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  • Excel CSV into Nested Dictionary; List Comprehensions

    - by victorhooi
    heya, I have a Excel CSV files with employee records in them. Something like this: mail,first_name,surname,employee_id,manager_id,telephone_number [email protected],john,smith,503422,503423,+65(2)3423-2433 [email protected],george,brown,503097,503098,+65(2)3423-9782 .... I'm using DictReader to put this into a nested dictionary: import csv gd_extract = csv.DictReader(open('filename 20100331 original.csv'), dialect='excel') employees = dict([(row['employee_id'], row) for row in gp_extract]) Is the above the proper way to do it - it does work, but is it the Right Way? Something more efficient? Also, the funny thing is, in IDLE, if I try to print out "employees" at the shell, it seems to cause IDLE to crash (there's approximately 1051 rows). 2. Remove employee_id from inner dict The second issue issue, I'm putting it into a dictionary indexed by employee_id, with the value as a nested dictionary of all the values - however, employee_id is also a key:value inside the nested dictionary, which is a bit redundant? Is there any way to exclude it from the inner dictionary? 3. Manipulate data in comprehension Thirdly, we need do some manipulations to the imported data - for example, all the phone numbers are in the wrong format, so we need to do some regex there. Also, we need to convert manager_id to an actual manager's name, and their email address. Most managers are in the same file, while others are in an external_contractors CSV, which is similar but not quite the same format - I can import that to a separate dict though. Are these two items things that can be done within the single list comprehension, or should I use a for loop? Or does multiple comprehensions work? (sample code would be really awesome here). Or is there a smarter way in Python do it? Cheers, Victor

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  • conditional update records mysql query

    - by Shakti Singh
    Hi, Is there any single msql query which can update customer DOB? I want to update the DOB of those customers which have DOB greater than current date. example:- if a customer have dob 2034 update it to 1934 , if have 2068 updated with 1968. There was a bug in my system if you enter date less than 1970 it was storing it as 2070. The bug is solved now but what about the customers which have wrong DOB. So I have to update their DOB. All customers are stored in customer_entity table and the entity_id is the customer_id Details is as follows:- desc customer_entity -> ; +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_set_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | website_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | email | varchar(255) | NO | MUL | | | | group_id | smallint(3) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | increment_id | varchar(50) | NO | | | | | store_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | 0 | | | created_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | is_active | tinyint(1) unsigned | NO | | 1 | | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 11 rows in set (0.00 sec) And the DOB is stored in the customer_entity_datetime table the column value contain the DOB. but in this table values of all other attribute are also stored such as fname,lname etc. So the attribute_id with value 11 is DOB attribute. mysql> desc customer_entity_datetime; +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | value_id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | value | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 5 rows in set (0.01 sec) Thanks.

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  • Help needed in grokking password hashes and salts

    - by javafueled
    I've read a number of SO questions on this topic, but grokking the applied practice of storing a salted hash of a password eludes me. Let's start with some ground rules: a password, "foobar12" (we are not discussing the strength of the password). a language, Java 1.6 for this discussion a database, postgreSQL, MySQL, SQL Server, Oracle Several options are available to storing the password, but I want to think about one (1): Store the password hashed with random salt in the DB, one column Found on SO and elsewhere is the automatic fail of plaintext, MD5/SHA1, and dual-columns. The latter have pros and cons MD5/SHA1 is simple. MessageDigest in Java provides MD5, SHA1 (through SHA512 in modern implementations, certainly 1.6). Additionally, most RDBMSs listed provide methods for MD5 encryption functions on inserts, updates, etc. The problems become evident once one groks "rainbow tables" and MD5 collisions (and I've grokked these concepts). Dual-column solutions rest on the idea that the salt does not need to be secret (grok it). However, a second column introduces a complexity that might not be a luxury if you have a legacy system with one (1) column for the password and the cost of updating the table and the code could be too high. But it is storing the password hashed with a random salt in single DB column that I need to understand better, with practical application. I like this solution for a couple of reasons: a salt is expected and considers legacy boundaries. Here's where I get lost: if the salt is random and hashed with the password, how can the system ever match the password? I have theory on this, and as I type I might be grokking the concept: Given a random salt of 128 bytes and a password of 8 bytes ('foobar12'), it could be programmatically possible to remove the part of the hash that was the salt, by hashing a random 128 byte salt and getting the substring of the original hash that is the hashed password. Then re hashing to match using the hash algorithm...??? So... any takers on helping. :) Am I close?

