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  • To what degree should I use Marshal.ReleaseComObject with Excel Interop objects?

    - by DanM
    I've seen several examples where Marshal.ReleaseComObject() is used with Excel Interop objects (i.e., objects from namespace Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel), but I've seen it used to various degrees. I'm wondering if I can get away with something like this: var application = new ApplicationClass(); try { // do work with application, workbooks, worksheets, cells, etc. } finally { Marashal.ReleaseComObject(application) } Or if I need to release every single object created, as in this method: public void CreateExcelWorkbookWithSingleSheet() { var application = new ApplicationClass(); var workbook = application.Workbooks.Add(_missing); var worksheets = workbook.Worksheets; for (var worksheetIndex = 1; worksheetIndex < worksheets.Count; worksheetIndex++) { var worksheet = (WorksheetClass)worksheets[worksheetIndex]; worksheet.Delete(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheet); } workbook.SaveAs( WorkbookPath, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, XlSaveAsAccessMode.xlExclusive, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing); workbook.Close(true, _missing, _missing); application.Quit(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheets); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(workbook); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(application); } What prompted me to ask this question is that, being the LINQ devotee I am, I really want to do something like this: var worksheetNames = worksheets.Cast<Worksheet>().Select(ws => ws.Name); ...but I'm concerned I'll end up with memory leaks or ghost processes if I don't release each worksheet (ws) object. Any insight on this would be appreciated.

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  • conditional update records mysql query

    - by Shakti Singh
    Hi, Is there any single msql query which can update customer DOB? I want to update the DOB of those customers which have DOB greater than current date. example:- if a customer have dob 2034 update it to 1934 , if have 2068 updated with 1968. There was a bug in my system if you enter date less than 1970 it was storing it as 2070. The bug is solved now but what about the customers which have wrong DOB. So I have to update their DOB. All customers are stored in customer_entity table and the entity_id is the customer_id Details is as follows:- desc customer_entity -> ; +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_set_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | website_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | email | varchar(255) | NO | MUL | | | | group_id | smallint(3) unsigned | NO | | 0 | | | increment_id | varchar(50) | NO | | | | | store_id | smallint(5) unsigned | YES | MUL | 0 | | | created_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | | is_active | tinyint(1) unsigned | NO | | 1 | | +------------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 11 rows in set (0.00 sec) And the DOB is stored in the customer_entity_datetime table the column value contain the DOB. but in this table values of all other attribute are also stored such as fname,lname etc. So the attribute_id with value 11 is DOB attribute. mysql> desc customer_entity_datetime; +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ | value_id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | entity_type_id | smallint(8) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | attribute_id | smallint(5) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | entity_id | int(10) unsigned | NO | MUL | 0 | | | value | datetime | NO | | 0000-00-00 00:00:00 | | +----------------+----------------------+------+-----+---------------------+----------------+ 5 rows in set (0.01 sec) Thanks.

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  • Sharing session variables from http and https versio

    - by tangurena
    I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

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  • Why does adding Crossover to my Genetic Algorithm gives me worse results?

    - by MahlerFive
    I have implemented a Genetic Algorithm to solve the Traveling Salesman Problem (TSP). When I use only mutation, I find better solutions than when I add in crossover. I know that normal crossover methods do not work for TSP, so I implemented both the Ordered Crossover and the PMX Crossover methods, and both suffer from bad results. Here are the other parameters I'm using: Mutation: Single Swap Mutation or Inverted Subsequence Mutation (as described by Tiendil here) with mutation rates tested between 1% and 25%. Selection: Roulette Wheel Selection Fitness function: 1 / distance of tour Population size: Tested 100, 200, 500, I also run the GA 5 times so that I have a variety of starting populations. Stop Condition: 2500 generations With the same dataset of 26 points, I usually get results of about 500-600 distance using purely mutation with high mutation rates. When adding crossover my results are usually in the 800 distance range. The other confusing thing is that I have also implemented a very simple Hill-Climbing algorithm to solve the problem and when I run that 1000 times (faster than running the GA 5 times) I get results around 410-450 distance, and I would expect to get better results using a GA. Any ideas as to why my GA performing worse when I add crossover? And why is it performing much worse than a simple Hill-Climb algorithm which should get stuck on local maxima as it has no way of exploring once it finds a local max?

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  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • why i dont get the check nvalue in check box?

