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  • java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: View not attached to window manager

    - by alex2k8
    I have an activity that starts AsyncTask and shows progress dialog for the duration of operation. The activity is declared NOT be recreated by rotation or keyboard slide. <activity android:name=".MyActivity" android:label="@string/app_name" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation" > <intent-filter> </intent-filter> </activity> Once task completed, I dissmiss dialog, but on some phones (framework: 1.5, 1.6) such error is thrown: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: View not attached to window manager at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.findViewLocked(WindowManagerImpl.java:356) at android.view.WindowManagerImpl.removeView(WindowManagerImpl.java:201) at android.view.Window$LocalWindowManager.removeView(Window.java:400) at android.app.Dialog.dismissDialog(Dialog.java:268) at android.app.Dialog.access$000(Dialog.java:69) at android.app.Dialog$1.run(Dialog.java:103) at android.app.Dialog.dismiss(Dialog.java:252) at xxx.onPostExecute(xxx$1.java:xxx) My code is: final Dialog dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(context) .setTitle("Processing...") .setCancelable(true) .create(); final AsyncTask<MyParams, Object, MyResult> task = new AsyncTask<MyParams, Object, MyResult>() { @Override protected MyResult doInBackground(MyParams... params) { // Long operation goes here } @Override protected void onPostExecute(MyResult result) { dialog.dismiss(); onCompletion(result); } }; task.execute(...); dialog.setOnCancelListener(new OnCancelListener() { @Override public void onCancel(DialogInterface arg0) { task.cancel(false); } }); dialog.show(); From what I have read (http://bend-ing.blogspot.com/2008/11/properly-handle-progress-dialog-in.html) and seen in Android sources, it looks like the only possible situation to get that exception is when activity was destroyed. But as I have mentioned, I forbid activity recreation for basic events. So any suggestions are very appreciated.

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  • GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

    - by David Veeneman
    This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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  • Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

    - by doublep
    On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

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  • MemoryFailPoint fires to early in WinXP 64

    - by msedi
    Hello, I have created a volume class (called VoxelVolume) with a self-organizing memory management, since the GC in C# didn't provide a good mechanism for managing contents of the volume for mapping, unmapping and remapping. Although I could have used the mechanisms of virtual memory, the problem is that the files are often too large to fit into the page file and I don't want to force the users to increase the pagefile size. Currently this system is working quite well and there is no problem in lacking resources and OutOfMemoryExceptions since the InsufficientMemoryException using the MemoryFailPoint works quite well. This was all testes on a 32bit WinXP system with 2GB of main memory. Running the same mechanism on 64bit system with 32GB of main memory also works well, but when the application runs the MemoryFailPoint suddenly throws an exception although 24GB of main memory are still free. Another point is when the MemoryFailPoint has fired once, it fires everytime and there is no chance to get rid of it. What I have read so far, that there is a small object and a large object heap (SOH and LOH). But only for the SOH the GC takes real care of and I can free the SOH from unused objects by applying GC.Collect() and GC.WaitForPendingFinalizers. The MemoryFailPoint is obviously the only way to get a little bit of control for the LOH, but since there is enough memory left on the system I see no reason why the MemoryFilePoint should fire. Is there any experience around here using the MemoryFailPoint? Thank you for your help Martin

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  • Pass an array from IronRuby to C#

    - by cgyDeveloper
    I'm sure this is an easy fix and I just can't find it, but here goes: I have a C# class (let's call it Test) in an assembly (let's say SOTest.dll). Here is something along the lines of what I'm doing: private List<string> items; public List<string> list_items() { return this.items; } public void set_items(List<string> new_items) { this.items = new_items; } In the IronRuby interpreter I run: >>> require "SOTest.dll" true >>> include TestNamespace Object >>> myClass = Test.new TestNamespace.Test >>> myClass.list_items() ['Apples', 'Oranges', 'Pears'] >>> myClass.set_items ['Peaches', 'Plums'] TypeError: can't convert Array into System::Collections::Generic::List(string) I get a similar error whether I make the argument a 'List< string ', 'List< object ' or 'string[ ]'. What is the proper syntax? I can't find a documented mapping of types anywhere (because it's likely too complicated to define in certain scenarios given what Ruby can do).

