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  • Working around "one executable per project" in Visual C# for many small test programs

    - by Kevin Ivarsen
    When working with Visual Studio in general (or Visual C# Express in my particular case), it looks like each project can be configured to produce only one output - e.g. a single executable or a library. I'm working on a project that consists of a shared library and a few application, and I already have one project in my solution for each of those. However, during development I find it useful to write small example programs that can run one small subsystem in isolation (at a level that doesn't belong in the unit tests). Is there a good way to handle this in Visual Studio? I'd like to avoid adding several dozen separate projects to my solution for each small test program I write, especially when these programs will typically be less than 100 lines of code. I'm hoping to find something that lets me continue to work in Visual Studio and use its build system (rather than moving to something like NAnt). I could foresee the answer being something like: A way of setting this up in Visual Studio that I haven't found yet A GUI like NUnit's graphical runner that searches an assembly for classes with defined Main() functions that you can select and run A command line tool that lets you specify an assembly and a class with a Main function to run

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  • Window message procedures in Linux vs Windows

    - by mizipzor
    In Windows when you create a window, you must define a (c++) LRESULT CALLBACK message_proc(HWND Handle, UINT Message, WPARAM WParam, LPARAM LParam); to handle all the messages sent from the OS to the window, like keypresses and such. Im looking to do some reading on how the same system works in Linux. Maybe it is because I fall a bit short on the terminology but I fail to find anything on this through google (although Im sure there must be plenty!). Is it still just one single C function that handles all the communication? Does the function definition differ on different WMs (Gnome, KDE) or is it handled on a lower level in the OS? Edit: Ive looked into tools like QT and WxWidgets, but those frameworks seems to be geared more towards developing GUI extensive applications. Im rather looking for a way to create a basic window (restrict resize, borders/decorations) for my OGL graphics and retrieve input on more than one platform. And according to my initial research, this kind of function is the only way to retrieve that input. What would be the best route? Reading up, learning and then use QT or WxWidgets? Or learning how the systems work and implement those few basic features I want myself?

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  • Simple code to expire Drupal cookie?

    - by user310594
    With a single click this simple script will do a multi-logout of: Moodle Elgg 2 MyBB's and (not) Drupal. <?php setcookie( 'Elgg', '', -3600, '/', '.domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'http_auth_ext_complete', '1', -3600, '/d/', '.domain.com', false, false); // setcookie( 'http_auth_ext_complete', '1', -3600, '/d/', 'domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'mybbuser', '', -3600, '/', '.domain.com', false, false); setcookie( 'mybbuser', '', -3600, '/bb/', '.domain.com', false, false); // unset all 3 Moodle cookies, the lazy way if (isset($_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE'])) { $cookies = explode(';', $_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE']); foreach($cookies as $cookie) { $parts = explode('=', $cookie); $name = trim($parts[0]); setcookie($name, '', time()-1000); setcookie($name, '', time()-1000, '/'); } } ?> This works on four sites but the Drupal cookie won't quit. How can I do the same with Drupal? Note: Drupal uses 'host' instead of 'domain', neither with or without the '.' works so far. Thank you.

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  • To what degree should I use Marshal.ReleaseComObject with Excel Interop objects?

    - by DanM
    I've seen several examples where Marshal.ReleaseComObject() is used with Excel Interop objects (i.e., objects from namespace Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel), but I've seen it used to various degrees. I'm wondering if I can get away with something like this: var application = new ApplicationClass(); try { // do work with application, workbooks, worksheets, cells, etc. } finally { Marashal.ReleaseComObject(application) } Or if I need to release every single object created, as in this method: public void CreateExcelWorkbookWithSingleSheet() { var application = new ApplicationClass(); var workbook = application.Workbooks.Add(_missing); var worksheets = workbook.Worksheets; for (var worksheetIndex = 1; worksheetIndex < worksheets.Count; worksheetIndex++) { var worksheet = (WorksheetClass)worksheets[worksheetIndex]; worksheet.Delete(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheet); } workbook.SaveAs( WorkbookPath, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, XlSaveAsAccessMode.xlExclusive, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing, _missing); workbook.Close(true, _missing, _missing); application.Quit(); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(worksheets); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(workbook); Marshal.ReleaseComObject(application); } What prompted me to ask this question is that, being the LINQ devotee I am, I really want to do something like this: var worksheetNames = worksheets.Cast<Worksheet>().Select(ws => ws.Name); ...but I'm concerned I'll end up with memory leaks or ghost processes if I don't release each worksheet (ws) object. Any insight on this would be appreciated.