    - by udaya
    Hi I have a check box when check that check box the id corresponding to the check box is placed on a text box ... but when there is only single value in the database i cant get the check value why? here is my code <? if(isset($AcceptFriend)) {?> <form action="<?=site_url()?>friends/Accept_Friend" name="orderform" id="orderform" method="post" style="background:#CCCC99"> <input type="text" name="chId" id="chId" > <table border="0" height="50%" id="chkbox" width="50%" > <tr> <? foreach($AcceptFriend as $row) {?> <tr> <td>Name</td><td><?=$row['dFrindName'].'</br>';?></td> <td> <input type="checkbox" name="checkId" id="checkId" value="<? echo $row['dMemberId']; ?>" onClick="get_check_value()" ></td> </tr> <? }}?> </tr> <tr> <td width="10px"><input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" class="buttn" value="AcceptFriend"></td></tr> </table> </form> This is the script i am using function get_check_value() { var c_value = ""; for (var i=0; i < document.orderform.checkId.length; i++) { if (document.orderform.checkId[i].checked) { c_value = c_value + document.orderform.checkId[i].value + "\n"; } } alert(c_value); document.getElementById('chId').value= c_value; }

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  • NSFetchedResultsController: changing predicate not working?

    - by icerelic
    Hi, I'm writing an app with two tables on one screen. The left table is a list of folders and the right table shows a list of files. When tapped on a row on the left, the right table will display the files belonging to that folder. I'm using Core Data for storage. When the selection of folder changes, the fetch predicate of the right table's NSFetchedResultsController will change and perform a new fetch, then reload the table data. I used the following code snippet: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"list = %@",self.list]; [fetchedResultsController.fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } [table reloadData]; However the fetch results are still the same. I've NSLog'ed "predicate" before and after the fetch, and they were correct with updated information. The fetch results stay the same as initial fetch (when view is loaded). I'm not very familiar with the way Core Data fetches objects (is there a caching system?), but I've done similar things before(changing predicates, re-fetching data, and refreshing table) with single table views and everything went well. If someone could gave me a hint I would be very appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • IE problem: keyboard interaction with checkbox

    - by Bobby Eickhoff
    I have an HTML table, and each row has a checkbox for selecting or deselecting its row. Whenever a checkbox changes value, I need to add or remove highlighting to the row and also ensure that the page's submit button is only enabled when at least one row is selected and disabled otherwise. The checkbox event handler is defined by the following function: function getCheckboxCallback() { return function () { var parentRow = getParentRow(this); if (!parentRow) { return; // No parent row found; abort } // Adjust the appearance of the row setSelected(parentRow, this.checked); // Count the number of selected table rows, and disable the submit // button whenever no rows are selected enforceInvariants(); return true; }; } Elsewhere in the same module, the checkboxes are given the event handlers: checkbox.onchange = getCheckboxCallback(); checkbox.onclick = getCheckboxCallback(); // alleged IE fix I'm working in Windows XP, and everything works fine in both Firefox 3 and Opera 9. However, IE 7 does not handle keyboard interaction well (mouse interaction works fine). The problem is that if a checkbox has the focus and I hit the spacebar, the checkbox doesn't get checked -- instead it gets half checked (it has the same shadowed appearance that it would get immediately after a mousedown). I have to press the spacebar a second time to actually check the box. Similarly, it requires two key presses to uncheck it. Oddly enough, if I hold down the spacebar for a few moments, then a single press works as expected. Can anyone explain what is going on here? Is there something I'm doing wrong in the JavaScript code that is causing this behavior? How can I fix this?

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

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  • How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

    - by Frank Sessions
    We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

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  • How to move/drag multiple images with CALayer???

    - by gbf.sara
    I have more than 10 images in screen and i want to move each image using CALayer concept. While am trying to move first image,its working. Even when i drag my second image also, its working. But after that when i get back to first image and when i try to move , am struck up. its not working. I dono where it went wrong. Here's ma code //Assigning Layer to UIImage// layer = [CALayer layer]; UIImage *image1 = [UIImage imageNamed:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@_thumb.png",[tiv imageName]]]; layer.contents = (id)image1.CGImage; layer.position=CGPointMake(200,200); layer.frame = CGRectMake(110, 180, 100, 100); [self.view.layer addSublayer:layer]; [layer needsDisplay]; [self.view.layer needsDisplay]; [layer needsLayout]; //Here i try to move my image// - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; NSArray *allTouches = [touches allObjects]; int count = [allTouches count]; if (count == 1) { if (CGRectContainsPoint([layer frame], [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view])) { layer.position = [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view]; return; } } if (count > 1) { if (CGRectContainsPoint([layer frame], [[allTouches objectAtIndex:-1] locationInView:self.view])) { layer.position = [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view]; return; } } } Also ive planned to use single CALayer for multiple images.. When i click an image, it should be placed in that CALayer and when i click another, the same CALayer should take the latter one. So tat whenever i drag an image it should move(no matter how many images r there) . Do u think this concept will work out or is there any other idea??? My concept may seems to be a basic one. Am new to this environment n so kindly help me..