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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • CoreData is saving model without the save: method being called

    - by chris
    I have a list of items with a plus button in the navigation bar that opens up a modal window containing a table of the models attributes, that displays a form when the table items are clicked (pretty standard form style). For some reason if I click the plus button to open the form to create a new model, then immediately click the done button, the person model is saved. The action linked to the done button does nothing but call on a delegate method notifying the personListViewController to close the window. The apple docs do state that the model is not saved after calling the insertNewObjectForEntityName: ... Simply creating a managed object does not cause it to be saved to a persistent store. The managed object context acts as a scratchpad. I am at a lost to why this is happening, but every time I click the done button I have a new blank item in the original tableView. I am using SDK v3.1.3 // PersonListViewController - open modal window - (void)addPerson { // Load the new form PersonNewViewController *newController = [[PersonNewViewController alloc] init]; newController.modalFormDelegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:newController animated:YES]; [newController release]; } // PersonFormViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if ( person == nil ) { MyAppDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; self.person = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Person" inManagedObjectContext:appDelegate.managedObjectContext]; } ... UIBarButtonItem *doneButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(done)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = doneButton; [doneButton release]; } - (IBAction) done { [self.modalFormDelegate didCancel]; } // delegate method in the original listViewController - (void) didCancel { [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; }

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  • Attaching methods to prototype from within constructor function

    - by Matthew Taylor
    Here is the textbook standard way of describing a 'class' or constructor function in JavaScript, straight from the Definitive Guide to JavaScript: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; } Rectangle.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; I don't like the dangling prototype manipulation here, so I was trying to think of a way to encapsulate the function definition for area inside the constructor. I came up with this, which I did not expect to work: function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; this.constructor.prototype.area = function() { return this.width * this.height; }; } I didn't expect this to work because the this reference inside the area function should be pointing to the area function itself, so I wouldn't have access to width and height from this. But it turns out I do! var rect = new Rectangle(2,3); var area = rect.area(); // great scott! it is 6 Some further testing confirmed that the this reference inside the area function actually was a reference to the object under construction, not the area function itself. function Rectangle(w,h) { this.width = w; this.height = h; var me = this; this.constructor.prototype.whatever = function() { if (this === me) { alert ('this is not what you think');} }; } Turns out the alert pops up, and this is exactly the object under construction. So what is going on here? Why is this not the this I expect it to be?

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  • SQLAlchemy, one to many vs many to one

    - by sadvaw
    Dear Everyone, I have the following data: CREATE TABLE `groups` ( `bookID` INT NOT NULL, `groupID` INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(`bookID`), KEY( `groupID`) ); and a book table which basically has books( bookID, name, ... ), but WITHOUT groupID. There is no way for me to determine what the groupID is at the time of the insert for books. I want to do this in sqlalchemy. Hence I tried mapping Book to the books joined with groups on book.bookID=groups.bookID. I made the following: tb_groups = Table( 'groups', metadata, Column('bookID', Integer, ForeignKey('books.bookID'), primary_key=True ), Column('groupID', Integer), ) tb_books = Table( 'books', metadata, Column('bookID', Integer, primary_key=True), tb_joinedBookGroup = sql.join( tb_books, tb_groups, \ tb_books.c.bookID == tb_groups.c.bookID) and defined the following mapper: mapper( Group, tb_groups, properties={ 'books': relation(Book, backref='group') }) mapper( Book, tb_joinedBookGroup ) ... However, when I execute this piece of code, I realized that each book object has a field groups, which is a list, and each group object has books field which is a singular assigment. I think my definition here must have been causing sqlalchemy to be confused about the many-to-one vs one-to-many relationship. Can someone help me sort this out? My desired goal is g.books = [b, b, b, .. ] book.group = g, where g is an instance of group, and b is an instance of book

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  • Is there any class in the .NET Framework to represent a holding container for objects?

