Search Results

Search found 21028 results on 842 pages for 'single player'.

Page 706/842 | < Previous Page | 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712 713  | Next Page >

  • Serializing a part of object graph

    - by Felix
    Hi all, I have a problem regarding Java custom serialization. I have a graph of objects and want to configure where to stop when I serialize a root object from client to server. Let's make it a bit concrete, clear by giving a sample scenario. I have Classes of type Company Employee (abstract) Manager extends Employee Secretary extends Employee Analyst extends Employee Project Here are the relations: Company(1)---(n)Employee Manager(1)---(n)Project Analyst(1)---(n)Project Imagine, I'm on the client side and I want to create a new company, assign it 10 employees (new or some existing) and send this new company to the server. What I expect in this scenario is to serialize the company and all bounding employees to the server side, because I'll save the relations on the database. So far no problem, since the default Java serialization mechanism serializes the whole object graph, excluding the field which are static or transient. My goal is about the following scenario. Imagine, I loaded a company and its 1000 employees from the server to the client side. Now I only want to rename the company's name (or some other field, that directly belongs to the company) and update this record. This time, I want to send only the company object to the server side and not the whole list of employees (I just update the name, the employees are in this use case irrelevant). My aim also includes the configurability of saying, transfer the company AND the employees but not the Project-Relations, you must stop there. Do you know any possibility of achieving this in a generic way, without implementing the writeObject, readObject for every single Entity-Object? What would be your suggestions? I would really appreciate your answers. I'm open to any ideas and am ready to answer your questions in case something is not clear.

    Read the article

  • Self-describing file format for gigapixel images?

    - by Adam Goode
    In medical imaging, there appears to be two ways of storing huge gigapixel images: Use lots of JPEG images (either packed into files or individually) and cook up some bizarre index format to describe what goes where. Tack on some metadata in some other format. Use TIFF's tile and multi-image support to cleanly store the images as a single file, and provide downsampled versions for zooming speed. Then abuse various TIFF tags to store metadata in non-standard ways. Also, store tiles with overlapping boundaries that must be individually translated later. In both cases, the reader must understand the format well enough to understand how to draw things and read the metadata. Is there a better way to store these images? Is TIFF (or BigTIFF) still the right format for this? Does XMP solve the problem of metadata? The main issues are: Storing images in a way that allows for rapid random access (tiling) Storing downsampled images for rapid zooming (pyramid) Handling cases where tiles are overlapping or sparse (scanners often work by moving a camera over a slide in 2D and capturing only where there is something to image) Storing important metadata, including associated images like a slide's label and thumbnail Support for lossy storage What kind of (hopefully non-proprietary) formats do people use to store large aerial photographs or maps? These images have similar properties.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to optimize this mysql query...?

    - by SpikETidE
    Hi Everyone... Say, I got these two tables.... Table 1 : Hotels hotel_id hotel_name 1 abc 2 xyz 3 efg Table 2 : Payments payment_id payment_date hotel_id total_amt comission p1 23-03-2010 1 100 10 p2 23-03-2010 2 50 5 p3 23-03-2010 2 200 25 p4 23-03-2010 1 40 2 Now, I need to get the following details from the two tables Given a particular date (say, 23-03-2010), the sum of the total_amt for each of the hotel for which a payment has been made on that particular date. All the rows that has the date 23-03-2010 ordered according to the hotel name A sample output is as follows... +------------+------------+------------+---------------+ | hotel_name | date | total_amt | commission | +------------+------------+------------+---------------+ | * abc | 23-03-2010 | 140 | 12 | +------------+------------+------------+---------------+ |+-----------+------------+------------+--------------+| || paymt_id | date | total_amt | commission || |+-----------+------------+------------+--------------+| || p1 | 23-03-2010 | 100 | 10 || |+-----------+------------+------------+--------------+| || p4 | 23-03-2010 | 40 | 2 || |+-----------+------------+------------+--------------+| +------------+------------+------------+---------------+ | * xyz | 23-03-2010 | 250 | 30 | +------------+------------+------------+---------------+ |+-----------+------------+------------+--------------+| || paymt_id | date | total_amt | commission || |+-----------+------------+------------+--------------+| || p2 | 23-03-2010 | 50 | 5 || |+-----------+------------+------------+--------------+| || p3 | 23-03-2010 | 200 | 25 || |+-----------+------------+------------+--------------+| +------------------------------------------------------+ Above the sample of the table that has to be printed... The idea is first to show the consolidated detail of each hotel, and when the '*' next to the hotel name is clicked the breakdown of the payment details will become visible... But that can be done by some jquery..!!! The table itself can be generated with php... Right now i am using two separate queries : One to get the sum of the amount and commission grouped by the hotel name. The next is to get the individual row for each entry having that date in the table. This is, of course, because grouping the records for calculating sum() returns only one row for each of the hotel with the sum of the amounts... Is there a way to combine these two queries into a single one and do the operation in a more optimized way...?? Hope i am being clear.. Thanks for your time and replies...