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • Creating LINQ to SQL Data Models' Data Contexts with ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm just getting started with ASP.NET MVC, mostly by reading ScottGu's tutorial. To create my database connections, I followed the steps he outlined, which were to create a LINQ-to-SQL dbml model, add in the database tables through the Server Explorer, and finally to create a DataContext class. That last part is the part I'm stuck on. In this class, I'm trying to create methods that work around the exposed data. Following the example in the tutorial, I created this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MySite.Models { public partial class MyDataContext { public List<Post> GetPosts() { return Posts.ToList(); } public Post GetPostById(int id) { return Posts.Single(p => p.ID == id); } } } As you can see, I'm trying to use my Post data table. However, it doesn't recognize the "Posts" part of my code. What am I doing wrong? I have a feeling that my problem is related to my not adding the data tables correctly, but I'm not sure. Thanks in advance.

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  • IE problem: keyboard interaction with checkbox

    - by Bobby Eickhoff
    I have an HTML table, and each row has a checkbox for selecting or deselecting its row. Whenever a checkbox changes value, I need to add or remove highlighting to the row and also ensure that the page's submit button is only enabled when at least one row is selected and disabled otherwise. The checkbox event handler is defined by the following function: function getCheckboxCallback() { return function () { var parentRow = getParentRow(this); if (!parentRow) { return; // No parent row found; abort } // Adjust the appearance of the row setSelected(parentRow, this.checked); // Count the number of selected table rows, and disable the submit // button whenever no rows are selected enforceInvariants(); return true; }; } Elsewhere in the same module, the checkboxes are given the event handlers: checkbox.onchange = getCheckboxCallback(); checkbox.onclick = getCheckboxCallback(); // alleged IE fix I'm working in Windows XP, and everything works fine in both Firefox 3 and Opera 9. However, IE 7 does not handle keyboard interaction well (mouse interaction works fine). The problem is that if a checkbox has the focus and I hit the spacebar, the checkbox doesn't get checked -- instead it gets half checked (it has the same shadowed appearance that it would get immediately after a mousedown). I have to press the spacebar a second time to actually check the box. Similarly, it requires two key presses to uncheck it. Oddly enough, if I hold down the spacebar for a few moments, then a single press works as expected. Can anyone explain what is going on here? Is there something I'm doing wrong in the JavaScript code that is causing this behavior? How can I fix this?

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  • Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

    - by Pete Lunenfeld
    I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

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  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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  • Java Arrays.equals() returns false for two dimensional arrays.

    - by Achilles
    Hi there, I was just curious to know - why does Arrays.equals(double[][], double[][]) return false? when in fact the arrays have the same number of elements and each element is the same? For example I performed the following test. ` [java] double[][] a, b; int size =5; a=new double[size][size]; b=new double[size][size]; for( int i = 0; i < size; i++ ) for( int j = 0; j < size; j++ ){ a[i][j]=1.0; b[i][j]=1.0; } if(Arrays.equals(a, b)) System.out.println("Equal"); else System.out.println("Not-equal"); [/java] ` Returns false and prints "Not-equal. on the other hand, if I have something like this: [java] double[] a, b; int size =5; a=new double[size]; b=new double[size]; for( int i = 0; i < size; i++ ){ a[i]=1.0; b[i]=1.0; } if(Arrays.equals(a, b)) System.out.println("Equal"); else System.out.println("Not-equal"); } [/java] returns true and prints "Equal". Does the method only work with single dimensions? if so, is there something similar for multi-dimensional arrays in Java?

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  • why i dont get the check nvalue in check box?

