3p0 parameters I tried out - select 1; 2

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• How do we, as a community, help encourage programming in public schools? (Or state Schools for the U

  - by NoMoreZealots

  PRIMARY MOTIVATION My office gets involved with the "First Robotics" competitions and one thing that lingers year to year is the students typically have no preparation for doing even simple programming as part of the public schools system. While the science classes provide some basic grasp of mechanical and electrical concepts, by in large computer programming gets no coverage from the curriculum. (This my be different in other areas of the country/world.) What makes it worse is there is only a short period of time you have to prepare the student's and help them design the robot. Talking to some professors from local colleges, it's a problem because you can't assume even the most basic understanding for freshman CS majors. Languages like Python, Lua and BASIC are simple enough for at least high school level students, if not younger. SCOPE So how do you get public schools to support a programming, at least to the level of "Try it in BASIC" examples that used to be at the end of a chapter in my Algebra book? At least enough to prepare them for event's such as the FIRST Robotic competitions. Which the primary objectives are to teach problem solving and team work, and to possible foster an interest in Math, Science and Engineering in general. (Not force feed to them, as some people her seem to be implying.) Edit: Why teach kids: (Since 2000 CS enrollment in US colleges has decreased by 70% while college enrollment has increased, this is a PROBLEM.) Saying there is no value in teaching someone programming in Jr./High school because they might think "they know programming." Is like saying there's no value in teaching High school science and physics, because they might decide they "know physics." Leading to abuse like: "I passed a high school physics class, I'm going to develop a Unified Quantum Gravitational Theory." Better Prepared students are better students. Instead it would allows college programs to raise the bar on the entry level courses, allowing students to be weeded out based on their understanding of more advanced material. Plus people who did poorly in that in topic in High school aren't as likely to say "I think there's money in computer's so I'll computer science." Plus if people take it in high school and decide THEN that it's not for them, it's better than them wasting their money to PAY a college to figure that out. The result is that people who take the degree are more likely to succeed and be there for the RIGHT reasons. (i.e. It's what they REALLY want to do. And that's REALLY the key to being good at anything.) Programming is like anything else, the more practice and genuine interest you have the better you get. If you start them later, they get less practice. The earlier give them the opportunity to start, the more practice they will get. All other things equal, the more practice the better the programmer.

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• Unset/Change Binding in WPF

  - by captcalamares

  How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

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• Good object/DB set-up for CMS-esque app for managing content and user permissions?

  - by sah302

  Hi all, so I am writing a big CMS-esque app to allow users to manage web content through web applications, I've got a pretty good db-driven user permission system going, but am having trouble coming up with a good way to handle content groups and pages, I've got a couple options and not sure which one to take. Furthermore, I am not sure how to handle static page updates that have no 'widgets' in them. My current set-up for permissions is this: Objects: User, UserGroup, UserUserGroup, UserGroupType Standard many to many relationship User -> UserUserGroup <- UserGroup each Usergroup has a UserGroupType, which could be anything from Title, Department, to PermissionGroup. PermissionGroup manages the permissions. Right now on a per page basis I check permissions based on their PermissionsGroups. So for a page which has CMS features for a news widget, I check for permission groups of "Site Admin" and "News Admin". Now the issue I am coming to is, the site has many different departments involved. No problem I think, I can just have a EntityContentGroup so any widget app can be used for any departments. So my HR department, each of their news items would be in the EntityContentGroup with the news item ID, and content group of "HR" or "HR News". But maybe this isn't the most efficient way to go about it? I don't want to put the content group simply as a NewsItemType because some news items could apply to multiple areas, so I want to be able to assign them to as many areas as I want. Likewise, all of my widget apps have this, so that's why I decided to choose EntityContentGroup and not just NewsItemContentGroup. I was also thinking well instead of doing a contentGroup do a Page object that says which page some entity should be on. It seems almost like the same thing, but would I want to use Page for something else? I was thinking Page would be used for static pages with no widgets, a simple Rich Text Editor can edit the content of that page and I save that item to a page?? And then instead of doing a page level check for UserGroup permissions, would it be better to associate a usergroup to a contentgroup, and then just depending on what contentGroup content on the page is displayed, determine the permissions through that relationship? Is that better? I am not sure at this point. I guess I am just getting a tad overwhelmed at this is the largest app in scope and size that I have ever written. What is the best approach for this based on my current user permission set-up?

