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  • TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

    - by Wind Chimez
    I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I setup the stuff online, for reference if anybody want to take a look at it, and here is the link.You need to have flash debugger turned ON in your browser, if need to see the exception getting triggered. http://tinyurl.com/2alvlfx I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common.

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  • Using JavaCC to infer semantics from a Composite tree

    - by Skice
    Hi all, I am programming (in Java) a very limited symbolic calculus library that manages polynomials, exponentials and expolinomials (sums of elements like "x^n * e^(c x)"). I want the library to be extensible in the sense of new analytic forms (trigonometric, etc.) or new kinds of operations (logarithm, domain transformations, etc.), so a Composite pattern that represent the syntactic structure of an expression, together with a bunch of Visitors for the operations, does the job quite well. My problem arise when I try to implement operations that depends on the semantics more than on the syntax of the Expression (like integrals, for instance: there are a lot of resolution methods for specific classes of functions, but these same classes can be represented with more than a single syntax). So I thought I need something to "parse" the Composite tree to infer its semantics in order to invoke the right integration method (if any). Someone pointed me to JavaCC, but all the examples I've seen deal only with string parsing; so, I don't know if I'm digging in the right direction. Some suggestions? (I hope to have been clear enough!)

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  • How to write to a varchar(max) column using ODBC

    - by andyjohnson
    Summary: I'm trying to write a text string to a column of type varchar(max) using ODBC and SQL Server 2005. It fails if the length of the string is greater than 8000. Help! I have some C++ code that uses ODBC (SQL Native Client) to write a text string to a table. If I change the column from, say, varchar(100) to varchar(max) and try to write a string with length greater than 8000, the write fails with the following error [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver]String data, right truncation So, can anyone advise me on if this can be done, and how? Some example (not production) code that shows what I'm trying to do: SQLHENV hEnv = NULL; SQLRETURN iError = SQLAllocEnv(&hEnv); HDBC hDbc = NULL; SQLAllocConnect(hEnv, &hDbc); const char* pszConnStr = "Driver={SQL Server};Server=127.0.0.1;Database=MyTestDB"; UCHAR szConnectOut[SQL_MAX_MESSAGE_LENGTH]; SWORD iConnectOutLen = 0; iError = SQLDriverConnect(hDbc, NULL, (unsigned char*)pszConnStr, SQL_NTS, szConnectOut, (SQL_MAX_MESSAGE_LENGTH-1), &iConnectOutLen, SQL_DRIVER_COMPLETE); HSTMT hStmt = NULL; iError = SQLAllocStmt(hDbc, &hStmt); const char* pszSQL = "INSERT INTO MyTestTable (LongStr) VALUES (?)"; iError = SQLPrepare(hStmt, (SQLCHAR*)pszSQL, SQL_NTS); char* pszBigString = AllocBigString(8001); iError = SQLSetParam(hStmt, 1, SQL_C_CHAR, SQL_VARCHAR, 0, 0, (SQLPOINTER)pszBigString, NULL); iError = SQLExecute(hStmt); // Returns SQL_ERROR if pszBigString len > 8000 The table MyTestTable contains a single colum defined as varchar(max). The function AllocBigString (not shown) creates a string of arbitrary length. I understand that previous versions of SQL Server had an 8000 character limit to varchars, but not why is this happening in SQL 2005? Thanks, Andy

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  • How to insert an Array/Objet into SQL (bestpractice)

    - by Jason
    I need to store three items as an array in a single column and be able to quickly/easily modify that data in later functions. [---YOU CAN SKIP THIS PART IF YOU TRUST ME--] To be clear, I love and use x_ref tables all the time but an x_ref doesn't work here because this is not a one-to-many relationship. I am making a project management tool that among other things, assigns a user to a project and assigns hours to that project on a weekly basis, per user, sometimes for weeks many weeks into the future. Of course there are many projects, a project can have many team members, a team member can be involved with many projects at one time BUT its not one-to-many because a team member can be working many weeks on the same project but have different hours for different weeks. In other words, each object really is unique. Also/finally, this data can be changed at any time by any team-member - hence it needs to be easily to manipulate. Basically, I need to handle three values (the team member, the week we're talking about, and how many hours) dropped into a project row in the projects table (under the column for project team members) and treated as one item - a team member - that will actually be part of a larger array of all the team members involved on the project. [--END SKIP, START READING HERE :) --] So assuming that the application's general schema and relation tables aren't total crap and that we are in fact up against a wall in this one case to use an array/object as a value for this column, is there a best practice for that? Like a particular SQL data-type? A particular object/array format? CSV? JSON? XML? Most of the app is in C# but (for very odd reasons that I won't explain) we could really use any environment if there is a particular one that handles this well. For the moment, I am thinking either (webservice + JS/JSON) or PHP unserialize/serialize (but I am bit sketched out by the PHP solution because it seems a bit cumbersome when using ajax?) Thoughts anyone?