    - by udaya
    Hi I have a check box when check that check box the id corresponding to the check box is placed on a text box ... but when there is only single value in the database i cant get the check value why? here is my code <? if(isset($AcceptFriend)) {?> <form action="<?=site_url()?>friends/Accept_Friend" name="orderform" id="orderform" method="post" style="background:#CCCC99"> <input type="text" name="chId" id="chId" > <table border="0" height="50%" id="chkbox" width="50%" > <tr> <? foreach($AcceptFriend as $row) {?> <tr> <td>Name</td><td><?=$row['dFrindName'].'</br>';?></td> <td> <input type="checkbox" name="checkId" id="checkId" value="<? echo $row['dMemberId']; ?>" onClick="get_check_value()" ></td> </tr> <? }}?> </tr> <tr> <td width="10px"><input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" class="buttn" value="AcceptFriend"></td></tr> </table> </form> This is the script i am using function get_check_value() { var c_value = ""; for (var i=0; i < document.orderform.checkId.length; i++) { if (document.orderform.checkId[i].checked) { c_value = c_value + document.orderform.checkId[i].value + "\n"; } } alert(c_value); document.getElementById('chId').value= c_value; }

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  • Java JSP/Servlet: controller servlet throwing the famous stack overflow

    - by NoozNooz42
    I've read several docs and I don't get it: I know I'm doing something wrong but I don't understand what. I've got a website that is entirely dynamically generated: there's hardly any static content at all. So, trying to understand JSP/Servlet, I've written my own "front controller" intercepting every single query, it looks like this: <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>defaultservlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Basically I want any user request, like: example.org example.org/bar example.org/foo.html to all go through a default servlet which I've written. The servlet then examines the URI and find to which .jsp the request must be dispatched, and then does, after having set all the attributes correctly, a: RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); When I'm using a url-pattern (in web.xml) like, say, *.html, everything works fine. But when I change it to /* (to really intercept everything), I enter an endless loop and it ends up with a... StackOverflow :) When the request is dispatched, is the URI ".../WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp" itself matched by the web.xml filter /* that I set? How should I do if I want to intercept everything using a /* url-pattern and yet be able to dispatch/forward/? I'm not asking about specs/Javadocs here: I'm really confused about the bigger picture and I'd need some explanation as to what could be going on. Am I not supposed to intercept really everything? If I can intercept everything, what should I be aware of regarding forwarding/dispatching?

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  • How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

    - by Frank Sessions
    We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

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  • Help converting PHP eregi to preg_match

    - by Jason
    Hi all, I am wondering if someone could please help me convert a piece of PHP code that is now deprecated. Here is the single line I am trying to convert: if(eregi(trim ($request_url_handler[$x]),$this->sys_request_url) && $this->id_found == 0){ It is part of a function that return the configuration settings for a website. Below is the whole function. // GET CORRECT CONFIG FROM DATABASE function get_config($db) { global $tbl_prefix; $db->query("SELECT cid,urls FROM ".$tbl_prefix."sys_config ORDER BY cid"); while($db->next_record()){ $request_url_handler = explode("\n",$db->f("urls")); if(empty($request_url_handler[0])) { $request_url_handler[0] = "@"; $this->id_found = 2; } for($x=0; $x<count($request_url_handler); $x++) { if(empty($request_url_handler[$x])) { $request_url_handler[$x] = "@"; } if(eregi(trim($request_url_handler[$x]),$this->sys_request_url) && $this->id_found == 0) { $this->set_config($db,$db->f("cid")); $this->id_found = 1; } } if($this->id_found == 1) { return($this->sys_config_vars); } } $this->set_config($db,""); return($this->sys_config_vars); } Any help would be great ly appreciated. I only found the the eregi function was deprecated since I updated XAMPP to 1.7.3.

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  • Why is curl in Ruby slower than command-line curl?