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• Web development - relative URLs without duplicating files

  - by eshriek

  I have a site with index.php in the root folder, images in /img , and overview.php in /content . I have a sidebar.php file that is included in both index.php and overview.php . How should I refer to /img/image.gif if I include a link in each file? The location of image.gif changes relative to the location of the file that references it. Using /img/image.gif in sidebar.php will work in index.php, but it fails for the file located at /content/overview.php. The only solution that I can see is to either include a seperate sidebar.php in each subdirectory, or include an /img directory in every sub-directory. The best suggestion that I can find is to use the <base html tag as suggested here: Change relative link paths for included content in PHP However, in the same link, SamGoody suggests that the <base tag "is no longer properly supported in Internet Explorer, since version 7." I'd like some insight on the matter before committing to a course of action. Thanks. EDIT: I am using the wrong approach below with "../" Example- root/index.php: ... <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="style.css" /> <title>title</title> </head> <body> <?php include('include/header.php'); ?> <?php include('include/menu.php'); ?> ... root/include/header.php: ... <div id="header"> <span class="fl"><img src="img/dun1.png"/></span><span class="fr"><img src="img/dun2.png"/></span> ... root/content/overview.php: ... <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="../style.css" media="screen" /> <title>Overview</title> </head> <body> <?php include('../include/header.php'); ?> <?php include('../include/menu.php'); ?> ...

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• asp.net Multiple Page_Load events for a user control when using URL Routing

  - by Paul Hutson

  Hello, I've recently set up an ASP.net site (not using MVC.net) to use URL Routing (more on the code below) - when using user controls on the site (i.e I've created a "menu" user control to hold menu information) the page_load event for that control will fire twice when URLs have more than one variable passed over. i.e. pageName/VAR1 : will only fire the page_load event once. while pageName/VAR1/VAR2 : will fire the page_load event twice. *Multiple extra VARs added on the end will still only fire the page_load event twice*. Below are the code snippits from the files, the first is the MapPageRoute, located in the Global.asax : // Register a route for the Example page, with the NodeID and also the Test123 variables allowed. // This demonstrates how to have several items linked with the page routes. routes.MapPageRoute( "Multiple Data Example", // Route name "Example/{NodeID}/{test123}/{variable}", // Route URL - note the NodeID bit "~/Example.aspx", // Web page to handle route true, // Check for physical access new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "1" }, // Default Node ID { "test123", "1" }, // Default addtional variable value { "variable", "hello"} // Default test variable value } ); Next is the way I've directed to the page in the menu item, this is a list item within a UL tag : <li class="TopMenu_ListItem"><a href="<%= Page.GetRouteUrl("Multiple Data Example", new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "4855" }, { "test123", "2" } }) %>">Example 2</a></li> And finally the control that gets hit multiple times on a page load : // For use when the page loads. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Handle the routing variables. // this handles the route data value for NodeID - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] != null) { nodeID = Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for Test123 - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] != null) { ExampleOutput2.Text = "I am the output of the third variable : " + Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for variable - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] != null) { ExampleOutput3.Text = "I say " + Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] as string; }; } Note, that when I'm just hitting the page and it uses the default values for items, the reloads do not happen. Any help or guidance that anyone can offer would be very much appreciated! EDIT : The User Control is only added to the page once. I've tested the load sequence by putting a breakpoint in the page_load event - it only hits twice when the extra routes are added. Thanks in Advance, Paul Hutson

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• D3 fisheye on width on bar chart