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  • Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • What's the purpose of "import package"?

    - by codethief
    As I just found out import package does not make the package's modules available through package.module. The same obviously holds true for from package import subpackage as well as from package import * What's the purpose of importing a package at all then if I can't access its submodules but only the objects defined in __init__.py? It makes sense to me that from package import * would bloat the namespace, which, however, doesn't apply in case of the other two ways! I also understand that loading all submodules might take a long time. But I don't know what these unwanted side-effects, "that should only happen when the sub-module is explicitly imported", are which the author of the previous link mentions. To me it looks like doing an import package[.subpackage] (or from package import subpackage) makes absolutely no sense if I don't exactly want to access objects provided in __init__.py. Are those unwanted side effects really that serious that the language actually has to protect the programmer from causing them? Actually, I thought that Python was a little bit more about "If the programmer wants to do it, let him do it." In my case, I really do want to import all submodules with the single statement from package import subpackage, because I need all of them! Telling Python in the init.py file which submodules I'm exactly talking about (all of them!) is quite cumbersome from my point of view. Please enlighten me. :)

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  • PHP site keeps opening to blank page, no errors.

    - by gene
    First, the premises: PHP loaded on IIS6 on Win2003 STD R2 SP2, PHP_5213 using FastCGI, MySQL_5145. Customer sent me the site files, which I unzipped to C:\InetPub\wwwroot\<site root>, then I created a new site in IIS, pointed to <site root>, added test.php to the site files for testing and it works, but visiting index.php produces a blank page with no errors. The readme.txt file present makes reference to application.php and explains root folder var and sets it to a non-existent file. I don't know PHP syntax, but I tried several logical changes with zero results. At this point I'm not even sure if that is the problem anymore. With PHP, MySQL & site debugging have put in over 20 hours. Still confused, I have resorted to heavy drug use and purchased a small firearm, loaded with a single round (even this seemed to take an inordinate amount of time). I've given up all hope. Someone please help save a new server and/or old administrator.

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  • Django: how to cleanup form fields and avoid code duplication

    - by Alexander Konstantinov
    Quite often I need to filter some form data before using it (saving to database etc.) Let's say I want to strip whitespaces and replace repeating whitespaces with a single one in most of the text fields, in many forms. It's not difficult to do this using clean_<fieldname> methods: # Simplified model with two text fields class MyModel(models.Model): title = models.CharField() description = models.CharField() # Model-based form class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = MyModel def clean_title(self): title = self.cleaned_data['title'] return re.sub(r'\s{2,}', ' ', title.strip()) def clean_description(self): description = self.cleaned_data['description'] return re.sub(r'\s{2,}', ' ', description.strip()) It does exactly what I need, and has a nice side effect which I like: if user enters only whitespaces, the field will be considered empty and therefore invalid (if it is required) and I don't even have to throw a ValidationError. The obvious problem here is code duplication. Even if I'll create some function for that, say my_text_filter, I'll have to call it for every text field in all my forms: from myproject.filters import my_text_filter class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = MyModel def clean_title(self): return my_text_filter(self.cleaned_data['title']) def clean_description(self): return my_text_filter(self.cleaned_data['description']) The question: is there any standard and simple way in Django (I use version 1.2 if that matters) to do this (like, for example, by adding property validators = {'title': my_text_filter, 'description': my_text_filter} to MyModel), or at least some more or less standard workaround? I've read about form validation and validators in the documentation, but couldn't find what I need there.

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  • Comment reply procedure using jquery and php?