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  • Why is curl in Ruby slower than command-line curl?

    - by Stiivi
    I am trying to download more than 1m pages (URLs ending by a sequence ID). I have implemented kind of multi-purpose download manager with configurable number of download threads and one processing thread. The downloader downloads files in batches: curl = Curl::Easy.new batch_urls.each { |url_info| curl.url = url_info[:url] curl.perform file = File.new(url_info[:file], "wb") file << curl.body_str file.close # ... some other stuff } I have tried to download 8000 pages sample. When using the code above, I get 1000 in 2 minutes. When I write all URLs into a file and do in shell: cat list | xargs curl I gen all 8000 pages in two minutes. Thing is, I need it to have it in ruby code, because there is other monitoring and processing code. I have tried: Curl::Multi - it is somehow faster, but misses 50-90% of files (does not download them and gives no reason/code) multiple threads with Curl::Easy - around the same speed as single threaded Why is reused Curl::Easy slower than subsequent command line curl calls and how can I make it faster? Or what I am doing wrong? I would prefer to fix my download manager code than to make downloading for this case in a different way. Before this, I was calling command-line wget which I provided with a file with list of URLs. Howerver, not all errors were handled, also it was not possible to specify output file for each URL separately when using URL list. Now it seems to me that the best way would be to use multiple threads with system call to 'curl' command. But why when I can use directly Curl in Ruby? Code for the download manager is here, if it might help: Download Manager (I have played with timeouts, from not-setting it to various values, it did not seem help) Any hints appreciated.

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  • remove specific values from multi value dictionary

    - by Anthony
    I've seen posts here on how to make a dictionary that has multiple values per key, like one of the solutions presented in this link: Multi Value Dictionary it seems that I have to use a List< as the value for the keys, so that a key can store multiple values. the solution in the link is fine if you want to add values. But my problem now is how to remove specific values from a single key. I have this code for adding values to a dictionary: private Dictionary<TKey, List<TValue>> mEventDict; // this is for initializing the dictionary public void Subscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { if (mEventDict.ContainsKey(inEvent)) { mEventDict[inEvent].Add(inCallbackMethod); } else { mEventDict.Add(inEvent, new List<TValue>() { v }); } } // this is for adding values to the dictionary. // if the "key" (inEvent) is not yet present in the dictionary, // the key will be added first before the value my problem now is removing a specific value from a key. I have this code: public void Unsubscribe(eVtEvtId inEvent, VtEvtDelegate inCallbackMethod) { try { mEventDict[inEvent].Remove(inCallbackMethod); } catch (ArgumentNullException) { MessageBox.Show("The event is not yet present in the dictionary"); } } basically, what I did is just replace the Add() with Remove() . Will this work? Also, if you have any problems or questions with the code (initialization, etc.), feel free to ask. Thanks for the advice.

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  • JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

    - by purecharger
    And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

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  • Configuring zend to use gmail smtp: Windows Apache dev-environment: "Could not open socket" error - repeatedly - going mad

    - by confused
    My dev environment is Win XP SP2 / Apache 2.something PHP 5.something_or_other My prod env is Linux Ubuntu / Apache 2.something_else PHP 5.something_or_other_else The code is all Zend Framework Version: 1.11.1 I can telnet to: smtp.gmail.com 465 from the PC. I have Mercury configured on my PC to use gmail as it's smtp host and it works just fine. (MercuryC SMTP Client). Mercury is set to use port 465 and SSL on smtp.gmail.com -- No problem. Zend mail works just fine on my production environment using the production mail server to send out mail. It's the same basic application.ini but with different values in the mail variables. On my local PC dev setup, my application.ini contains: (same values as I use in Mercury) mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "myAccount" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.gmail.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "myPassWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I have been doing trial and error for hours trying to get a single email out with no success. In every case, regardless of server or port settings it throws an error and reports: Could not open socket. Both Apache and Mercury Core are exceptions in my Windows Firewall config. Mercury seems to be having no problem. I have searched stackoverflow before posting this and have been googling for hours -- with no success. I am slowly losing my mind I would be very much obliged for any tip as to what might be wrong. Thanks for reading. =================== BTW When I use the SAME application.ini values on my local PC as on the production host, I get the same "Could not open socket" error. Those values are: mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "otherUser" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.otherServer.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "otherPAssWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I know these work in the production (Ubuntu) environment. I'm utterly baffled.

