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  • JSON Array Created in PHP/MySQL incorrectly decoded using JQuery

    - by Zak
    I am attempting to make an AJAX call to a very small PHP script that should return me an array that could be echo'd and decoded using JQuery. Here is what I have: My PHP page called to by AJAX: $web_q=mysql_query("select * from sec_u_g where uid='$id' "); $rs = array(); while($rs[] = mysql_fetch_assoc($web_q)) { } print_r(json_encode($rs)); This outputs: [{"id":"3","uid":"39","gid":"16"},{"id":"4","uid":"39","gid":"4"},{"id":"5","uid":"39","gid":"5"},{"id":"6","uid":"39","gid":"6"},{"id":"7","uid":"39","gid":"7"},{"id":"8","uid":"39","gid":"8"},{"id":"9","uid":"39","gid":"9"},false] I don't understand the "false" at the end for one .. But then I send to to JQuery and use: $.each(json.result, function(i, object) { $.each(object, function(property, value) { alert(property + "=" + value); }); }); This just fails. I try to alert "result" by itself which is set by: $.post("get_ug.php",{id:txt},function(result){ }); My output alerts are as follows: 1) The key is '0' and the value is '[' 2) The key is '1' and the value is 'f' 3) The key is '2' and the value is 'a' 4) The key is '3' and the value is 'l' 5) The key is '4' and the value is 's' 6) The key is '5' and the value is 'e' 7) The key is '6' and the value is ']' 8) The key is '7' and the value is ' ' (<-- Yes the line break is there in the alert) I am exhausted from trying different ideas and scripts. Other than setting a delimiter myself and concatenating my own array and decoding it with a custom script, does anyone have any ideas?? Thank you!!

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  • GDI: Dynamical Multiple Graphics in a page?

    - by SirLenz0rlot
    Hi all, I'm quite new to drawing shapes, graphics, bitmaps etc. I googled for a few days,but still havent got a real clue what to do, so please help me: I want to draw a floorplan with certain objects(represented as circles) moving on it. When I click on a object, it needs to show something. So far, I ve been able to draw some circles on a graphic and been able to move the dots by clearing the graphic every time. Ofcourse, this isnt a real solution, since I cant keep track of the different objects on the floorplan (which i need for my clickevent and movings). I hope I explained my problem ok here. This is the (stripped version of the) sourcecode that gets called every second: (dev (of type Device) is the object i want to draw) Graphics gfx = FloorplanTabPage.CreateGraphics(); gfx.Clear(Color.White); foreach (Device dev in _deviceList) { Pen myPen = new Pen(Color.Black) { Width = 10 }; dev.InRoom != null) { myPen.Color = Color.DarkOrchid; int x = dev.InRoom.XPos + (dev.InRoom.Width / 2) - 5; int y = (dev.InRoom.YPos + (dev.InRoom.Height / 2) - 5; if (dev.ToRoom != null) { x = (x + (dev.ToRoom.XPos + (dev.ToRoom.Width / 2)) / 2; y = (y + (dev.ToRoom.YPos + (dev.ToRoom.Height / 2)) / 2; } gfx.DrawEllipse(myPen, x, y, 10, 10); gfx.DrawString(dev.Name, new Font("Arial", 10), Brushes.Purple, x, y - 15); } }

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  • ASP.Net event only being raised every other time?

    - by eftpotrm
    I have an ASP.Net web user control which represents a single entry in a list. To allow users to reorder the items, each item has buttons to move the item up or down the list. Clicking on one of these raises an event to the parent page, which then shuffles the items in the placeholder control. Code fragments from the list entry: Public Event UpClicked As System.EventHandler Protected Sub btnUp_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnUp.Click RaiseEvent UpClicked(Me, New EventArgs()) End Sub And the parent container: rem (within the code to add an individual item to the placeholder) AddHandler l_oItem.UpClicked, AddressOf UpClicked Protected Sub UpClicked(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) MoveItem(DirectCast(sender, ScriptListItem), -1) End Sub It originally looked in testing like every other time the value for sender (verified by its properties) that reaches UpClicked is of an adjacent ListItem, not the one I've just clicked on - the first click is always wrong, then the second for the correct control. At present, testing appears to show that the button's click event is just being ignored every other time through. Breakpoints on the click events within the control simply aren't being hit, though the events are definitely being established. Why?