  - by Dexter Tan

  i have been trying to create a vertical bar chart with a d3 fisheye cartesian distortion with only the x-axis being distorted. I have succeeded in distorting the x position of the vertical bars on mouseover with the following code: var maxMag = d3.max(dataset, function(d) { return d.value[10]; }); var minDate = d3.min(dataset, function(d) { return new Date(d.value[1], d.value[2]-1, d.value[3]).getTime(); }); var maxDate = d3.max(dataset, function(d) { return new Date(d.value[1], d.value[2]-1, d.value[3]).getTime(); }); var yScale = d3.scale.linear().domain([0, maxMag]).range([0, h]); var xScale = d3.fisheye.scale(d3.scale.linear).domain([minDate, maxDate]).range([0, w]).focus(w/2); var bar = svg.append("g") .attr("class", "bars") .selectAll(".bar") .data(dataset) .enter().append("rect") .attr("class", "bar") .attr("y", function(d) { return h - yScale(d.value[10]); }) .attr("width", w/dataset.length) .attr("height", function(d) { return yScale(d.value[10]); }) .attr("fill", function(d) { return (d.value[10] <= 6? "yellow" : "orange" ); }) .call(position); // Positions the bars based on data. function position(bar) { bar.attr("x", function(d) { var date = null; if (d.date != null) { date = d.date; } else { date = new Date(d.value[1],0,1); if (d.value[2] != null) date.setMonth(d.value[2]-1); if (d.value[3] != null) date.setMonth(d.value[3]); d.date = date; } return xScale(date.getTime()); }); } svg.on("mousemove", function() { var mouse = d3.mouse(this); xScale.distortion(2.5).focus(mouse[0]); bar.call(position); }); However at this point, applying fisheye on the width remains a mystery to me. I have tried several methods like using a fisheye scale for width however it does not work as expected. What i wish to do is to have the width of a bar expand on mouseover, the same way a single vertical bar is singled out on mouseover with the cartesian distortion. Any clues or help will be much appreciated! edit: http://dexter.xumx.me to view the visualisation i am talking about for easier understanding!

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• How to get compatibility between C# and SQL2k8 AES Encryption?

  - by Victor Rodrigues

  I have an AES encryption being made on two columns: one of these columns is stored at a SQL Server 2000 database; the other is stored at a SQL Server 2008 database. As the first column's database (2000) doesn't have native functionality for encryption / decryption, we've decided to do the cryptography logic at application level, with .NET classes, for both. But as the second column's database (2008) allow this kind of functionality, we'd like to make the data migration using the database functions to be faster, since the data migration in SQL 2k is much smaller than this second and it will last more than 50 hours because of being made at application level. My problem started at this point: using the same key, I didn't achieve the same result when encrypting a value, neither the same result size. Below we have the full logic in both sides.. Of course I'm not showing the key, but everything else is the same: private byte[] RijndaelEncrypt(byte[] clearData, byte[] Key) { var memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); Rijndael algorithm = Rijndael.Create(); algorithm.Key = Key; algorithm.IV = InitializationVector; var criptoStream = new CryptoStream(memoryStream, algorithm.CreateEncryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write); criptoStream.Write(clearData, 0, clearData.Length); criptoStream.Close(); byte[] encryptedData = memoryStream.ToArray(); return encryptedData; } private byte[] RijndaelDecrypt(byte[] cipherData, byte[] Key) { var memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); Rijndael algorithm = Rijndael.Create(); algorithm.Key = Key; algorithm.IV = InitializationVector; var criptoStream = new CryptoStream(memoryStream, algorithm.CreateDecryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write); criptoStream.Write(cipherData, 0, cipherData.Length); criptoStream.Close(); byte[] decryptedData = memoryStream.ToArray(); return decryptedData; } This is the SQL Code sample: open symmetric key columnKey decryption by password = N'{pwd!!i_ll_not_show_it_here}' declare @enc varchar(max) set @enc = dbo.VarBinarytoBase64(EncryptByKey(Key_GUID('columnKey'), 'blablabla')) select LEN(@enc), @enc This varbinaryToBase64 is a tested sql function we use to convert varbinary to the same format we use to store strings in the .net application. The result in C# is: eg0wgTeR3noWYgvdmpzTKijkdtTsdvnvKzh+uhyN3Lo= The same result in SQL2k8 is: AI0zI7D77EmqgTQrdgMBHAEAAACyACXb+P3HvctA0yBduAuwPS4Ah3AB4Dbdj2KBGC1Dk4b8GEbtXs5fINzvusp8FRBknF15Br2xI1CqP0Qb/M4w I just didn't get yet what I'm doing wrong. Do you have any ideas? EDIT: One point I think is crucial: I have one Initialization Vector at my C# code, 16 bytes. This IV is not set at SQL symmetric key, could I do this? But even not filling the IV in C#, I get very different results, both in content and length.