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  • Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

    - by zoul
    Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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  • Help needed in grokking password hashes and salts

    - by javafueled
    I've read a number of SO questions on this topic, but grokking the applied practice of storing a salted hash of a password eludes me. Let's start with some ground rules: a password, "foobar12" (we are not discussing the strength of the password). a language, Java 1.6 for this discussion a database, postgreSQL, MySQL, SQL Server, Oracle Several options are available to storing the password, but I want to think about one (1): Store the password hashed with random salt in the DB, one column Found on SO and elsewhere is the automatic fail of plaintext, MD5/SHA1, and dual-columns. The latter have pros and cons MD5/SHA1 is simple. MessageDigest in Java provides MD5, SHA1 (through SHA512 in modern implementations, certainly 1.6). Additionally, most RDBMSs listed provide methods for MD5 encryption functions on inserts, updates, etc. The problems become evident once one groks "rainbow tables" and MD5 collisions (and I've grokked these concepts). Dual-column solutions rest on the idea that the salt does not need to be secret (grok it). However, a second column introduces a complexity that might not be a luxury if you have a legacy system with one (1) column for the password and the cost of updating the table and the code could be too high. But it is storing the password hashed with a random salt in single DB column that I need to understand better, with practical application. I like this solution for a couple of reasons: a salt is expected and considers legacy boundaries. Here's where I get lost: if the salt is random and hashed with the password, how can the system ever match the password? I have theory on this, and as I type I might be grokking the concept: Given a random salt of 128 bytes and a password of 8 bytes ('foobar12'), it could be programmatically possible to remove the part of the hash that was the salt, by hashing a random 128 byte salt and getting the substring of the original hash that is the hashed password. Then re hashing to match using the hash algorithm...??? So... any takers on helping. :) Am I close?

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  • preg_match_all and newlines inside quotes

    - by David
    Another noob regex problem/question. I'm probably doing something silly so I thought I'd exploit the general ingenuity of the SO regulars ;) Trying to match newlines but only if they occur within either double quotes or single quotes. I also want to catch strings that are between quotes but contain no newlines. Okay so there's what i got, with output. Below that, will be the output I would like to get. Any help would be greatly appreciated! :) I use Regex Coach to help me create my patterns, being a novice and all. According to RC, The pattern I supply does match all occurances within the data, but in my PHP, it skips over the multi-line part. I have tried with the 'm' pattern modifier already, to no avail. Contents of $CompressedData: <?php $Var = "test"; $Var2 = "test2"; $Var3 = "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah"; $Var4 = "hello"; ?> Pattern / Code: preg_match_all('!(\'|")(\b.*\b\n*)*(\'|")!', $CompressedData, $Matches); Current print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "hello" ) ... } DESIRED print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah" [3] => "hello" ) ... }

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  • Design Practice Retrieve Multiple Users - PHP

    - by pws5068
    Greetings all, I'm looking for a more efficient way to grab multiple users without too much code redundancy. I have a Users class, (here's a highly condensed representation) Class Users { function __construct() { ... ... } private static function getNew($id) { // This is all only example code $sql = "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE User_ID=?"; $user = new User(); $user->setID($id); .... return $user; } public static function getNewestUsers($count) { $sql = "SELECT * FROM Users ORDER BY Join_Date LIMIT ?"; $users = array(); // Prepared Statement Data Here while($stmt->fetch()) { $users[] = Users::getNew($id); ... } return $users; } // These have more sanity/security checks, demonstration only. function setID($id) { $this->id = $id; } function setName($name) { $this->name = $name; } ... } So clearly calling getNew() in a loop is inefficient, because it makes $count number of calls to the database each time. I would much rather select all users in a single SQL statement. The problem is that I have probably a dozen or so methods for getting arrays of users, so all of these would now need to know the names of the database columns which is repeating a lot of structure that could always change later. What are some other ways that I could approach this problem? My goals include efficiency, flexibility, scalability, and good design practice.

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  • Flexible CMS for non-programmers

    - by Bunkerbewohner
    Hello! I'm looking for a content management system that allows creating single pages out of predefined blocks flexibly. For example I have a "product" block that is used to show producs on a page and it may appear numerous times on one page with different contents. But I also might wanna use it on different pages. Also I have simply generic blocks like multiple column text blocks (1 col, 2 col etc.) where I just want to insert this kind of structure into the page and enter any text. So I'm looking for a cms with someething like a building block / module concept for contents. I'm already searching the web but there are so many CMSs that I can't look into every one. So if anyone knows a solution that might be right for me, please tell me! Technology-wise it just has to run on Linux. If it's OpenSource / free that's great, but I might also pay for it, if it offers the features I want. Thanks for any hints in advance!