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  • preg_match_all and newlines inside quotes

    - by David
    Another noob regex problem/question. I'm probably doing something silly so I thought I'd exploit the general ingenuity of the SO regulars ;) Trying to match newlines but only if they occur within either double quotes or single quotes. I also want to catch strings that are between quotes but contain no newlines. Okay so there's what i got, with output. Below that, will be the output I would like to get. Any help would be greatly appreciated! :) I use Regex Coach to help me create my patterns, being a novice and all. According to RC, The pattern I supply does match all occurances within the data, but in my PHP, it skips over the multi-line part. I have tried with the 'm' pattern modifier already, to no avail. Contents of $CompressedData: <?php $Var = "test"; $Var2 = "test2"; $Var3 = "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah"; $Var4 = "hello"; ?> Pattern / Code: preg_match_all('!(\'|")(\b.*\b\n*)*(\'|")!', $CompressedData, $Matches); Current print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "hello" ) ... } DESIRED print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah" [3] => "hello" ) ... }

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  • Javascript : Submitting a form outside the actual form doesn't work

    - by Ben Fransen
    Hello all, I'm trying to achieve a fairly easy triggering mechanism for deleting multiple items from a tablegrid. If a user has enough access he/she is able to delete multiple users from a table. In the table I have set up checkboxes, one per row/user. The name of the checkboxes is UsersToDeletep[], and the value per row is the unique UserID. When a user clicks the button 'Delete selected users' a simple validation takes place to make sure at least one checkbox is selected. After that I call my simple function Submit(form). The function works perfectly when called within the form-tags, where I also use it to delete a single user. The function: function Submit(form) { document.forms[form].submit(); } I've also alerted document.forms[form]. The result is, as expected [object HTMLFormElement]. But for some reason the form just won't submit and a pagereload takes place. I'm a bit confused and can't seem to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Can anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance! Ben

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • Sharing session variables from http and https versio

    - by tangurena
    I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

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  • Can someone copyright an SQL query?

    - by Samutz
    I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

    - by Frank Sessions
    We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

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  • Is there a PHP benchmark that meets these specific criteria? [closed]

    - by Alex R
    I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The PHP source needs to be in a single file. It should solve a real-world problem. No silly looping over empty methods etc. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

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  • JQuery UI Tabs: Apply opacity toggle to only specific inner element?

    - by Kerri
    I am using Jquery UI tabs, and have it set to toggle the opacity with each slide change. I'm wondering if there's a way to apply the opacity toggle to only a single element within each tab, instead of the entire tab. My understanding of jQuery is pretty basic, so bear with me. So, If I have something like this: <div id="tabs"> <ul id="tabs-nav><li></li></ul> <div id="tab-1"> <img /> <p /> </div> <div id="tab-2"> <img /> <p /> </div> ...etc </div> How could I set it so that only the <img> has an effect applied, and the rest just switches normally? Here are the basics of the call I have for UI tabs: var $tabs = $('#slides').tabs({fx: { opacity: 'toggle' } }); $(".ui-tabs-panel").each(function(i){ //stuff to create previous/next links }); $('.next-tab, .prev-tab').click(function() { $tabs.tabs('select', $(this).attr("rel")); return false; });

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  • Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

    - by zoul
    Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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  • Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

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  • Java Arrays.equals() returns false for two dimensional arrays.