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  • Pre Project Documentation

    - by DeanMc
    I have an issue that I feel many programmers can relate to... I have worked on many small scale projects. After my initial paper brain storm I tend to start coding. What I come up with is usually a rough working model of the actual application. I design in a disconnected fashion so I am talking about underlying code libraries, user interfaces are the last thing as the library usually dictates what is needed in the UI. As my projects get bigger I worry that so should my "spec" or design document. The above paragraph, from my investigations, is echoed all across the internet in one fashion or another. When a UI is concerned there is a bit more information but it is UI specific and does not relate to code libraries. What I am beginning to realise is that maybe code is code is code. It seems from my extensive research that there is no 1:1 mapping between a design document and the code. When I need to research a topic I dump information into OneNote and from there I prioritise features into versions and then into related chunks so that development runs in a fairly linear fashion, my tasks tend to look like so: Implement Binary File Reader Implement Binary File Writer Create Object to encapsulate Data for expression to the caller Now any programmer worth his salt is aware that between those three to do items could be a potential wall of code that could expand out to multiple files. I have tried to map the complete code process for each task but I simply don't think it can be done effectively. By the time one mangles pseudo code it is essentially code anyway so the time investment is negated. So my question is this: Am I right in assuming that the best documentation is the code itself. We are all in agreement that a high level overview is needed. How high should this be? Do you design to statement, class or concept level? What works for you?

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  • Business Tier | client state in desktop application- way around Stateful Session Beans?

    - by arthur
    I read positive inputs on the following posts concerning client state management: Stateful EJBs in web application?, here, and here. I want to know how implement such client state management for desktop applications (Swing, AWT, SWT, and other). let's assume there are n desktop clients supposed to use some (remote) services provided on an Application Server. How to maintain a separate and permanent data state for each client , distinct from the other without have to use using stateful session Beans (SFSB) ? is that even possible on this application type ? With Webapp(Servlets / JsSF and JSP) some can avoid using SFSB by HttpSession object and/or coupling it with stateless session beans (SLSB). HttpSession object would keep information for each (Web)client separate and the SLSB would play the business logic music. But HttpSession objects aren't present on desktop application and I go stuck with only SFSB and SLSB. Knowing the problems(Concurrency, Error Handling, usw ) of SFSB, I would have not wanted to use it. What would be the other options? is there only SFSB available? Thanks in advances

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  • help in selecting a row in a tableview and pushing that row into anotherview? sturgling on this sinc

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I have a list of about 5 items in a tableview which I bought them from a database and now when i am trying to push each of them into different views in DidSelectRow() what I am seeing is it is showing me all the views in all the categories.... here is the code I have written.... Here is the code written in cell for row at indexpath: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } BeautyQuotes *bQuote = (BeautyQuotes*)[mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = bQuote.qBeauty; [cell setAccessoryType:UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator] ; return cell; and in didselectrow() i have written this code: id count1 = [mBeautyQ count]; while (count1--) { object = [mBeautyQ objectAtIndex:count1]; } [mBeautyQ release]; if([[object objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] isEqual : @"Beauty Quotes"]){ [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; BeautysubViewController *subBeauty = [[BeautysubViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BeautysubViewController" bundle:nil]; //subBeauty.selected =[regions objectAtIndex:indexPath.row];(this is not working) [subBeauty setTitle:@"Beauty Quotes"]; NSLog(@"it is about push beauty subview controller"); [self.navigationController pushViewController:subBeauty animated:YES]; [subBeauty release]; } in this way i am pusing all the rows in to different views....but when I am pushing this into beautyquotes it is showing me all other views along with this.... struggling on this a lot please help me in dealing with this....