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  • SQL Server Compact timed out waiting for a lock

    - by jankhana
    Hi all, I'm having an application in that i use Sql Compact 3.5 with VS2008. I'm running multiple threads in my application which contacts the compact database and accesses the row. It selects and deletes those rows in a fashion i.e selecting and giving to the application 5 rows and deleting those rows from the table. It works great with a single thread but if i use multiple threads i.e if 3 or more threads are running I get very often the TimeOut Error!!! I have increased the Time out property in the connection string but it didn't give me expected result. The error log is as follow: SQL Server Compact timed out waiting for a lock. The default lock time is 2000ms for devices and 5000ms for desktops. The default lock timeout can be increased in the connection string using the ssce: default lock timeout property. [ Session id = 5,Thread id = 4204,Process id = 4808,Table name = XXX,Conflict type = x lock (s blocks),Resource = TAB ] The Query that I use to retrieve is as follows: " select Top(5) * from TableName order by id; delete from TableName where id in(select top(5) id from TableName order by id); " Is there any way by which we can avoid this Time Out exception??????? The above query I un as a transaction in VS2008 one using SQLCECommand and the other using SqlCEDataAdapter. Any Idea!!!!!! Reply

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  • Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

    - by prodigitalson
    Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

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  • Ajax Form submittion in Google App Engine with jQuery

    - by user271785
    could not figure out why it is not working: i need to send request to server, generate some fragment of html in python with meanCal method, and then want that fragment embedded into submitting html file using calculation method and dynamically shows in dyContent div. all the processes are done by single click on submit button in a form. any suggestions??? thanks in advance. the submitting html: <div id="dyContent" style="height: 200px;"> waiting for user... {{ mgs }} </div> <div id="leturetext"> <form id="mean" method="post" action="/calculation"> <select name="meanselect"> <option value=10>example</option> <option value=11>exercise</option> </select> <input type="button" name="btnMean" value="Check Results" /> </form> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //$("#btnMean").live("click", function() { $("#mean").submit(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "POST", cache: false, url: "/meanCal", success: function(html) { $("#dyContent").html(html); } }); return false; }); }); </script> python: class MainHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): path = self.request.path if doRender(self, path): return doRender(self,'index.htm') class calculationHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def post(self): doRender(self, 'Diagnostic_stats.htm', {'mgs' : "refreshed.", }) def get(self): doRender(self, 'Diagnostic_stats.htm') class meanHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): global GL index = self.request.get('meanselect'.value) if (index == 10): allData = GL.exampleData dataString = ','.join(map(str, allData)) dataMean = (str)(stats.lmean(allData)) doRender(self, 'Result.htm', { 'dataIn' : dataString, 'MEAN' : "Example Mean is: " + dataMean, }) return else: allData = GL.exerciseData dataString = ','.join(map(str, allData)) dataMean = (str)(stats.lmean(allData)) doRender(self, 'Result.htm', { 'dataIn' : dataString, 'MEAN' : "Exercise Mean is: " + dataMean, }) def main(): global GL GL = GlobalVariables() application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/calculation', calculationHandler), ('/meanCal', meanHandler), ('.*', MainHandler), ], debug=True) wsgiref.handlers.CGIHandler().run(application) if __name__ == '__main__': main()

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  • Monads and custom traversal functions in Haskell

    - by Bill
    Given the following simple BST definition: data Tree x = Empty | Leaf x | Node x (Tree x) (Tree x) deriving (Show, Eq) inOrder :: Tree x -> [x] inOrder Empty = [] inOrder (Leaf x) = [x] inOrder (Node root left right) = inOrder left ++ [root] ++ inOrder right I'd like to write an in-order function that can have side effects. I achieved that with: inOrderM :: (Show x, Monad m) => (x -> m a) -> Tree x -> m () inOrderM f (Empty) = return () inOrderM f (Leaf y) = f y >> return () inOrderM f (Node root left right) = inOrderM f left >> f root >> inOrderM f right -- print tree in order to stdout inOrderM print tree This works fine, but it seems repetitive - the same logic is already present in inOrder and my experience with Haskell leads me to believe that I'm probably doing something wrong if I'm writing a similar thing twice. Is there any way that I can write a single function inOrder that can take either pure or monadic functions?

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