    - by Achilles
    Hi there, I was just curious to know - why does Arrays.equals(double[][], double[][]) return false? when in fact the arrays have the same number of elements and each element is the same? For example I performed the following test. ` [java] double[][] a, b; int size =5; a=new double[size][size]; b=new double[size][size]; for( int i = 0; i < size; i++ ) for( int j = 0; j < size; j++ ){ a[i][j]=1.0; b[i][j]=1.0; } if(Arrays.equals(a, b)) System.out.println("Equal"); else System.out.println("Not-equal"); [/java] ` Returns false and prints "Not-equal. on the other hand, if I have something like this: [java] double[] a, b; int size =5; a=new double[size]; b=new double[size]; for( int i = 0; i < size; i++ ){ a[i]=1.0; b[i]=1.0; } if(Arrays.equals(a, b)) System.out.println("Equal"); else System.out.println("Not-equal"); } [/java] returns true and prints "Equal". Does the method only work with single dimensions? if so, is there something similar for multi-dimensional arrays in Java?

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  • Linq-to-SQL: How to shape the data with group by?

    - by Cheeso
    I have an example database, it contains tables for Movies, People and Credits. The Movie table contains a Title and an Id. The People table contains a Name and an Id. The Credits table relates Movies to the People that worked on those Movies, in a particular role. The table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Credits] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [PersonId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES People(Id), [MovieId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Movies(Id), [Role] [char] (1) NULL In this simple example, the [Role] column is a single character, by my convention either 'A' to indicate the person was an actor on that particular movie, or 'D' for director. I'd like to perform a query on a particular person that returns the person's name, plus a list of all the movies the person has worked on, and the roles in those movies. If I were to serialize it to json, it might look like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "roles": ["actor", "director"] }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "roles": ["director"] }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "roles": ["actor"] }, ... ] } How can I write a LINQ-to-SQL query that shapes the output like that? I'm having trouble doing it efficiently. if I use this query: int personId = 10007; var persons = from p in db.People where p.Id == personId select new { name = p.Name, movies = (from m in db.Movies join c in db.Credits on m.Id equals c.MovieId where (c.PersonId == personId) select new { title = m.Title, role = (c.Role=="D"?"director":"actor") }) }; I get something like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "actor" }, { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "role": "actor" }, ... ] } ...but as you can see there's a duplicate of each movie for which Eastwood played multiple roles. How can I shape the output the way I want?

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  • why i dont get the check nvalue in check box?

    - by udaya
    Hi I have a check box when check that check box the id corresponding to the check box is placed on a text box ... but when there is only single value in the database i cant get the check value why? here is my code <? if(isset($AcceptFriend)) {?> <form action="<?=site_url()?>friends/Accept_Friend" name="orderform" id="orderform" method="post" style="background:#CCCC99"> <input type="text" name="chId" id="chId" > <table border="0" height="50%" id="chkbox" width="50%" > <tr> <? foreach($AcceptFriend as $row) {?> <tr> <td>Name</td><td><?=$row['dFrindName'].'</br>';?></td> <td> <input type="checkbox" name="checkId" id="checkId" value="<? echo $row['dMemberId']; ?>" onClick="get_check_value()" ></td> </tr> <? }}?> </tr> <tr> <td width="10px"><input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" class="buttn" value="AcceptFriend"></td></tr> </table> </form> This is the script i am using function get_check_value() { var c_value = ""; for (var i=0; i < document.orderform.checkId.length; i++) { if (document.orderform.checkId[i].checked) { c_value = c_value + document.orderform.checkId[i].value + "\n"; } } alert(c_value); document.getElementById('chId').value= c_value; }

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  • Configuring zend to use gmail smtp: Windows Apache dev-environment: "Could not open socket" error - repeatedly - going mad

    - by confused
    My dev environment is Win XP SP2 / Apache 2.something PHP 5.something_or_other My prod env is Linux Ubuntu / Apache 2.something_else PHP 5.something_or_other_else The code is all Zend Framework Version: 1.11.1 I can telnet to: smtp.gmail.com 465 from the PC. I have Mercury configured on my PC to use gmail as it's smtp host and it works just fine. (MercuryC SMTP Client). Mercury is set to use port 465 and SSL on smtp.gmail.com -- No problem. Zend mail works just fine on my production environment using the production mail server to send out mail. It's the same basic application.ini but with different values in the mail variables. On my local PC dev setup, my application.ini contains: (same values as I use in Mercury) mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "myAccount" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.gmail.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "myPassWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I have been doing trial and error for hours trying to get a single email out with no success. In every case, regardless of server or port settings it throws an error and reports: Could not open socket. Both Apache and Mercury Core are exceptions in my Windows Firewall config. Mercury seems to be having no problem. I have searched stackoverflow before posting this and have been googling for hours -- with no success. I am slowly losing my mind I would be very much obliged for any tip as to what might be wrong. Thanks for reading. =================== BTW When I use the SAME application.ini values on my local PC as on the production host, I get the same "Could not open socket" error. Those values are: mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "otherUser" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.otherServer.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "otherPAssWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I know these work in the production (Ubuntu) environment. I'm utterly baffled.