    - by Charles Prakash Dasari
    I am looking for a class that defines a holding structure for an object. The value for this object could be set at a later time than when this container is created. It is useful to pass such a structure in lambdas or in callback functions etc. Say: class HoldObject<T> { public T Value { get; set; } public bool IsValueSet(); public void WaitUntilHasValue(); } // and then we could use it like so ... HoldObject<byte[]> downloadedBytes = new HoldObject<byte[]>(); DownloadBytes("http://www.stackoverflow.com", sender => downloadedBytes.Value = sender.GetBytes()); It is rather easy to define this structure, but I am trying to see if one is available in FCL. I also want this to be an efficient structure that has all needed features like thread safety, efficient waiting etc. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Message Handlers and the WeakReference issue

    - by user1058647
    The following message Handler works fine receiving messages from my service... private Handler handler = new Handler() { public void handleMessage(Message message) { Object path = message.obj; if (message.arg1 == 5 && path != null) //5 means its a single mapleg to plot on the map { String myString = (String) message.obj; Gson gson = new Gson(); MapPlot mapleg = gson.fromJson(myString, MapPlot.class); myMapView.getOverlays().add(new DirectionPathOverlay(mapleg.fromPoint, mapleg.toPoint)); mc.animateTo(mapleg.toPoint); } else { if (message.arg1 == RESULT_OK && path != null) { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this, "Service Started" + path.toString(), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } else { Toast.makeText(PSActivity.this,"Service error" + String.valueOf(message.arg1), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }; }; However, even though it tests out alright in the AVD (I'm feeding it a large KML file via DDMS) the "object path = message.obj;" line has a WARNING saying "this Handler class should be static else leaks might occur". But if I say "static Handler handler = new Handler()" it won't compile complaining that I "cannot make a static reference to a non-static field myMapView. If I can't make such references, I can't do anything useful. This led me into several hours of googling around on this issue and learning more about weakReferences than I ever wanted to know. The often found reccomendation I find is that I should replace... private Handler handler = new Handler() with static class handler extends Handler { private final WeakReference<PSActivity> mTarget; handler(PSActivity target) { mTarget = new WeakReference<PSActivity>(target); } But this won't compile still complaining that I can't make a static reference to a non-dtatic field. So, my question a week or to ago was "how can I write a message handler for android so my service can send data to my activity. Even though I have working code, the question still stands with the suffix "without leaking memory". Thanks, Gary

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  • Webinvoke to POST JSON with ajax call

    - by G-Man
    This is my first time that I an using WCF Service with Knockout. I want to POST an entire view model as a JSON object with an ajax call. This is the error message that I get: Endpoints using 'UriTemplate' cannot be used with 'System.ServiceModel.Description.WebScriptEnablingBehavior' I have noticed that some developers send each value as a parameter which I feel is unnecessary especially if you work with a big object. This is my WCF method: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "AddNewEvent?newEvent", Method = "POST", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public bool AddNewEvent(Models.DAL_CRMEvents newEvent) { Entities.CRMEntities dbCRM = new Entities.CRMEntities(); //Models.CRMEvents crmEvent = new Models.CRMEvents(); Entities.Event crmEvent = new Entities.Event(); crmEvent.EventDateCreated = Convert.ToDateTime(newEvent.DateCreated); crmEvent.EventActive = true; crmEvent.EventDescription = newEvent.Description; crmEvent.EventDate = Convert.ToDateTime(newEvent.Date); crmEvent.EventTimeStart = TimeSpan.Parse(newEvent.TimeStart); crmEvent.EventTimeEnd = TimeSpan.Parse(newEvent.TimeEnd); crmEvent.EventAllDay = newEvent.AllDay; dbCRM.AddToEvent(crmEvent); return true; } This is my ajax function function SaveEvent (data) { var s = { newEvent: ko.mapping.toJS(data) } alert(data.AllDay()); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../Services/CRMDataService.svc/AddNewEvent", data: JSON.stringify(s), contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "JSON", success: function (result) { alert(result); }, error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { if (textStatus == "error" && errorThrown != "") { var n = noty({ text: errorThrown, type: 'warning', dismissQueue: false, modal: true, layout: 'center', theme: 'defaults', callback: { } }) } } }) }

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  • iBatis how to solve a more complex N+1 problem