    - by Prashant
    I have Commenting system in my app. For a single video entry anyone can post a comment and someone else can post reply to that comment and replies, cannot have thier further reples, similar to StackOverflow is doing (1 Answer, and thier 1 or more replies). I want the similar functionality what SO has, Let's I have the following HTML <div class="comment" id="comment-908"> First comment </div> <div class="reply"> <div id="reply-909> reply 1 </div> <div id="reply-910> reply 2 </div> <div id="reply-911> reply 3 </div> </div> <form id="reply-form"> <textarea id="replycomment" name="replycomment"></textarea> <input type="submit" name="submit-reply" value="add reply" /> </form> Now above HTML is a sample which I have created, When someone will click on "add reply" button then I am using jquery to post there reply. Now I want to know that there will be multiple comment and multiple add reply forms. So who clicks on which button and for which comment someone wants to post a reply, how will i know that? The above HTML is not in correct way, please suggest me the correct HTML flow which I can use and how to work with jquery? now I want to know when soe

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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • Facebook IOS SDK: Error in Publish Story Dialog

    - by lividsquirrel
    I've successfully set up the "DemoApp" project from the Facebook IOS SDK to use my "OKC ThunderCast" Facebook application. I have also configured another "Tester" application from scratch to successfully use the Facebook SDK and publish stories to my news feed. However, in my production application, I always get this result when calling the "dialog" method. The full description of the error message is "Error on line 52 at column 17: Opening and ending tag mismatch: div line 0 and body" Here's a detailed walkthrough of all of my code to make sure nothing is missed. 1) A UIViewController calls the "authorize" method NSArray *fbPerms = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"read_stream", @"offline_access", nil]; [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook authorize:fbPerms delegate:self]; Note: The FacebookSingleton is a class I wrote that always returns a single instance of the "Facebook" class. I am using it successfully in other applications. 2) Safari is opened and the user is successfully authenticated and authorized 3) The application is called back and the "handleOpenUrl" method is called, which calls the "fbDidLogin" method of the UIViewController - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application handleOpenURL:(NSURL *)url { Facebook *fb = [FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook; return [fb handleOpenURL:url]; } 4) The same UIViewController handles the "fbDidLogin" event, and calls the "dialog" method - (void)fbDidLogin { [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook dialog:@"feed" andDelegate:self]; } I also have the necessary "URL Schemes" and "URL Types" entries in the .plist file. To my eyes, I am using exactly the same code in the "DemoApp", "Tester", and production applications. But while the DemoApp and Tester work, I always see this HTML error in the feed dialog in my production application. Has anyone seen a similar issue? Could it be related to the Facebook "Bundle ID" setting in the Facebook application settings? Is there some build or .plist setting that is different? I have invested a great deal of time into troubleshooting with no success in several weeks. Thanks in advance...

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  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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  • HELP with XML to XML transformation using XSLT.

    - by kaniths
    Am a rookie trying XSLT and XML tranformations for the first time. To start off, i tried a simple sample programs. I expected the Output in Tree format (maintaining the hierarchy) instead i just get " KING" in single line... What could be the problem? PS: I use XMLSpy. Any guideline would be great full. Thanks :) Input XML: <ROWSET> <ROW> <EMPNO>7839</EMPNO> <ENAME>KING</ENAME> </ROW> </ROWSET> XSL used for transformation: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="UTF-8" indent="yes" omit-xml-declaration="no"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <Invitation> <To> <xsl:value-of select="ROWSET/ROW/ENAME"/> </To> </Invitation> </xsl:template>

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  • Using Excel as front end to Access database (with VBA)

    - by Alex
    I am building a small application for a friend and they'd like to be able to use Excel as the front end. (the UI will basically be userforms in Excel). They have a bunch of data in Excel that they would like to be able to query but I do not want to use excel as a database as I don't think it is fit for that purpose and am considering using Access. [BTW, I know Access has its shortcomings but there is zero budget available and Access already on friend's PC] To summarise, I am considering dumping a bunch of data into Access and then using Excel as a front end to query the database and display results in a userform style environment. Questions: How easy is it to link to Access from Excel using ADO / DAO? Is it quite limited in terms of functionality or can I get creative? Do I pay a performance penalty (vs.using forms in Access as the UI)? Assuming that the database will always be updated using ADO / DAO commands from within Excel VBA, does that mean I can have multiple Excel users using that one single Access database and not run into any concurrency issues etc.? Any other things I should be aware of? I have strong Excel VBA skills and think I can overcome Access VBA quite quickly but never really done Excel / Access link before. I could shoehorn the data into Excel and use as a quasi-database but that just seems more pain than it is worth (and not a robust long term solution) Any advice appreciated. Alex

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  • I'v installed NetBeans 6.8 on my MacOS X MacBook and the logs say it cannot be run, any ideas?