    Read the article

  • Can I copy an entire Magento application to a new server?

    - by Gapton
    I am quite new to Magento and I have a case where a client has a running ecommerce website built with Magento and is running on Amazon AWS EC2 server. If I can locate the web root (/var/www/) and download everything from it (say via FTP), I should be able to boot up my virtual machine with LAMP installed, put every single files in there and it should run, right? So I did just that, and Magento is giving me an error. I am guessing there are configs somewhere that needs to be changed in order to make it work, or even a lot of paths need to be changed etc. Also databases to be replicated. What are the typical things I should get right? Database is one, and the EC2 instance uses nginx while I use plain Apache, I guess that won't work straight out of the box, and I probably will have to install nginx and a lot of other stuffs. But basically, if I setup the environment right, it should run. Is my assumption correct? Thanks for answering!

    Read the article

  • Basic syntax for an animation loop?

    - by Moshe
    I know that jQuery, for example, can do animation of sorts. I also know that at the very core of the animation, there must me some sort of loop doing the animation. What is an example of such a loop? A complete answer should ideally answer the following questions: What is a basic syntax for an effective animation recursion that can animate a single property of a particular object at a time? The function should be able to vary its target object and property of the object. What arguments/parameters should it take? What is a good range of reiterating the loop? In milliseconds? (Should this be a parameter/argument to the function?) REMEMBER: The answer is NOT necessarily language specific, but if you are writing in a specific language, please specify which one. Error handling is a plus. {Nothing is more irritating (for our purposes) than an animation that does something strange, like stopping halfway through.} Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Flexible CMS for non-programmers

    - by Bunkerbewohner
    Hello! I'm looking for a content management system that allows creating single pages out of predefined blocks flexibly. For example I have a "product" block that is used to show producs on a page and it may appear numerous times on one page with different contents. But I also might wanna use it on different pages. Also I have simply generic blocks like multiple column text blocks (1 col, 2 col etc.) where I just want to insert this kind of structure into the page and enter any text. So I'm looking for a cms with someething like a building block / module concept for contents. I'm already searching the web but there are so many CMSs that I can't look into every one. So if anyone knows a solution that might be right for me, please tell me! Technology-wise it just has to run on Linux. If it's OpenSource / free that's great, but I might also pay for it, if it offers the features I want. Thanks for any hints in advance!

    Read the article

  • Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

    - by prodigitalson
    Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

    Read the article

  • How do I fix this installation problem with multicore Solr on Ubuntu 10.04?

    - by coleifer
    Following instructions from the two sites below, I've installed Tomcat 6 and Solr 1.4. http://gist.github.com/204638 https://wiki.fourkitchens.com/display/TECH/Solr+1.4+on+Ubuntu+9.10+and+CentOS+5 I have successfully got it up and running on a server running 9.04 with multicore support, but on the 10.04 I can't seem to get it to work. I am able to reach localhost:xxxx/solr/ on the 10.04 box and see a single link to the Solr Admin, but following the link takes me to a 404 page with the following output: /solr/admin/ HTTP Status 404 - missing core name in path The requested resource (missing core name in path) is not available I am also unable to access /solr/site1/ as I would except - it similarly returns a 404. <!-- from /var/solr/solr.xml, site dirs exist --> <cores adminPath="/admin/cores"> <core name="site1" instanceDir="site1" /> <core name="site2" instanceDir="site2" /> </cores> <!-- from /etc/tomcat6/Catalina/localhost/solr.xml --> <Context docBase="/var/solr/solr.war" debug="0" privileged="true" allowLinking="true" crossContext="true"> <Environment name="solr/home" type="java.lang.String" value="/var/solr" override="true" /> </Context>