    - by Alvin
    I have a database that is similar to the following: create table Store(storeId) create table Staff(storeId_fk, staff_id, staffName) create table Item(storeId_fk, itme_id, itemName) The Store table is large. And I have create the following java bean public class Store { List<Staff> myStaff List<Item> myItem .... } public class Staff { ... } public class Item { ... } My question is how can I use iBatis's result map to EFFICIENTLY map from the tables to the java object? I tried: <resultMap id="storemap" class="my.example.Store"> <result property="myStaff" resultMap="staffMap"/> <result property="myItem" result="itemMap"/> </resultMap> (other maps omitted) But it's way too slow since the Store table is VERY VERY large. I tried to follow the example in Clinton's developer guide for the N+1 solution, but I cannot warp my mind around how to use the "groupBy" for an object with 2 list... Any help is appreciated!

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  • asp.net stored procedure problem

    - by kenom
    Why this code don't work,when i want run this code vwd 2008 express show me this error message:Invalid object name 'answers'. this is my ascx.cs code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Data; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Security; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Configuration; public partial class odgl : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string connectionString = @"SANATIZEDSTRING!!!!"; using (SqlConnection cn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { using (SqlCommand dohvati = new SqlCommand("dbo.get_answers",cn)) { dohvati.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; SqlParameter izracun = new SqlParameter("@count", SqlDbType.Int); izracun.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; dohvati.Parameters.Add(izracun); cn.Open(); dohvati.ExecuteNonQuery(); int count = Int32.Parse(dohvati.Parameters["@count"].Value.ToString()); Response.Write(count.ToString()); cn.Close(); } } } } and this is my stored procedure : set ANSI_NULLS ON set QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER procedure [dbo].[get_answers] @ukupno int output as select @count= (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM answers) go

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  • Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

    - by Markus
    Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

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  • Weird compile-time behavior when trying to use primitive type in generics

    - by polygenelubricants
    import java.lang.reflect.Array; public class PrimitiveArrayGeneric { static <T> T[] genericArrayNewInstance(Class<T> componentType) { return (T[]) Array.newInstance(componentType, 0); } public static void main(String args[]) { int[] intArray; Integer[] integerArray; intArray = (int[]) Array.newInstance(int.class, 0); // Okay! integerArray = genericArrayNewInstance(Integer.class); // Okay! intArray = genericArrayNewInstance(int.class); // Compile time error: // cannot convert from Integer[] to int[] integerArray = genericArrayNewInstance(int.class); // Run time error: // ClassCastException: [I cannot be cast to [Ljava.lang.Object; } } I'm trying to fully understand how generics works in Java. Things get a bit weird for me in the 3rd assignment in the above snippet: the compiler is complaining that Integer[] cannot be converted to int[]. The statement is 100% true, of course, but I'm wondering WHY the compiler is making this complaint. If you comment that line, and follow the compiler's "suggestion" as in the 4th assignment, the compiler is actually satisfied!!! NOW the code compiles just fine! Which is crazy, of course, since like the run time behavior suggests, int[] cannot be converted to Object[] (which is what T[] is type-erased into at run time). So my question is: why is the compiler "suggesting" that I assign to Integer[] instead for the 3rd assignment? How does the compiler reason to arrive to that (erroneous!) conclusion?

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  • Where are the network boundaries in the Java Connector Architecture (JCA)?

    - by Laird Nelson
    I am writing a JCA resource adapter. I'm also, as I go, trying to fully understand the connection management portion of the JCA specification. As a thought experiment, pretend that the only client of this adapter will be a Swing Java Application Client located on a different machine. Also assume that the resource adapter will communicate with its "enterprise information system" (EIS) over the network as well. As I understand the JCA specification, the .rar file is deployed to the application server. The application server creates the .rar file's implementation of the ManagedConnectionFactory interface. It then asks it to produce a connection factory, which is the opaque object that is deployed to JNDI for the user to use to obtain a connection to the resource. (In the case of JDBC, the connection factory is a javax.sql.DataSource.) It is a requirement that the connection factory retain a reference to the application-server-supplied ConnectionManager, which, in turn, is required to be Serializable. This makes sense--in order for the connection factory to be stored in JNDI, it must be serializable, and in order for it to keep a reference to the ConnectionManager, the ConnectionManager must also be serializable. So fine, this little object graph gets installed in the application client's JNDI tree. This is where I start to get queasy. Is the ConnectionManager--the piece supplied by the application server that is supposed to handle connection management, sharing, pooling, etc.--wholly present on the client at this point? One of its jobs is to create ManagedConnection instances, and a ManagedConnection is not required to be Serializable, and the user connection handles it vends are also not required to be Serializable. That suggests to me that the whole connection pooling machinery is shipped wholesale to the application client and stuffed into its JNDI tree. Does this all mean that JCA interactions from the client side bypass the server-side componentry of the application server? Where are the network boundaries in the JCA API?