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  • Flash "visible" issue

    - by justkevin
    I'm writing a tool in Flex that lets me design composite sprites using layered bitmaps and then "bake" them into a low overhead single bitmapData. I've discovered a strange behavior I can't explain: toggling the "visible" property of my layers works twice for each layer (i.e., I can turn it off, then on again) and then never again for that layer-- the layer stays visible from that point on. If I override "set visible" on the layer as such: override public function set visible(value:Boolean):void { if(value == false) this.alpha = 0; else {this.alpha = 1;} } The problem goes away and I can toggle "visibility" as much as I want. Any ideas what might be causing this? Edit: Here is the code that makes the call: private function onVisibleChange():void { _layer.visible = layerVisible.selected; changed(); } The changed() method "bakes" the bitmap: public function getBaked():BitmapData { var w:int = _composite.width + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var h:int = _composite.height + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var bmpData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h,true,0x00000000); var matrix:Matrix = new Matrix(); var bounds:Rectangle = this.getBounds(this); matrix.translate(w/2,h/2); bmpData.draw(this,matrix,null,null,new Rectangle(0,0,w,h),true); return bmpData; } Incidentally, while the layer is still visible, using the Flex debugger I can verify that the layer's visible value is "false".

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  • Why does adding Crossover to my Genetic Algorithm gives me worse results?

    - by MahlerFive
    I have implemented a Genetic Algorithm to solve the Traveling Salesman Problem (TSP). When I use only mutation, I find better solutions than when I add in crossover. I know that normal crossover methods do not work for TSP, so I implemented both the Ordered Crossover and the PMX Crossover methods, and both suffer from bad results. Here are the other parameters I'm using: Mutation: Single Swap Mutation or Inverted Subsequence Mutation (as described by Tiendil here) with mutation rates tested between 1% and 25%. Selection: Roulette Wheel Selection Fitness function: 1 / distance of tour Population size: Tested 100, 200, 500, I also run the GA 5 times so that I have a variety of starting populations. Stop Condition: 2500 generations With the same dataset of 26 points, I usually get results of about 500-600 distance using purely mutation with high mutation rates. When adding crossover my results are usually in the 800 distance range. The other confusing thing is that I have also implemented a very simple Hill-Climbing algorithm to solve the problem and when I run that 1000 times (faster than running the GA 5 times) I get results around 410-450 distance, and I would expect to get better results using a GA. Any ideas as to why my GA performing worse when I add crossover? And why is it performing much worse than a simple Hill-Climb algorithm which should get stuck on local maxima as it has no way of exploring once it finds a local max?

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  • Finding the last focused element

    - by Joshua Cody
    I'm looking to determine which element had the last focus in a series of inputs, that are added dynamically by the user. This code can only get the inputs that are available on page load: $('input.item').focus(function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); And this code sees all elements that have ever had focus: $('input.item').live('focus', function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); The HTML structure is this: <ul> <li><input class="item" name="goals[]"> <ul> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> </ul></li> </ul> <a href="#" id="add">Add another</a> On page load, a single input loads. Then with each add another, a new copy of the top unordered list's contents are made and appended, and the new input gets focus. When each gets focus, I'd like to show the list beneath it. But I don't seem to be able to "watch for the most recently focused element, which exists now or in the future." To clarify: I'm not looking for the last occurrence of an element in the DOM tree. I'm looking to find the element that currently has focus, even if said element is not present upon original page load. So in the above image, if I were to focus on the second element, the list of words should appear under the second element. My focus is currently on the last element, so the words are displayed there. Do I have some sort of fundamental assumption wrong?