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• Testing for existence using SELECT WHERE HAVING and NOT HAVING in a grouped subset

  - by IanC

  I have data on which I need to count +1 if a particular condition exists or another condition doesn't exist. I'm using SQL Server 2008. I shred the following simplified sample XML into a temp table and validate it: <product type="1"> <param type="1"> <item mode="0" weight="1" /> </param> <param type="2"> <item mode="1" weight="1" /> <item mode="0" weight="0.1" /> </param> <param type="3"> <item mode="1" weight="0.75" /> <item mode="1" weight="0.25" /> </param> </product> The validation in concern is the following rule: For each product type, for each param type, mode may be 0 & (1 || 2). In other words, there may be a 0(s), but then 1s or 2s are required, or there may be only 1(s) or 2(s). There cannot be only 0s, and there cannot be 1s and 2s. The only part I haven't figured out is how to detect if there are only 0s. This seems like a "not having" problem. The validation code (for this part): WITH t1 AS ( SELECT SUM(t.ParamWeight) AS S, COUNT(1) AS C, t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode FROM @t AS t GROUP BY t.ProductTypeID, t.ParamTypeID, t.Mode ), ... UNION ALL SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 WHERE t1.Mode IN (1, 2) GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING COUNT(1) > 1 UNION ALL ... ) SELECT @C = COUNT(1) FROM t2 This will show if any mode 1s & 2s are mixed, but not if the group contains only a 0. I'm sure there is a simple solution, but it's evading me right now. EDIT: I thought of a "cheat" that works perfectly. I added the following to the above: SELECT TOP (1) 1 -- only mode 0 & (null || 1 || 2) is allowed FROM t1 GROUP BY t1.ProductTypeID, t1.ParamTypeID HAVING SUM(t1.Mode) = 0 However, I'd still like to know how to do this without cheating.

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• Included php file calling Javascript function

  - by Illes Peter

  Hi there! Here's the deal. I've got index.php which links to an internal JS file in it's header. index.php then includes another .php file, which outputs this: + add file. addFile() is a Javascript function defined in the external JS file. By doing this nothing happens, the included php does not "see" the JS function. Encapsulating the JS in the included PHP makes it all work. But I don't want to do it that way. Any ideas? EDIT: here's the source <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Archie</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <link rel="stylesheet" href="/screen.css" type="text/css" media="screen"/> <script src="/lib/js/archie.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> ... ... //included php starts here <form action="/lib/course.php" method="post"> <fieldset> <div id="addFileLocation"></div> <a href="#" onClick="addFile()">+ add file</a> <input type="hidden" id="addFileCount" value="0"/> </fieldset> </form> //ends here ... ... </body> </html> and the js: <script type="text/javascript"> //Dynamically add form fields //add file browser function addFile() { var location = document.getElementById('addFileLocation'); var num = document.getElementById('addFileCount'); var newnum = (document.getElementById('addFileCount').value -1)+ 2; num.value = newnum; var newname = 'addFile_'+newnum; var newelement = document.createElement('input'); newelement.setAttribute('name',newname); newelement.setAttribute('type','file'); location.appendChild(newelement); } </script>

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• segfault on vector<struct>

  - by Andre

  Hello, I created a struct to hold some data and then declared a vector to hold that struct. But when I do a push_back I get damn segfault and I have no idea why! My struct is defines as: typedef struct Group { int codigo; string name; int deleted; int printers; int subpage; /*included this when it started segfaulting*/ Group(){ name.reserve(MAX_PRODUCT_LONG_NAME); } ~Group(){ name.clear(); } Group(const Group &b) { codigo = b.codigo; name = b.name; deleted = b.deleted; printers = b.printers; subpage = b.subpage; } /*end of new stuff*/ }; Originally, the struct didn't have the copy, constructor or destructor. I added them latter when I read this post below. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/676575/seg-fault-after-is-item-pushed-onto-stl-container but the end result is the same. There is one this that is bothering me as hell! When I first push some data into the vector, everything goes fine. Later on in the code when I try to push some more data into the vector, my app just segfaults! The vector is declared vector<Group> Groups and is a global variable to the file where I am using it. No externs anywhere else, etc... I can trace the error to: _M_deallocate(this->_M_impl._M_start, this->_M_impl._M_end_of_storage- this->_M_impl._M_start); in vector.tcc when I finish adding/copying the last element to the vector.... As far as I can tell. I shouldn't be needing anything to do with a copy constructor as a shallow copy should be enough for this. I'm not even allocating any space (but I did a reserve for the string to try out). I have no idea what the problem is! I'm running this code on OpenSuse 10.2 with gcc 4.1.2 I'm not really to eager to upgrade gcc because of backward compatibility issues... This code worked "perfectly" on my windows machine. I compiled it with gcc 3.4.5 mingw without any problems... help! --- ... --- :::EDIT::: I push data Group tmp_grp; (...) tmp_grp.name = "Nova "; tmp_grp.codigo=GetGroupnextcode(); tmp_grp.deleted=0; tmp_grp.printers=0; tmp_grp.subpage=0; Groups.push_back(tmp_grp);