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  • Problem with generic list and extension method(C#3.0)

    - by Newbie
    I have an issue. I am making an extension class for a Collection and it is generic.. like public static class ListExtensions { public static ICollection<T> Search<T>(this ICollection<T> collection, string stringToSearch) { ICollection<T> t1=null; foreach (T t in collection) { Type k = t.GetType(); PropertyInfo pi = k.GetProperty("Name"); if (pi.GetValue(t,null).Equals(stringToSearch)) { t1.Add(t); } } return t1; } } But I cannot add items to t1 as it is declared null. Error: object reference not set to an instance of the object. I am calling the method like List<TestClass> listTC = new List<TestClass>(); listTC.Add(new TestClass { Name = "Ishu", Age = 21 }); listTC.Add(new TestClass { Name = "Vivek", Age = 40 }); listTC.Add(new TestClass { Name = "some one else", Age = 12 }); listTC.Search("Ishu"); And the test class is public class TestClass { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } Using : (C#3.0) & Framework - 3.5 Thanks

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  • StackPanel loded is not getting fired in.cs page

    - by prince23
    <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Loaded ="SPImage_Loaded" Orientation="Horizontal" Background="Transparent" > <Button x:Name="myButton" Click="Btn_Click"> <Image x:Name="imgMarks" " Stretch="None"/> </Button> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> in .cs i have defined the event for stack panel private void SPImage_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { try { var TargetMarks = sender as StackPanel; Image imgMarks= (Image)TargetScore.FindName("imgMarks"); Marks obj = (Marks )TargetMarks.DataContext; // here marks oject would be containg the details // here if marks.score object value is 1 then bind the image //else // dnt bind the image . that is logic i am trying to do. imgMarks.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri("/Images/a1.png", UriKind.Relative)); } catch (Exception) { throw; } } any solution on this would be great. is there any better solution to achive this. plz help me out. thank you.

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  • VB.NET Two different approaches to generic cross-threaded operations; which is better?

    - by BASnappl
    VB.NET 2010, .NET 4 Hello, I recently read about using SynchronizationContext objects to control the execution thread for some code. I have been using a generic subroutine to handle (possibly) cross-thread calls for things like updating UI controls that utilizes Invoke. I'm an amateur and have a hard time understanding the pros and cons of any particular approach. I am looking for some insight on which approach might be preferable and why. Update: This question is motivated, in part, by statements such as the following from the MSDN page on Control.InvokeRequired. An even better solution is to use the SynchronizationContext returned by SynchronizationContext rather than a control for cross-thread marshaling. Method 1: Public Sub InvokeControl(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of T)) If Control.InvokeRequired Then Control.Invoke(New Action(Of T, Action(Of T))(AddressOf InvokeControl), New Object() {Control, Action}) Else Action(Control) End If End Sub Method 2: Public Sub UIAction(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of Control)) SyncContext.Send(New Threading.SendOrPostCallback(Sub() Action(Control)), Nothing) End Sub Where SyncContext is a Threading.SynchronizationContext object defined in the constructor of my UI form: Public Sub New() InitializeComponent() SyncContext = WindowsFormsSynchronizationContext.Current End Sub Then, if I wanted to update a control (e.g., Label1) on the UI form, I would do: InvokeControl(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") or UIAction(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") So, what do y'all think? Is one way preferred or does it depend on the context? If you have the time, verbosity would be appreciated! Thanks in advance, Brian