    - by Stiivi
    I am trying to download more than 1m pages (URLs ending by a sequence ID). I have implemented kind of multi-purpose download manager with configurable number of download threads and one processing thread. The downloader downloads files in batches: curl = Curl::Easy.new batch_urls.each { |url_info| curl.url = url_info[:url] curl.perform file = File.new(url_info[:file], "wb") file << curl.body_str file.close # ... some other stuff } I have tried to download 8000 pages sample. When using the code above, I get 1000 in 2 minutes. When I write all URLs into a file and do in shell: cat list | xargs curl I gen all 8000 pages in two minutes. Thing is, I need it to have it in ruby code, because there is other monitoring and processing code. I have tried: Curl::Multi - it is somehow faster, but misses 50-90% of files (does not download them and gives no reason/code) multiple threads with Curl::Easy - around the same speed as single threaded Why is reused Curl::Easy slower than subsequent command line curl calls and how can I make it faster? Or what I am doing wrong? I would prefer to fix my download manager code than to make downloading for this case in a different way. Before this, I was calling command-line wget which I provided with a file with list of URLs. Howerver, not all errors were handled, also it was not possible to specify output file for each URL separately when using URL list. Now it seems to me that the best way would be to use multiple threads with system call to 'curl' command. But why when I can use directly Curl in Ruby? Code for the download manager is here, if it might help: Download Manager (I have played with timeouts, from not-setting it to various values, it did not seem help) Any hints appreciated.

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  • Help needed in grokking password hashes and salts

    - by javafueled
    I've read a number of SO questions on this topic, but grokking the applied practice of storing a salted hash of a password eludes me. Let's start with some ground rules: a password, "foobar12" (we are not discussing the strength of the password). a language, Java 1.6 for this discussion a database, postgreSQL, MySQL, SQL Server, Oracle Several options are available to storing the password, but I want to think about one (1): Store the password hashed with random salt in the DB, one column Found on SO and elsewhere is the automatic fail of plaintext, MD5/SHA1, and dual-columns. The latter have pros and cons MD5/SHA1 is simple. MessageDigest in Java provides MD5, SHA1 (through SHA512 in modern implementations, certainly 1.6). Additionally, most RDBMSs listed provide methods for MD5 encryption functions on inserts, updates, etc. The problems become evident once one groks "rainbow tables" and MD5 collisions (and I've grokked these concepts). Dual-column solutions rest on the idea that the salt does not need to be secret (grok it). However, a second column introduces a complexity that might not be a luxury if you have a legacy system with one (1) column for the password and the cost of updating the table and the code could be too high. But it is storing the password hashed with a random salt in single DB column that I need to understand better, with practical application. I like this solution for a couple of reasons: a salt is expected and considers legacy boundaries. Here's where I get lost: if the salt is random and hashed with the password, how can the system ever match the password? I have theory on this, and as I type I might be grokking the concept: Given a random salt of 128 bytes and a password of 8 bytes ('foobar12'), it could be programmatically possible to remove the part of the hash that was the salt, by hashing a random 128 byte salt and getting the substring of the original hash that is the hashed password. Then re hashing to match using the hash algorithm...??? So... any takers on helping. :) Am I close?

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  • Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

    - by prodigitalson
    Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

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  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • Flexible CMS for non-programmers

    - by Bunkerbewohner
    Hello! I'm looking for a content management system that allows creating single pages out of predefined blocks flexibly. For example I have a "product" block that is used to show producs on a page and it may appear numerous times on one page with different contents. But I also might wanna use it on different pages. Also I have simply generic blocks like multiple column text blocks (1 col, 2 col etc.) where I just want to insert this kind of structure into the page and enter any text. So I'm looking for a cms with someething like a building block / module concept for contents. I'm already searching the web but there are so many CMSs that I can't look into every one. So if anyone knows a solution that might be right for me, please tell me! Technology-wise it just has to run on Linux. If it's OpenSource / free that's great, but I might also pay for it, if it offers the features I want. Thanks for any hints in advance!

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  • Linq-to-SQL: How to shape the data with group by?