    Read the article

  • Filter of Data in Gridview logical error please using asp.net

    - by RajuBabli Abbasi
    I wanted to filter the Data in asp.net but my Data is not filtering i have some logical error So please help me for this case i will be very thanks full to those who will help me please consider my code and replay me with code if you can so please i am waiting for your replay thanks again my asp.cs file is protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { DisplayStudentInformation(); } } private void DisplayStudentInformation() { string filter = "%" + filterTextBox.Text + "%"; if (filter == String.Empty) filter = "%"; try { using (SqlDataReader reader = DAC.GetCompanyInformation(filter)) {//reader.Read(); StudentGridView.DataSource = reader; StudentGridView.DataBind(); } } catch (SqlException ex) { StatusLabel.Text = ex.Message; } } my .aspx file is asp:Table ID="Tabel" runat ="server" asp:TableRow asp:TableCell asp:Label ID="filterLabel" runat ="server" Text ="Company Name Filter:" AssociatedControlID="filterTextBox" /asp:TableCell asp:TableCell asp:TextBox ID="filterTextBox" runat="server" MaxLength ="50" /asp:TableCell asp:TableCell asp:Button ID="refreshButton" runat ="server" Text ="Filter" CausesValidation="false" / /asp:TableCell /asp:TableRow /asp:Table My DAC file is public static SqlDataReader GetCompanyInformation(string filter) { SqlDataReader reader; string sql = "SELECT * FROM Student WHERE LastName LIKE @prmLastName "; using(SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand (sql,ConnectionManager.GetConnection())) {//In ExecuteReader we pass the CommandBehavior as singleResult because we need the Single result and also passing the close connection when Datais retriev // command.Parameters.Add("@prmLastName", SqlDbType.VarChar, 25).Value = filter; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@prmLastName", filter); reader = command.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.SingleResult | CommandBehavior.CloseConnection); } return reader; } Note:- When i don't use the If(!Ispostback) Condition and simply pass the DisplayStudentInformation(); method in my page load then Data can be filter but with If(!IspostBack ) condition which is also important for updating the data and for other purpose . Data can be filter . Se aim of the expert is that Filter the Data in a gridview using condition of IF(!IspostBack ) means without the removing is post back condition Filter the Data . I have been ask other about this question but no body solve this so please help me i will be very thanks full to you all ok

    Read the article

  • Start-job to call script from main

    - by Naveen
    I have three script , from main - 1-script , I am calling other two scripts. so that I can execute both scripts parallely because it's taking too much time in sequential order. Only variables are different in the script. How can I merge script 2 & 3 in a single script so that I can call from the main script and it will run as parallel. 1 CompareCtrlM... Completed False localhost ######################... 3 CompareCtrlM... Completed True localhost ######################... Main -1 Script Start-Job -Name "LoopComparectrlMasterModel" -filepath D:\tmp\naveen\Script\CompareCtrlMasterCtrlModel.ps1 Start-Job -Name "LoopCompareProdMasterModel" -filepath D:\idv\CA\rcm_data\tmp\work\CompareCtrlMasterProdModel.ps1 Wait-Job -Name "LoopComparectrlMasterModel" Receive-Job "LoopComparectrlMasterModel" Wait-Job -Name "LoopCompareProdMasterModel" Receive-Job "LoopCompareProdMasterModel" =============================================== Script 2- for ($i = 1 ; $i -lt 3; $i++){ $jobName = 'CompareCtrlMasterProdModelESS$i' echolog $THISSCRIPT $RCM_UPDATE_LOG_FILE $LLINFO ("Starting Ctrl Master-Prod Model comparison #" + $i + ", create SBT") $rc = CreateSbtFile $sbtCompareCtrlMasterProdModel[$i-1] $cfgProdModel $cfgCtrlMaster "" "" $SBT_MODE_COMPARE_CFGS_FULL $workDir Start-Job -Name "$jobName" -filepath $ExecuteSbtWithRcmClientTool -ArgumentList $sbtCompareCtrlMasterProdModel[$i-1],"",$true,$false | Out-Null Wait-Job -Name "$jobName" $results = Receive-Job -Name $jobName } ========================================================================== Script 3- for ($i = 1 ; $i -lt 3; $i++){ $jobName = 'CompareCtrlMasterCtrlModelESS$i' echolog $THISSCRIPT $RCM_UPDATE_LOG_FILE $LLINFO ("Starting Ctrl Master-Ctrl Model comparison #" + $i + ", create SBT") $rc = CreateSbtFile $sbtCompareCtrlMasterCtrlModel[$i-1] $cfgCtrlModel $cfgCtrlMaster "" "" $SBT_MODE_COMPARE_CFGS_FULL $workDir Start-Job -Name "$jobName" -filepath $ExecuteSbtWithRcmClientTool -ArgumentList $sbtCompareCtrlMasterCtrlModel[$i-1],"",$true,$false | Out-Null Wait-Job -Name "$jobName" $results = Receive-Job -Name $jobName } write-output $results Thanks a lot for help Regards Naven