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  • TypeError when using v 0.8.1 of FLOT library, but no error with v. 0.7

    - by DanielAttard
    I need some help to figure out why I am getting an error when trying to create a simple graph using the jQuery FLOT library. When I reference version 0.7 of the FLOT library, the page renders correctly: http://attardpropertytax.ca/flot07.html But when I switch to version 0.8.1 of the FLOT library, the page returns an error saying: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'left' of null http://attardpropertytax.ca/flot81.html The HTML is the same for both pages, so I cannot figure out why the new version 0.8.1 of FLOT returns an error, but the old version 0.7 does not. Any ideas? I somehow stumbled across a work-around that managed to fix my problem. I'm nut sure why, but I had to comment-out the following two sections of code from the v. 0.8.1 FLOT library: This was the first spot: // If the grid is visible, add its border width to the offset for (var a in plotOffset) { if(typeof(options.grid.borderWidth) == "object") { plotOffset[a] += showGrid ? options.grid.borderWidth[a] : 0; } else { plotOffset[a] += showGrid ? options.grid.borderWidth : 0; } } And this was the second spot: if (isNaN(v) || v < axis.min || v > axis.max // skip those lying on the axes if we got a border || (t == "full" && ((typeof bw == "object" && bw[axis.position] > 0) || bw > 0) && (v == axis.min || v == axis.max))) continue; I'm sure eventually @DNS will be taking a look at this question and maybe he will be able to help me understand what is going wrong with my code. Thanks.

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  • Currently using View, Should I use a hard table instead?

    - by 1001010101
    I am currently debating whether my table, mapping_uGroups_uProducts, which is a view formed by the following table: CREATE ALGORITHM=UNDEFINED DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` SQL SECURITY DEFINER VIEW `db`.`mapping_uGroups_uProducts` AS select distinct `X`.`upID` AS `upID`,`Z`.`ugID` AS `ugID` from ((`db`.`mapping_uProducts_Products` `X` join `db`.`productsInfo` `Y` on((`X`.`pID` = `Y`.`pID`))) join `db`.`mapping_uGroups_Groups` `Z` on((`Y`.`gID` = `Z`.`gID`))); My current query is: SELECT upID FROM uProductsInfo \ JOIN fs_uProducts USING (upID) column \ JOIN mapping_uGroups_uProducts USING (upID) -- could be faster if we use hard table and index \ JOIN mapping_fs_key USING (fsKeyID) \ WHERE fsName="OVERALL" \ AND ugID=1 \ ORDER BY score DESC \ LIMIT 0,30; which is pretty slow. (for 30 results, it requires about 10 secondes). I think the reason for my query being so slow is definitely due to the fact that that particular query relies on a VIEW which has no index to speed things up. +----+-------------+----------------+--------+----------------+---------+---------+---------------------------------------+-------+---------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+----------------+--------+----------------+---------+---------+---------------------------------------+-------+---------------------------------+ | 1 | PRIMARY | mapping_fs_key | const | PRIMARY,fsName | fsName | 386 | const | 1 | Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | PRIMARY | <derived2> | ALL | NULL | NULL | NULL | NULL | 19706 | Using where | | 1 | PRIMARY | uProductsInfo | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | mapping_uGroups_uProducts.upID | 1 | Using index | | 1 | PRIMARY | fs_uProducts | ref | upID | upID | 4 | db.uProductsInfo.upID | 221 | Using where | | 2 | DERIVED | X | ALL | PRIMARY | NULL | NULL | NULL | 40772 | Using temporary | | 2 | DERIVED | Y | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | db.X.pID | 1 | Distinct | | 2 | DERIVED | Z | ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | db.Y.gID | 2 | Using index; Distinct | +----+-------------+----------------+--------+----------------+---------+---------+---------------------------------------+-------+---------------------------------+ 7 rows in set (0.48 sec) The explain here looks pretty cryptic, and I don't know whether I should drop view and write a script to just insert everything in the view to a hard table. ( obviously, it will lose the flexibility of the view since the mapping changes quite frequently). Does anyone have any idea to how I can optimize my schema better?