    - by Cheeso
    I have an example database, it contains tables for Movies, People and Credits. The Movie table contains a Title and an Id. The People table contains a Name and an Id. The Credits table relates Movies to the People that worked on those Movies, in a particular role. The table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Credits] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [PersonId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES People(Id), [MovieId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Movies(Id), [Role] [char] (1) NULL In this simple example, the [Role] column is a single character, by my convention either 'A' to indicate the person was an actor on that particular movie, or 'D' for director. I'd like to perform a query on a particular person that returns the person's name, plus a list of all the movies the person has worked on, and the roles in those movies. If I were to serialize it to json, it might look like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "roles": ["actor", "director"] }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "roles": ["director"] }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "roles": ["actor"] }, ... ] } How can I write a LINQ-to-SQL query that shapes the output like that? I'm having trouble doing it efficiently. if I use this query: int personId = 10007; var persons = from p in db.People where p.Id == personId select new { name = p.Name, movies = (from m in db.Movies join c in db.Credits on m.Id equals c.MovieId where (c.PersonId == personId) select new { title = m.Title, role = (c.Role=="D"?"director":"actor") }) }; I get something like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "actor" }, { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "role": "actor" }, ... ] } ...but as you can see there's a duplicate of each movie for which Eastwood played multiple roles. How can I shape the output the way I want?

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  • Generate a set of strings with maximum edit distance

    - by Kevin Jacobs
    Problem 1: I'd like to generate a set of n strings of fixed length m from alphabet s such that the minimum Levenshtein distance (edit distance) between any two strings is greater than some constant c. Obviously, I can use randomization methods (e.g., a genetic algorithm), but was hoping that this may be a well-studied problem in computer science or mathematics with some informative literature and an efficient algorithm or three. Problem 2: Same as above except that adjacent characters cannot repeat; the i'th character in each string may not be equal to the i+1'th character. E.g., 'CAT', 'AGA' and 'TAG' are allowed, 'GAA', 'AAT', and 'AAA' are not. Background: The basis for this problem is bioinformatic and involves designing unique DNA tags that can be attached to biologically derived DNA fragments and then sequenced using a fancy second generation sequencer. The goal is to be able to recognize each tag, allowing for random insertion, deletion, and substitution errors. The specific DNA sequencing technology has a relatively low error rate per base (~1%), but is less precise when a single base is repeated 2 or more times (motivating the additional constraints imposed in problem 2).

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  • How to move/drag multiple images with CALayer???

    - by gbf.sara
    I have more than 10 images in screen and i want to move each image using CALayer concept. While am trying to move first image,its working. Even when i drag my second image also, its working. But after that when i get back to first image and when i try to move , am struck up. its not working. I dono where it went wrong. Here's ma code //Assigning Layer to UIImage// layer = [CALayer layer]; UIImage *image1 = [UIImage imageNamed:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@_thumb.png",[tiv imageName]]]; layer.contents = (id)image1.CGImage; layer.position=CGPointMake(200,200); layer.frame = CGRectMake(110, 180, 100, 100); [self.view.layer addSublayer:layer]; [layer needsDisplay]; [self.view.layer needsDisplay]; [layer needsLayout]; //Here i try to move my image// - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; NSArray *allTouches = [touches allObjects]; int count = [allTouches count]; if (count == 1) { if (CGRectContainsPoint([layer frame], [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view])) { layer.position = [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view]; return; } } if (count > 1) { if (CGRectContainsPoint([layer frame], [[allTouches objectAtIndex:-1] locationInView:self.view])) { layer.position = [[allTouches objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view]; return; } } } Also ive planned to use single CALayer for multiple images.. When i click an image, it should be placed in that CALayer and when i click another, the same CALayer should take the latter one. So tat whenever i drag an image it should move(no matter how many images r there) . Do u think this concept will work out or is there any other idea??? My concept may seems to be a basic one. Am new to this environment n so kindly help me..