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  • Spring Dependency Injecting an annotated Aspect

    Using Spring I've had some issues with doing a dependency injection on an annotated Aspect class. CacheService is injected upon the Spring context's startup, but when the weaving takes place, it says that the cacheService is null. So I am forced to relook up the spring context manually and get the bean from there. Is there another way of going about it? Here is an example of my Aspect: import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.aspectj.lang.ProceedingJoinPoint; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Around; import org.aspectj.lang.annotation.Aspect; import com.mzgubin.application.cache.CacheService; @Aspect public class CachingAdvice { private static Logger log = Logger.getLogger(CachingAdvice.class); private CacheService cacheService; @Around("execution(public *com.mzgubin.application.callMethod(..)) &&" + "args(params)") public Object addCachingToCreateXMLFromSite(ProceedingJoinPoint pjp, InterestingParams params) throws Throwable { log.debug("Weaving a method call to see if we should return something from the cache or create it from scratch by letting control flow move on"); Object result = null; if (getCacheService().objectExists(params))}{ result = getCacheService().getObject(params); } else { result = pjp.proceed(pjp.getArgs()); getCacheService().storeObject(params, result); } return result; } public CacheService getCacheService(){ return cacheService; } public void setCacheService(CacheService cacheService){ this.cacheService = cacheService; } }

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  • Error 2025: The supplied DisplayObject must be a child of the caller

    - by Mocca
    Hi, sorry, new to actionscript 3. I have a display() function for an object rotator(image based like a QT object movie). It first saves the current image in a helper variable and then allocates a new image, from the library, beneath the old one. To get a nice crossfade effect, the old image's alpha is looped down via enter_frame and then removed. Which is where there seems to be an issue with the display list, maybe recognizing oldImg's value as being already added? (it's not a first pass error) Btw, do i have to remove the old image or can i leave it, for when it's being called up via the mouse position again? (the image number can get fairly large) Does anyone have further insight? Thanks! function display(num:Number):void //num: image number { ... oldImg = newImg; ClassReference = getDefinitionByName("Class"+num) as Class; imgBD = new ClassReference(0,0); newImg = new Bitmap(imgBD); images.addChild(newImg); newImg.x=0; newImg.y=0; } function onEnter(evt:Event):void { if (oldImg) { if (oldImg.alpha > 0) oldImg.alpha -= 0.15; **else images.removeChild(oldImg);** } ... }

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  • check if two subsets of integers are equal using equals method

    - by MAS
    I have this java method in class called IntArray. The class has methods to add integers to a set or remove integers from a set,check size of a set, and check if 2 sets are equal. the 2 sets are created using 2 different objects of type IntArray in main, lets say object A and B. equals method supposed to check if two sets of integers are equal. for example set A = {1,2,3} and B = {1,2,3,4}. The method still return true even though one set is a subset of the other set. What exactly I am doing wrong? Thanks. //part of the code in main IntArray A = new IntArray(); IntArray B = new IntArray(); if(A.equals(B)) System.out.println("A and B are equal"); //equals method in IntArray class public boolean equals(Object b) { if (b instanceof IntArray) { IntArray A = (IntArray) b; for (int i = 0; i < data.length; i++) if (countOccurrences(data[i]) != A.countOccurrences(data[i])) return false; return true; } else return false; }

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  • Weird behavior of matching array keys after json_decode()

    - by arnorhs
    I've got some very weird behavior in my PHP code. I don't know if this is actually a good SO question, since it almost looks like a bug in PHP. I had this problem in a project of mine and isolated the problem: // json object that will be converted into an array $json = '{"5":"88"}'; $jsonvar = (array) json_decode($json); // notice: Casting to an array // Displaying the array: var_dump($jsonvar); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($jsonvar["5"])); var_dump(isset($jsonvar[5])); That code outputs the following: array(1) { ["5"]=> string(2) "88" } bool(false) bool(false) The big problem: Both of those tests should produce bool(true) - if you create the same array using regular php arrays, this is what you'll see: // Let's create a similar PHP array in a regular manner: $phparr = array("5" => "88"); // Displaying the array: var_dump($phparr); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($phparr["5"])); var_dump(isset($phparr[5])); The output of that: array(1) { [5]=> string(2) "88" } bool(true) bool(true) So this doesn't really make sense. I've tested this on two different installations of PHP/apache. You can copy-paste the code to a php file yourself to test it. It must have something to do with the casting from an object to an array.