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  • Fluently.Configure without explicitly entering types.

    - by user86431
    I'm trying to take my fluent mapping past the basic stuff that I've found here: http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Fluent_configuration Where they explicitly add each type like this: ISessionFactory localFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database( ObjectFactory.GetInstance<SybaseConfiguration>().GetSybaseDialect( "BLAH" ) ) .Mappings( m => { m.HbmMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<StudTestEO>(); m.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<StudTestEO>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<StudTestEOMap>(); } ) .BuildSessionFactory(); .BuildSessionFactory(); and trying to be able to take the assembly, get a list of it's types and pass that in instead kindf like this string FullEoAssemblyFName = webAccessHdl.GetMapPath(EoAssemblyFName); string FullMapAssemblyFName = webAccessHdl.GetMapPath(MapAssemblyFName); string FullConfigFileName = webAccessHdl.GetMapPath("~/" + NHibernateConfigFileName); if (!File.Exists(FullEoAssemblyFName)) throw new Exception("GetFactoryByConfigFile, EoAssemblyFName does not exist>" + FullEoAssemblyFName + "<"); if (!File.Exists(FullMapAssemblyFName)) throw new Exception("GetFactoryByConfigFile, MapAssemblyFName does not exist>" + FullMapAssemblyFName + "<"); if (!File.Exists(FullConfigFileName)) throw new Exception("GetFactoryByConfigFile, ConfigFile does not exist>" + FullConfigFileName + "<"); Configuration configuration = new Configuration(); Assembly EoAssembly = Assembly.LoadFrom(webAccessHdl.GetMapPath(EoAssemblyFName)); Assembly MapAssembly = Assembly.LoadFrom(webAccessHdl.GetMapPath(MapAssemblyFName)); Type[] EoType = EoAssembly.GetTypes(); Type[] MapType = MapAssembly.GetTypes(); ISessionFactory localFactory = fluent.Mappings( m => { // how do i add all the types from type array here? m.FluentMappings.Add(MapAssembly).AddFromAssembly(EoAssembly); } ) .BuildSessionFactory(); To get it to load the types genericly instead of explicitly.. has anyone done this, or see any good links to articles I should look at? Thanks, E-

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  • C# Step by Step Execution

    - by Sheldon
    Hi. I'm building an app that uses and scanner API and a image to other format converter. I have a method (actually a click event) that do this: private void ButtonScan&Parse_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { short scan_result = scanner_api.Scan(); if (scan_result == 1) parse_api.Parse(); // This will check for a saved image the scanner_api stores on disk, and then convert it. } The problem is that the if condition (scan_result == 1) is evaluated inmediatly, so it just don't work. How can I force the CLR to wait until the API return the convenient result. NOTE Just by doing something like: private void ButtonScan&Parse_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { short scan_result = scanner_api.Scan(); MessageBox.Show("Result = " + scan_result); if (scan_result == 1) parse_api.Parse(); // This will check for a saved image the scanner_api stores on disk, and then convert it. } It works and display the results. Is there a way to do this, how? Thank you very much!

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  • Cannont Update control in WPF custom control

    - by Fazi
    I have created a custom control which holds a button in it. The button is styled, so as to hold a grid with two rows, an image in the first and a TextBlock in the second. I have written an Event Handler for the custom control. When the mouse enters the path of the object the MouseEnter event fires, where I try to change the TextBlock's FontSize and Foreground color, however the control does not update. In contrast, I have tried to modify an regular TextBlock's(not part a custom control and controltemplate) properties, and they update correctly, on the fly. What am I missing here?? Here is the code for the event handler: private void ThemeButton_MouseEnter(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { InitializeProperties(); TextElement.FontSize = 16; TextElement.Text = "new text"; TextElement.Foreground = Brushes.Red; TextBlock element = MainWindow.FindChild<TextBlock>(MainWindow.StartWindow, "textField"); element.Text = "new text for regular textblock"; element.Foreground = Brushes.Red; } InitializeProperties is a methid that initializes TextElement(typeof TextBlock) and ImageElement(typeof Image) properties. They are not null. The properties are just regular .NET properties.

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