    Read the article

  • Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

    - by zoul
    Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

    Read the article

  • JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

    - by purecharger
    And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

    Read the article

  • In languages which create a new scope each time in a loop block, a new local copy of the local loop

    - by Jian Lin
    It seems that in language like C, Java, and Ruby (as opposed to Javascript), a new scope is created for each iteration of a loop block, and the local variable defined for the loop is actually made into a local variable every single time and recorded in this new scope? For example, in Ruby: p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end the print out is: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope.rb "1.8.6" 1 2 3 4 5 [MacBook01:~] $ So, it looks like when a new scope is created, a new local copy of i is also created and recorded in this new scope, so that when the function is executed at a later time, the "i" is found in those scope chains as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 respectively. Is this true? (It sounds like a heavy operation). Contrast that with p RUBY_VERSION $foo = [] i = 0 (1..5).each do |i| $foo[i] = lambda { p i } end (1..5).each do |j| $foo[j].call() end This time, the i is defined before entering the loop, so Ruby 1.8.6 will not put this i in the new scope created for the loop block, and therefore when the i is looked up in the scope chain, it always refer to the i that was in the outside scope, and give 5 every time: [MacBook01:~] $ ruby scope2.rb "1.8.6" 5 5 5 5 5 [MacBook01:~] $ I heard that in Ruby 1.9, i will be treated as a local defined for the loop even when there is an i defined earlier? The operation of creating a new scope, creating a new local copy of i each time through the loop seems heavy, as it seems it wouldn't have matter if we are not invoking the functions at a later time. So when the functions don't need to be invoked at a later time, could the interpreter and the compiler to C / Java try to optimize it so that there is not local copy of i each time?

    Read the article

  • Help converting PHP eregi to preg_match

    - by Jason
    Hi all, I am wondering if someone could please help me convert a piece of PHP code that is now deprecated. Here is the single line I am trying to convert: if(eregi(trim ($request_url_handler[$x]),$this->sys_request_url) && $this->id_found == 0){ It is part of a function that return the configuration settings for a website. Below is the whole function. // GET CORRECT CONFIG FROM DATABASE function get_config($db) { global $tbl_prefix; $db->query("SELECT cid,urls FROM ".$tbl_prefix."sys_config ORDER BY cid"); while($db->next_record()){ $request_url_handler = explode("\n",$db->f("urls")); if(empty($request_url_handler[0])) { $request_url_handler[0] = "@"; $this->id_found = 2; } for($x=0; $x<count($request_url_handler); $x++) { if(empty($request_url_handler[$x])) { $request_url_handler[$x] = "@"; } if(eregi(trim($request_url_handler[$x]),$this->sys_request_url) && $this->id_found == 0) { $this->set_config($db,$db->f("cid")); $this->id_found = 1; } } if($this->id_found == 1) { return($this->sys_config_vars); } } $this->set_config($db,""); return($this->sys_config_vars); } Any help would be great ly appreciated. I only found the the eregi function was deprecated since I updated XAMPP to 1.7.3.

    Read the article

  • C# How to commit a TextBox?