    - by codezealot
    I've installed NetBeans 6.8 on my MacBook, and the installation results indicated success. However, every single time I attempt to run the application is shuts down. I monitored the process and noticed the following entries in the console that imply the application cannot be found? 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM [0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168] /Applications/NetBeans/NetBeans 6.8.app/Contents/MacOS/netbeans: line 57: dirname: command not found 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM [0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168] Cannot read cluster file: /../etc/netbeans.clusters 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM com.apple.launchd.peruser.501[77] ([0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168]) Exited with exit code: 1 I started researching how to set the default JDK for use by NetBeans, and found repeated use of the following command line entry; netbeans --jdkhome /System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home -- from http://wiki.netbeans.org/JDKVersionAndMacOS When I attempt the command line above, I receive "netbeans command not found". So do I ... 1.) Need to create a command called "netbeans" that points to my install location for NetBeans 6.8? If so how do I do that? 2.) How do I get to the netbeans.conf file for NetBeans 6.8, does one even exist for it? It gets even more interesting, the above happens with Eclipse as well. Yippie.

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  • Tips on managing dependencies for a release?

    - by Andrew Murray
    Our system comprises many .NET websites, class libraries, and a MSSQL database. We use SVN for source control and TeamCity to automatically build to a Test server. Our team is normally working on 4 or 5 projects at a time. We try to lump many changes into a largish rollout every 2-4 weeks. My problem is with keeping track of all the dependencies for a rollout. Example: Website A cannot go live until we've rolled out Branch X of Class library B, built in turn against the Trunk of Class library C, which needs Config Updates Y and Z and Database Update D, which needs Migration Script E... It gets even more complex - like making sure each developer's project is actually compatible with the others and are building against the same versions. Yes, this is a management issue as much as a technical issue. Currently our non-optimal solution is: a whiteboard listing features that haven't gone live yet relying on our memory and intuition when planning the rollout, until we're pretty sure we've thought of everything... a dry-run on our Staging environment. It's a good indication but we're often not sure if Staging is 100% in sync with Live - part of the problem I'm hoping to solve. some amount of winging it on rollout day. So far so good, minus a few close calls. But as our system grows, I'd like a more scientific release management system allowing for more flexibility, like being able to roll out a single change or bugfix on it's own, safe in the knowledge that it won't break anything else. I'm guessing the best solution involves some sort of version numbering system, and perhaps using a project management tool. We're a start-up, so we're not too hot on religiously sticking to rigid processes, but we're happy to start, providing it doesn't add more overhead than it's worth. I'd love to hear advice from other teams who have solved this problem.

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • What is the difference between cubes and the Unified Dimensional Model (if any)?

    - by ngm
    I'm currently researching SQL Server 2008 as a business intelligence solution, and currently looking at Analysis Services (and I'm pretty new to business intelligence as a whole...) I'm a bit confused by some of the terms in SSAS, particularly the conceptual differences between cubes and MS's Unified Dimensional Model. I believe that a cube in SSAS is basically an OLAP cube -- dimensions, measures, something that sits between the underlying data source and a business user. But then that's kind of what I understand UDM to be as well. The docs for SQL Server 2005 seem to suggest as much: "A cube is essentially synonymous with a Unified Dimensional Model (UDM)". But then the SQL Server 2008 pages sort of suggest that UDM is a wrapper for both multidimensional data (cubes) and relational data: "Use the Unified Dimensional Model to provide one consolidated business view for relational and multidimensional data that includes business entities, business logic, calculations, and metrics." This blog post suggests similarly: "UDM provides a single dimensional model for all OLAP analysis and relational reporting needs. So you can use either MDX or SQL" Is UDM something that sits above cubes? Or are they the same thing? I presume I would develop cubes with the Cube Designer application; what would I develop a UDM with?

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  • moving audio over a local network using GStreamer

    - by James Turner
    I need to move realtime audio between two Linux machines, which are both running custom software (of mine) which builds on top of Gstreamer. (The software already has other communication between the machines, over a separate TCP-based protocol - I mention this in case having reliable out-of-band data makes a difference to the solution). The audio input will be a microphone / line-in on the sending machine, and normal audio output as the sink on the destination; alsasrc and alsasink are the most likely, though for testing I have been using the audiotestsrc instead of a real microphone. GStreamer offers a multitude of ways to move data round over networks - RTP, RTSP, GDP payloading, UDP and TCP servers, clients and sockets, and so on. There's also many examples on the web of streaming both audio and video - but none of them seem to work for me, in practice; either the destination pipeline fails to negotiate caps, or I hear a single packet and then the pipeline stalls, or the destination pipeline bails out immediately with no data available. In all cases, I'm testing on the command-line just gst-launch. No compression of the audio data is required - raw audio, or trivial WAV, uLaw or aLaw encoding is fine; what's more important is low-ish latency.