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  • Email Tracking - GMail

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am creating my own email tracking system for email marketing tracking. I have been able to determine each persons email client they are using by using the http referrer but for some reason GMAIL does not send a HTTP_REFERRER at all! So I am trying to find another way of identifying when gmail requests a transparent image from my server. I get the following headers print_r($_SERVER);: DOCUMENT_ROOT = /usr/local/apache/htdocs GATEWAY_INTERFACE = CGI/1.1 HTTP_ACCEPT = */* HTTP_ACCEPT_CHARSET = ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3 HTTP_ACCEPT_ENCODING = gzip,deflate,sdch HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE = en-GB,en-US;q=0.8,en;q=0.6 HTTP_CONNECTION = keep-alive HTTP_COOKIE = __utmz=156230011.1290976484.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); __utma=156230011.422791272.1290976484.1293034866.1293050468.7 HTTP_HOST = xx.xxx.xx.xxx HTTP_USER_AGENT = Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/534.10 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/8.0.552.237 Safari/534.10 PATH = /bin:/usr/bin QUERY_STRING = i=MTA= REDIRECT_STATUS = 200 REMOTE_ADDR = xx.xxx.xx.xxx REMOTE_PORT = 61296 REQUEST_METHOD = GET Is there anything of use in that list? Or is there something else I can do to actually get the http referrer, if not how are other ESPs managing to find whether gmail was used to view an email? Btw, I appreciate it if we can hold back on whether this is ethical or not as many ESPs do this already, I just don't want to pay for their service and I want to do it internally. Thanks all for any implementation advice. Update Just thought I would update this question and make it clearer in light of the bounty. I would like to find out when a user opens my email when sent to a GMail inbox. Assume, I have the usual transparent image tracking and the user does not block images. I would like to do this with the single request and the header details I get when the transparent image is requested.

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  • Add new SVN "repo" in poorly constructed repo/project setup

    - by Dave Masselink
    Unfortunately, the answer to this question isn't quite as simple as it sounds... but I hope it can still be relatively simple. Please read all the way through before telling me that the answer is: "svnadmin create... duh" I'm working for a company that set up their SVN server in an odd way (at least in terms of what I'm used to). We've all been there, right? Rather than giving each project a separate repository... they have a folder on the server called "/var/www/svn/repos/" which is the actual SVN repo (has conf/, db/, README.txt, etc. in it). Then they distinguish their projects by adding top level folders into the ONE repository (ex: Project1, Project2, etc.) I don't like this setup and might one day get around to converting the setup to what I'm used to, where each project is its own repository (with separate logs, dbs, etc.) But my question is this: What is the best way to add a new empty project to the current setup? Is there anyway to add a new top level folder/project to the repo through use of svnadmin? It can/should just be an empty folder that I'll start building a new project in. I know that I could do this by checking out the whole singular repository and then adding a new top level folder into my local checkout, then re-committing. But I'd really prefer not to do this because someone has created folders/projects that are just GBs of log data... and I don't want to wait through the download of this just to add a single empty folder. Let me know if there is any more info you'd need to know. I do have root/sudo access on the server in question. Thanks in advance for your help! Dave

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  • Correctly encode characters in a PHP mail form ("I'm" turns to be "I\'m")

    - by Peanuts
    Hello guys, I'm testing a PHP mail form, a very barebones one, found here: <?php if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { //The form has been submitted, prep a nice thank you message $output = '<h3>Thanks for your message</h3>'; //Deal with the email $to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'you have a mail'; $contactname = strip_tags($_POST['contactname']); $adress = strip_tags($_POST['adress']); $contactemail = strip_tags($_POST['contactemail']); $textmessage = strip_tags($_POST['textmessage']); $boundary =md5(date('r', time())); $headers = "From: My Site\r\nReply-To: [email protected]"; $message = "Name: ".$contactname."\n"; $message .= "Adress: ".$adress."\n"; $message .= "E-mail: ".$contactemail."\n"; $message .= "Message: ".$textmessage."\n"; mail($to, $subject, $message, $headers); } ?> The problem is I'm receiving an unwanted slash "\" everytime I write a single or a double quote in my message, so "I'm" appear as "I\'m" in my mailbox. I know it have to do with the way PHP distinguishes code quotes from only lecture quotes, but I wouldn't know what to add in my form to get it properly running. Any help is appreciated,

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