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• Want to set 'src' of script to my IP-Won't load in Safari or Chrome. Relative link asp.netmvc

  - by Ozaki

  I have a script that links to the server I am hosting (IP can change) usually I would just use for links: var url ='http://' + window.location.hostname + 'end of url'; But in this case it isnt appearing to be so easy. I have tried: (1) $('#scriptid').attr('src', url); as well as: (2) var script = document.createElement( 'script' ); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = url; $("#insert").append( script ); Now case (2) works loads the script runs the script. But when at the end of my script it hits the 'write data' it decides to replace the entire page with just the data. Any idea on how I can do this? Note: I am using plain html not ASP. With ASP backend that is just the way it has to be. Ok it now is <script src="myscript.js"></script> C# router.AddAsyncRoute("myscript.js"...... It workes in IE & FF. But I get blank pages in Chrome & Safari. I am using document.write to write a script onto my page. Any ideas why Chrome & Safari don't like this? I am so far assuming that in Crhome & Safari it takes longer to run the script therefore launching the document.write after the DOM has loaded therefore replacing the page with a blank one. edit the script im trying to run is a modification of: d = new dTree('d'); d.add(0,-1,'My example tree'); d.add(1,0,'Node 1','default.html'); d.add(2,0,'Node 2','default.html'); d.add(3,1,'Node 1.1','default.html'); d.add(4,0,'Node 3','default.html'); d.add(5,3,'Node 1.1.1','default.html') document.write(d); Any ideas how I can get around this? I am not to sure how to implement an appenChild in this case as the script is changing constantly with live data. So every refresh it will generally have changed some...

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• How to use Crtl in a Delphi unit in a C++Builder project? (or link to C++Builder C runtime library)

  - by Craig Peterson

  I have a Delphi unit that is statically linking a C .obj file using the {$L xxx} directive. The C file is compiled with C++Builder's command line compiler. To satisfy the C file's runtime library dependencies (_assert, memmove, etc), I'm including the crtl unit Allen Bauer mentioned here. unit FooWrapper; interface implementation uses Crtl; // Part of the Delphi RTL {$L FooLib.obj} // Compiled with "bcc32 -q -c foolib.c" procedure Foo; cdecl; external; end. If I compile that unit in a Delphi project (.dproj) everthing works correctly. If I compile that unit in a C++Builder project (.cbproj) it fails with the error: [ILINK32 Error] Fatal: Unable to open file 'CRTL.OBJ' And indeed, there isn't a crtl.obj file in the RAD Studio install folder. There is a .dcu, but no .pas. Trying to add crtdbg to the uses clause (the C header where _assert is defined) gives an error that it can't find crtdbg.dcu. If I remove the uses clause, it instead fails with errors that __assert and _memmove aren't found. So, in a Delphi unit in a C++Builder project, how can I export functions from the C runtime library so they're available for linking? I'm already aware of Rudy Velthuis's article. I'd like to avoid manually writing Delphi wrappers if possible, since I don't need them in Delphi, and C++Builder must already include the necessary functions. Edit For anyone who wants to play along at home, the code is available in Abbrevia's Subversion repository at https://tpabbrevia.svn.sourceforge.net/svnroot/tpabbrevia/trunk. I've taken David Heffernan's advice and added a "AbCrtl.pas" unit that mimics crtl.dcu when compiled in C++Builder. That got the PPMd support working, but the Lzma and WavPack libraries both fail with link errors: [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external '_beginthreadex' referenced from ABLZMA.OBJ [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external 'sprintf' referenced from ABWAVPACK.OBJ [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external 'strncmp' referenced from ABWAVPACK.OBJ [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external '_ftol' referenced from ABWAVPACK.OBJ AFAICT, all of them are declared correctly, and the _beginthreadex one is actually declared in AbLzma.pas, so it's used by the pure Delphi compile as well. To see it yourself, just download the trunk (or just the "source" and "packages" directories), disable the {$IFDEF BCB} block at the bottom of AbDefine.inc, and try to compile the C++Builder "Abbrevia.cbproj" project.