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  • CAScrollLayer doesn't scroll!

    - by Cliff
    Maybe it's because it's late. Whatever the reason I can't figure out why I'm having trouble with a simple CSScrollLayer example I'm trying. I add a 50 pixel Eclipse icon to a view based project and in my initialize method (called from initWithNibName:bundle:) I have this: -(void) initialize { CAScrollLayer *scrollLayer = [CAScrollLayer layer]; scrollLayer.backgroundColor = [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]; CGRect bounds = self.view.bounds; scrollLayer.bounds = CGRectMake(0, 0, bounds.size.width, bounds.size.height); scrollLayer.contentsRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, bounds.size.width + 800, bounds.size.height + 800); scrollLayer.borderWidth = 2.5; scrollLayer.borderColor = [[UIColor redColor] CGColor]; scrollLayer.position = CGPointMake(self.view.center.x, self.view.center.y - 20); scrollLayer.scrollMode = kCAScrollBoth; [self.view.layer addSublayer:scrollLayer]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"eclipse32.gif"]; for(int i=0; i<6; i++) { layer = [CALayer layer]; layer.backgroundColor = [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]; layer.bounds = CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100); layer.contents = (id)[image CGImage]; layer.position = CGPointMake(layer.bounds.size.width * i, self.view.center.y); [scrollLayer addSublayer:layer]; } // [button removeFromSuperview]; // [self.view addSubview:button]; // self.view.userInteractionEnabled = YES; [image release]; } The scroll layer shows, the icon is repeated on the layer I have a border around the edge of the screen. Everything is lovely except I can't scroll the icons. I've tried with/without setting scroll mode. I've tried with a single stretched icon that falls off screen. I've tried everything. What am I doing wrong?

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  • C#: Why am I still getting an RCW error when exiting my application?

    - by shifuimam
    To be specific, the error is: An attempt has been made to free an RCW that is in use. The RCW is in use on the active thread or another thread. Attempting to free an in-use RCW can cause corruption or data loss. The application in question is a small applet that displays the current clock speed of the CPU as a system tray icon. I'm using a System.Timers.Timer object to refresh the systray icon at an interval of 2.5 seconds. There's a single context menu item to exit the application, which uses the following function to unload everything: public void ExitApp(object sender, EventArgs e) { //stop and disable the timer theInterval.Stop(); theInterval.Enabled = false; //unload the system tray icon TheIcon.Visible = false; //exit the application Application.Exit(); } If I take out everything but Application.Exit(); I get an RCW error and the systray icon doesn't go away until I mouse over it. Everything was working perfectly until I changed the window style of the hidden form used to initialize the systray icon and the timer. If it helps any, I'm using C# 2010 Express.

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  • WPF : Multiple views, one DataContext

    - by zapho
    Hi, I'm working on a WPF application which must handle multiple screens (two at this this time). One view can be opened on several screens and user actions must be reflected consistently on all screens. To achieve this, for a given type of view, a single DataContext is instantiated. Then, when a view is displayed on a screen, the unique DataContext is attached to it. So, one DataContext, several views (same type of view/xaml). So far so good. It works quite well in most cases. I do have a problem with a specific view which relies on ItemsControl. These ItemsControl are used to display UIElements dynamically build in the ViewModel/DataContext (C# code). These UIElements are mostly Path objects. Example : <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding WindVectors}"> <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ItemsControl}"> <Canvas IsItemsHost="True" /> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> </ItemsControl> Here, WindVectors is a ObservableCollection<UIElement>. When the view is opened the first time, everything is fine. The problem is that when the view is opened one another screen, all ItemsControl are removed from the first screen and displayed one the second screen. Other WPF components (TextBlock for instance) on this view react normally and are displayed on both screens. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Fabrice

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • MySql scoping problem with correlated subqueries

    - by Rolf
    Hi, I'm having this Mysql query, It works: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m WHERE m.id = 37 The result is: nom prenom categories areas Man Multi Carpentry,Paint,Walls Beirut,Baalbak,Saida It works correclty, but only when i hardcode into the query the id that I want (37). I want it to work for all entries in the m3allem table, so I try this: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m And I get an error: Unknown column 'm.id' in 'where clause' Why? From the MySql manual: 13.2.8.7. Correlated Subqueries [...] Scoping rule: MySQL evaluates from inside to outside. So... do this not work when the subquery is in a SELECT section? I did not read anything about that. Does anyone know? What should I do? It took me a long time to build this query... I know it's a monster query but it gets what I want in a single query, and I am so close to getting it to work! Can anyone help?

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