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  • FluentNHibernate: multiple one-to-many relationships between the same entities.

    - by Venemo
    Hi, I'm working on a bug tracking application. There are tickets, and each ticket has an opener user and an assigned user. So, basically, I have two entities, which have two many-to-one relationships with each other. Their schematic is this: User: public class User { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } ... public virtual IList<Ticket> OpenedTickets { get; set; } public virtual IList<Ticket> AssignedTickets { get; set; } } Ticket: public class Ticket { public virtual int Id { get; protected set; } ... [Required] public virtual User OpenerUser { get; set; } public virtual User AssignedUser { get; set; } } I use FluentNHibernate's auto mapping feature. The problem is, that no matter whether relationship I set, on the side of the User, both collections always contain the same data. I guess Fluent can't tell which end of which relationship belongs to where. I googled around but haven't found anything useful. Could anyone help me, please?

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  • ForEach loop in Mathematica.

    - by dreeves
    I'd like something like this: ForEach[i_, {1,2,3}, Print[i] ] Or, more generally, to destructure arbitrary stuff in the list you're looping over, like: ForEach[{i_, j_}, {{1,10}, {2,20}, {3,30}}, Print[i*j] ] (Meta-question: is that a good way to call a ForEach loop, with the first argument a pattern like that?) ADDED: Some answerers have rightly pointed out that usually you want to use Map or other purely functional constructs and eschew a non-functional programming style where you use side effects. I agree! But here's an example where I think this ForEach construct is supremely useful: Say I have a list of options (rules) that pair symbols with expressions, like attrVals = {a -> 7, b -> 8, c -> 9} Now I want to make a hash table where I do the obvious mapping of those symbols to those numbers. I don't think there's a cleaner way to do that than ForEach[a_ -> v_, attrVals, h[a] = v] ADDED: I just realized that to do ForEach properly, it should support Break[] and Continue[]. I'm not sure how to implement that. Perhaps it will need to somehow be implemented in terms of For, While, or Do since those are the only loop constructs that support Break[] and Continue[]. If anyone interested in this wants to ask about that as a separate question, please do!

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  • Two Objects created with the same Address in Flex

    - by James
    Hi, I have an issue in flex which is causing a bit of a headache! I am adding objects to an ArrayCollection but in doing so, another ArrayCollection is also picking up these changes even though there is no binding occurring. I can see from the debug that the two ACs have the same address but for the life of me can't figure out why. I have two Array Collections: model.index.rows //The main array collection model.index.holdRows //The array collection that imitates the above This phantom data binding occurs only for the first iteration in the loop and for all others it will just write it the once. The reason this is proving troublesome is that it creates duplicate entries in my datagrid. public override function handleMessage(message:IMessage):void { super.handleMessage(message); if (message is IndexResponse) { var response:IndexResponse = message as IndexResponse; model.index.rows.removeAll(); model.index.indexIsEmpty = response.nullIndex; if (model.index.indexIsEmpty !== true) { //Update the index model from the response. Note: each property of the row object will be shown in the UI as a column in the grid response.index.forEach(function(entry:EntryData, i:int, a:Array):void { var row:Object = { fileID: entry.fileID, dadName: entry.dadName }; entry.tags.forEach(function(tag:Tag, i:int, a:Array):void { row[tag.name] = tag.value; }); model.index.rows.addItem(row); }); if(model.index.indexForNetworkView == true){ model.index.holdRows.source = model.index.holdRows.source.concat(model.index.rows.source); model.index.indexCounter++; model.index.indexForNetworkView = false; controller.indexController.showNetwork(model.index.indexCounter); } model.index.rows.refresh(); controller.networkController.show(); } } Has anyone else who has encountered something simillar propose a solution?