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• Ninject with Object Initializers and LINQ

  - by Alexander Kahoun

  I'm new to Ninject so what I'm trying may not even be possible but I wanted to ask. I free-handed the below so there may be typos. Let's say I have an interface: public interface IPerson { string FirstName { get; set; } string LastName { get; set;} string GetFullName(); } And a concrete: public class Person : IPerson { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public string GetFullName() { return String.Concat(FirstName, " ", LastName); } } What I'm used to doing is something like this when I'm retrieving data from arrays or xml: public IEnumerable<IPerson> GetPeople(string xml) { XElement persons = XElement.Parse(xml); IEnumerable<IPerson> people = ( from person in persons.Descendants("person") select new Person { FirstName = person.Attribute("FName").Value, LastName = person.Attribute("LName").Value }).ToList(); return people; } I don't want to tightly couple the concrete to the interface in this manner. I haven't been able to find any information in regards to using Ninject with LINQ to Objects or with object initializers. I may be looking in the wrong places, but I've been searching for a day now with no luck at all. I was contemplating putting the kernel into an singleton instance and seeing if that would work, but I'm not sure that it will plus I've heard that passing your kernel around is a bad thing. I'm trying to implement this in a class library currently. If this is not possible, does anyone have any examples or suggestions as to what the best practice is in this case? Thanks in advance for the help. EDIT: Based on some of the answers I feel I should clarify. Yes, the example above appears short lived but it was simply an example of one piece that I was trying to do. Let's give a bigger picture. Say instead of XML I am gathering all my data through a 3rd party web service and I'm creating an interface for it, the data could be a defined object in the wsdl or it could sometimes be an xml string. IPerson could be used for both the Person object and a User object. I will be doing this inside of a separate class library, because it needs to be portable and will be used in other projects, and handing it to an MVC3 Web Application and the objects will be used in javascript as well. I appreciate all the input so far.

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• How can I prevent external MSBuild files from being cached (by Visual Studio) during a project build

  - by Damian Powell

  I have a project in my solution which started life as a C# library project. It's got nothing of any interest in it in terms of code, it is merely used as a dependency in the other projects in my solution in order to ensure that it is built first. One of the side-effects of building this project is that a shared AssemblyInfo.cs is created which contains the version number in use by the other projects. I have done this by adding the following to the .csproj file: <ItemGroup> <None Include="Properties\AssemblyInfo.Shared.cs.in" /> <Compile Include="Properties\AssemblyInfo.Shared.cs" /> <None Include="VersionInfo.targets" /> </ItemGroup> <Import Project="$(ProjectDir)VersionInfo.targets" /> <Target Name="BeforeBuild" DependsOnTargets="UpdateSharedAssemblyInfo" /> The referenced file, VersionInfo.targets, contains the following: <Project ToolsVersion="4.0" DefaultTargets="Build" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <!-- Some properties defining tool locations and the name of the AssemblyInfo.Shared.cs.in file etc. --> </PropertyGroup> <Target Name="UpdateSharedAssemblyInfo"> <!-- Uses the Exec task to run one of the tools to generate AssemblyInfo.Shared.cs based on the location of AssemblyInfo.Shared.cs.in and some of the other properties. --> </Target> </Project> The contents of the VersionInfo.targets file could simply be embedded within the .csproj file but it is external because I am trying to turn all of this into a project template. I want the users of the template to be able to add the new project to the solution, edit the VersionInfo.targets file, and run the build. The problem is that modifying and saving the VersionInfo.targets file and rebuilding the solution has no effect - the project file uses the values from the .targets file as they were when the project was opened. Even unloading and reloading the project has no effect. In order to get the new values, I need to close Visual Studio and reopen it (or reload the solution). How can I set this up so that the configuration is external to the .csproj file and not cached between builds?

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