    - by Jake
    Hi, In a form, I have a TextBox Binding an Object on its member property "Title". Along with it is a "Save" button to test the binding. Seems like the underlying object property does not get updated unless the textbox loses focus. But there no form.ActiveControl.Blur() for use. Besides, this does not seem like a sound hack. Anyway to do this better? Thanks. EDIT: Sorry for not being clear. My question is in the title: "How to commit a TextBox". I use the term "commit" from the DataGridView commit and BindingSource commit. And it's in WinForms. (Have never worked with WPF, so it didn't occur to me. Sorry). The actual scenario I have is I have a bunch of TextBox binded to property of a single Object. The user enters values in all the TextBox and when the user clicks save (toolbar button), the last TextBox is still in focus (or in editing mode) hence the save will not capture the last value in the last textbox. I want to find the correct way to "commit" the textbox value just before saving. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Design Practice Retrieve Multiple Users - PHP

    - by pws5068
    Greetings all, I'm looking for a more efficient way to grab multiple users without too much code redundancy. I have a Users class, (here's a highly condensed representation) Class Users { function __construct() { ... ... } private static function getNew($id) { // This is all only example code $sql = "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE User_ID=?"; $user = new User(); $user->setID($id); .... return $user; } public static function getNewestUsers($count) { $sql = "SELECT * FROM Users ORDER BY Join_Date LIMIT ?"; $users = array(); // Prepared Statement Data Here while($stmt->fetch()) { $users[] = Users::getNew($id); ... } return $users; } // These have more sanity/security checks, demonstration only. function setID($id) { $this->id = $id; } function setName($name) { $this->name = $name; } ... } So clearly calling getNew() in a loop is inefficient, because it makes $count number of calls to the database each time. I would much rather select all users in a single SQL statement. The problem is that I have probably a dozen or so methods for getting arrays of users, so all of these would now need to know the names of the database columns which is repeating a lot of structure that could always change later. What are some other ways that I could approach this problem? My goals include efficiency, flexibility, scalability, and good design practice.

    Read the article

  • Flash "visible" issue

    - by justkevin
    I'm writing a tool in Flex that lets me design composite sprites using layered bitmaps and then "bake" them into a low overhead single bitmapData. I've discovered a strange behavior I can't explain: toggling the "visible" property of my layers works twice for each layer (i.e., I can turn it off, then on again) and then never again for that layer-- the layer stays visible from that point on. If I override "set visible" on the layer as such: override public function set visible(value:Boolean):void { if(value == false) this.alpha = 0; else {this.alpha = 1;} } The problem goes away and I can toggle "visibility" as much as I want. Any ideas what might be causing this? Edit: Here is the code that makes the call: private function onVisibleChange():void { _layer.visible = layerVisible.selected; changed(); } The changed() method "bakes" the bitmap: public function getBaked():BitmapData { var w:int = _composite.width + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var h:int = _composite.height + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var bmpData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h,true,0x00000000); var matrix:Matrix = new Matrix(); var bounds:Rectangle = this.getBounds(this); matrix.translate(w/2,h/2); bmpData.draw(this,matrix,null,null,new Rectangle(0,0,w,h),true); return bmpData; } Incidentally, while the layer is still visible, using the Flex debugger I can verify that the layer's visible value is "false".

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to auto-generate INSERT statements for a SQL Server table?

    - by JosephStyons
    We are writing a new application, and while testing, we will need a bunch of dummy data. I've added that data by using MS Access to dump excel files into the relevant tables. Every so often, we want to "refresh" the relevant tables, which means dropping them all, re-creating them, and running a saved MS Access append query. The first part (dropping & re-creating) is an easy sql script, but the last part makes me cringe. I want a single setup script that has a bunch of INSERTs to regenerate the dummy data. I have the data in the tables now. What is the best way to automatically generate a big list of INSERT statements from that dataset? I'm thinking of something like in TOAD (for Oracle) where you can right-click on a grid and click Save As-Insert Statements, and it will just dump a big sql script wherever you want. The only way I can think of doing it is to save the table to an excel sheet and then write an excel formula to create an INSERT for every row, which is surely not the best way. I'm using the 2008 Management Studio to connect to a SQL Server 2005 database.