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  • mySQL Efficiency Issue - How to find the right balance of normalization...?

    - by Foo
    I'm fairly new to working with relational databases, but have read a few books and know the basics of good design. I'm facing a design decision, and I'm not sure how to continue. Here's a very over simplified version of what I'm building: People can rate photos 1-5, and I need to display the average votes on the picture while keeping track of the individual votes. For example, 12 people voted 1, 7 people voted 2, etc. etc. The normalization freak of me initially designed the table structure like this: Table pictures id* | picture | userID | Table ratings id* | pictureID | userID | rating With all the foreign key constraints and everything set as they shoudl be. Every time someone rates a picture, I just insert a new record into ratings and be done with it. To find the average rating of a picture, I'd just run something like this: SELECT AVG(rating) FROM ratings WHERE pictureID = '5' GROUP by pictureID Having it setup this way lets me run my fancy statistics to. I can easily find who rated a certain picture a 3, and what not. Now I'm thinking if there's a crapload of ratings (which is very possible in what I'm really designing), finding the average will became very expensive and painful. Using a non-normalized version would seem to be more efficient. e.g.: Table picture id | picture | userID | ratingOne | ratingTwo | ratingThree | ratingFour | ratingFive To calculate the average, I'd just have to select a single row. It seems so much more efficient, but so much more uglier. Can someone point me in the right direction of what to do? My initial research shows that I have to "find the right balance", but how do I go about finding that balance? Any articles or additional reading information would be appreciated as well. Thanks.

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  • Can I combine two functions into one using Javascript?

    - by Melissa
    I have the following code that I would like to simplify. With javascript and jQuery is there an easy way that I could combine these two functions? Most of the code is the same but I am not sure how I could create a single function that works differently depending on what is clicked. $(document).ready(function () { $('#ListBooks').click(ListBooks); $('#Create').click(Create); }); function Create() { var dataSourceID = $('#DataSourceID').val(); var subjectID = $('#SubjectID').val(); var contentID = $('#ContentID').val(); if (dataSourceID && dataSourceID != '00' && subjectID && subjectID != "00" && contentID && contentID != "00") { var e = encodeURIComponent, arr = ["dataSourceID=" + e(dataSourceID), "subjectID=" + e(subjectID), "contentID=" + e(contentID)]; window.location.href = '/Administration/Books/Create?' + arr.join("&"); } else { alert('Datasource, Subject and Content must be selected.'); } return false; } function ListBooks() { var dataSourceID = $('#DataSourceID').val(); var subjectID = $('#SubjectID').val(); var contentID = $('#ContentID').val(); if (dataSourceID && dataSourceID != '00' && subjectID && subjectID != "00" && contentID && contentID != "00") { var e = encodeURIComponent, arr = ["dataSourceID=" + e(dataSourceID), "subjectID=" + e(subjectID), "contentID=" + e(contentID)]; window.location.href = '/Administration/Books/ListBooks?' + arr.join("&"); } else { alert('Datasource, Subject and Content must be selected.'); } return false; }

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  • NSFetchedResultsController: changing predicate not working?

    - by icerelic
    Hi, I'm writing an app with two tables on one screen. The left table is a list of folders and the right table shows a list of files. When tapped on a row on the left, the right table will display the files belonging to that folder. I'm using Core Data for storage. When the selection of folder changes, the fetch predicate of the right table's NSFetchedResultsController will change and perform a new fetch, then reload the table data. I used the following code snippet: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"list = %@",self.list]; [fetchedResultsController.fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } [table reloadData]; However the fetch results are still the same. I've NSLog'ed "predicate" before and after the fetch, and they were correct with updated information. The fetch results stay the same as initial fetch (when view is loaded). I'm not very familiar with the way Core Data fetches objects (is there a caching system?), but I've done similar things before(changing predicates, re-fetching data, and refreshing table) with single table views and everything went well. If someone could gave me a hint I would be very appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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