    Read the article

  • WPF Trigger / Style overrides another

    - by ozczecho
    I have a listview defined as such <ListView Width="auto" SelectionMode="Single" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource baseListViewStyle}" .... Then in "baseListViewStyle" I have defined some base styles to apply to my list views, including a Style trigger: <Style x:Key="baseListViewStyle" TargetType="ListViewItem"> <Setter Property="Height" Value="20" /> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch"/> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="Red" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> The trigger here highlights the row when mouse is over it. Nice. I also have a Data Trigger on the listviewitem: <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding IsTestTrue}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource SomeFunkyAnimation}" /> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> </DataTrigger> If test is true then a nice little fade animation is played out. This all works except when I move my mouse over the row where "test is true" the animation stops and the mouse over style is displayed. Any ideas how I can override that style in my DataTrigger? TIA

    Read the article

  • Executing javascript script after ajax-loaded a page - doesn't work

    - by Deukalion
    I'm trying to get a page with AJAX, but when I get that page and it includes Javascript code - it doesn't execute it. Why? Simple code in my ajax page: <script type="text/javascript"> alert("Hello"); </script> ...and it doesn't execute it. I'm trying to use Google Maps API and add markers with AJAX, so whenever I add one I execute a AJAX page that gets the new marker, stores it in a database and should add the marker "dynamically" to the map. But since I can't execute a single javascript function this way, what do I do? Is my functions that I've defined on the page beforehand protected or private? ** UPDATED WITH AJAX FUNCTION ** function ajaxExecute(id, link, query) { if (query != null) { query = query.replace("amp;", ""); } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { // code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { if (id != null) { document.getElementById(id).innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } } if (query == null) { xmlhttp.open("GET",link,true); } else { if (query.substr(0, 1) != "?") { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+"?"+query,true); } else { xmlhttp.open("GET",link+query,true); } } xmlhttp.send(); }

    Read the article

  • Oracle syntax - should we have to choose between the old and the new?

    - by Martin Milan
    Hi, I work on a code base in the region of about 1'000'000 lines of source, in a team of around eight developers. Our code is basically an application using an Oracle database, but the code has evolved over time (we have plenty of source code from the mid nineties in there!). A dispute has arisen amongst the team over the syntax that we are using for querying the Oracle database. At the moment, the overwhelming majority of our queries use the "old" Oracle Syntax for joins, meaning we have code that looks like this... Example of Inner Join select customers.*, orders.date, orders.value from customers, orders where customers.custid = orders.custid Example of Outer Join select customers.custid, contacts.ContactName, contacts.ContactTelNo from customers, contacts where customers.custid = contacts.custid(+) As new developers have joined the team, we have noticed that some of them seem to prefer using SQL-92 queries, like this: Example of Inner Join select customers.*, orders.date, orders.value from customers inner join orders on (customers.custid = orders.custid) Example of Outer Join select customers.custid, contacts.ContactName, contacts.ContactTelNo from customers left join contacts on (customers.custid = contacts.custid) Group A say that everyone should be using the the "old" syntax - we have lots of code in this format, and we ought to value consistency. We don't have time to go all the way through the code now rewriting database queries, and it wouldn't pay us if we had. They also point out that "this is the way we've always done it, and we're comfortable with it..." Group B however say that they agree that we don't have the time to go back and change existing queries, we really ought to be adopting the "new" syntax on code that we write from here on in. They say that developers only really look at a single query at a time, and that so long as developers know both syntax there is nothing to be gained from rigidly sticking to the old syntax, which might be deprecated at some point in the future. Without declaring with which group my loyalties lie, I am interested in hearing the opinions of impartial observers - so let the games commence! Martin. Ps. I've made this a community wiki so as not to be seen as just blatantly chasing after question points...

    Read the article

  • compiling and running java on windows

    - by artur grzesiak
    I thought the task should be fairly easy, but my understanding of javac and java in general is rather poor. I am using Windows8 and would like to compile a single file.java that makes use of other classes. I successfully (at least without any warnings) compiled my file by calling: javac -cp relative_path_to_needed_classes relative_path_to_file_java\file.java Now if I want to run the result of compilation (file.class) by calling: java -cp relative_path_to_needed_classes relative_path_to_file_java\file I get: Error: Could not find or load main class relative_path_to_file_java\file I was trying a lot of combination to modify the -cp (eg. by adding .\;relative_path_to_file;) but still the closest where I get is: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError : relative_path_to_file\file (wrong name: file) The file from (wrong name: file) is the name of the file and the name of the public class within the file. I was reading a lot on SO and other sources but could not figure out what is wrong. Btw. as a result of compilation some other classes were created: file$1.class file$name1.class file$name2.class (where name1 and name2 are names of private classes within file.java) My questions are: What is (the most) probably source of my error / what am I doing wrong? What is the purpose of file$1.class? What is the minimum I should specify in -cp? May encoding play any role? Do every java class have to reside in a package? (rather not directly related to my issue) Do order of paths specified in -cp play any role in runtime?

    Read the article

  • Debian packaging of a Python package.

    - by chrisdew
    I need to write (or find) a script to create a Debian package (using python-support) from a Python package. The Python package will be pure Python (no C extensions). The Python package (for testing purposes) will just be a directory with an empty __init__.py file and a single Python module, package_test.py. The packaging script must use python-support to provide the correct bytecode for possible multiple installations of Python on a target platform. (i.e. v2.5 and v2.6 on Ubuntu Jaunty.) Most advice I find while googling are just examples nasty hacks that don't even use python-support or python-central. I have so far spent hours researching this, and the best I can come up with is to hack around the script from an existing open source project - but I don't know which bits are required for what I'm doing. Has anyone here made a Debian package out of a Python package in a reasonably non-hacky way? I'm starting to think that it will take me more than a week to go from no knowledge of Debian packaging and python-support to getting a working script. How long has it taken others? Any advice? Chris.

    Read the article

  • Commit is VERY slow in my NHibernate / SQLite project

    - by Tom Bushell
    I've just started doing some real-world performance testing on my Fluent NHibernate / SQLite project, and am experiencing some serious delays when when I Commit to the database. By serious, I mean taking 20 - 30 seconds to Commit 30 K of data! This delay seems to get worse as the database grows. When the SQLite DB file is empty, commits happen almost instantly, but when it grows to 10 Meg, I see these huge delays. The database has 16 tables, averaging 10 columns each. One possible problem is that I'm storing a dozen or so IList members, but they are typically only 200 elements long. But this is a recent addition to Fluent NHibernate automapping, which stores each float in a single table row, so maybe that's a potential problem. Any suggestions on how to track this down? I suspect SQLite is the culprit, but maybe it's NHibernate? I don't have any experience with profilers, but am thinking of getting one. I'm aware of NHibernate Profiler - any recommendations for profilers that work well with SQLite? Here's the method that saves the data - it's just a SaveOrUpdate call and a Commit, if you ignore all the error handling and debug logging. public static void SaveMeasurement(object measurement) { Debug.WriteLine("\r\n---SaveMeasurement---"); // Get the application's database session var session = GetSession(); using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { session.SaveOrUpdate(measurement); } catch (Exception e) { throw new ApplicationException( "\r\n SaveMeasurement->SaveOrUpdate failed\r\n\r\n", e); } try { Debug.WriteLine("\r\n---Commit---"); transaction.Commit(); Debug.WriteLine("\r\n---Commit Complete---"); } catch (Exception e) { throw new ApplicationException( "\r\n SaveMeasurement->Commit failed\r\n\r\n", e); } } }

    Read the article

  • Finding usage of jQuery UI in a big ugly codebase

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I've recently inherited the maintenance of a big, ugly codebase for a production website. Poke your eyes out ugly. And though it's big, it's mostly PHP code, it doesn't have much JS, besides a few "ajaxy" things in the UI. Our main current problem is that the site is just too heavy. Homepage weighs in at 1.6 Mb currently, so I'm trying to clean some stuff out. One of the main wasters is that every single page includes the jQuery UI library, but I don't think it's used at all. It's definitely not being used in the homepage and in most pages, so I want to only include the where necessary. I'm not really experienced with jQuery, i'm more of a Prototype guy, so I'm wondering. Is there anything I could search for that'd let me know where jQuery UI is being used? What i'm looking for is "common strings", component names, etc For example, if this was scriptaculous, i'd look for things like "Draggable", "Effect", etc. Any suggestions for jQuery UI? (Of course, if you can think of a more robust way of removing the tag from pages that don't use it without breaking everything, I'd love to hear about it) Thanks!! Daniel

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712 713  | Next Page >