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  • Best way to track the stages of a form across different controllers - $_GET or routing

    - by chrisj
    Hi, I am in a bit of a dilemma about how best to handle the following situation. I have a long registration process on a site, where there are around 10 form sections to fill in. Some of these forms relate specifically to the user and their own personal data, while most of them relate to the user's pets - my current set up handles user specific forms in a User_Controller (e.g via methods like user/profile, user/household etc), and similarly the pet related forms are handled in a Pet_Controller (e.g pet/health). Whether or not all of these methods should be combined into a single Registration_Controller, I'm not sure - I'm open to any advice on that. Anyway, my main issue is that I want to generate a progress bar which shows how far along in the registration process each user is. As the urls in each form section can potentially be mapping to different controllers, I'm trying to find a clean way to extract which stage a person is at in the overall process. I could just use the query string to pass a stage parameter with each request, e.g user/profile?stage=1. Another way to do it potentially is to use routing - e.g the urls for each section of the form could be set up to be registration/stage/1, registration/stage/2 - then i could just map these urls to the appropriate controller/method behind the scenes. If this makes any sense at all, does anyone have any advice for me?

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  • SpringMvc java.lang.NullPointerException When Posting Form To Server

    - by dev_darin
    I have a form with a user name field on it when i tab out of the field i use a RESTFUL Web Service that makes a call to a handler method in the controller. The method makes a call to a DAO class that checks the database if the user name exists. This works fine, however when the form is posted to the server i call the same exact function i would call in the handler method however i get a java.lang.NullPointerException when it accesses the class that makes a call to the DAO object. So it does not even access the DAO object the second time. I have exception handlers around the calls in all my classes that makes calls. Any ideas as to whats happening here why i would get the java.lang.NullPointerException the second time the function is called.Does this have anything to do with Spring instantiating DAO classes using a Singleton method or something to that effect? What can be done to resolve this? This is what happens the First Time The Method is called using the Web Service(this is suppose to happen): 13011 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - Inside jdbcOfficersDAO 13031 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL query 13034 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate - Executing prepared SQL statement [SELECT userName FROM crimetrack.tblofficers WHERE userName = ?] 13071 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Fetching JDBC Connection from DataSource 13496 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.core.StatementCreatorUtils - Setting SQL statement parameter value: column index 1, parameter value [adminz], value class [java.lang.String], SQL type unknown 13534 [http-8084-2] DEBUG org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceUtils - Returning JDBC Connection to DataSource 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.jdbc.JdbcOfficersDAO - No username was found in exception 13537 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz does NOT exist The Second time When The Form Is 'Post' and a validation method handles the form and calls the same method the web service would call: 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - UserName is not null so going to check if its valid for :adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.OfficerRegistrationValidation - User Name in try.....catch block is adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - Inside Do UserNameExist about to validate with username : adminz 17199 [http-8084-2] INFO com.crimetrack.service.ValidateUserNameManager - UserName :adminz EXCEPTION OCCURED java.lang.NullPointerException

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  • Flex component setActualSize

    - by dlots
    I am a little confused about the setActualSize method. It appears from what I've read, that if it is not called on a component by its parent, the component will not be rendered. So it appears that setActualSize is a critical method that is directly bound to rendering the UIComponent. It also appears that the width and height properties of UIComponent override the functionality of the width and height properties of flash.display.DisplayObject, in that they are not directly bound to the rendering of the object but are virtual values that are mainly used by the getExplicitOrMeasured when the parent of the component calls the component's setActualSize method. So the question are: 1) Why isn't the default behavior of every component to just call setActualSize(getExplicitOrMeasuredWidth(),getExplicitOrMeasuredHeight()) on itself? 2) I guess this question stems from the above question and the behavior as I understand it as described above: does setActualSize change the visibility of the component? It appears that that the behavior is that a component is not rendered until setActualSize is called, but if it contains display object children itself (expected behavior as it can calculate measure on itself) and is added to the display list, the only reason why flash isn't rendering it, is because its not visible. 3) Relating to question #1, does updateDisplayList of UIComponent have a method that goes through its children calling setActualSize on each of them?

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  • Computation overhead in C# - Using getters/setters vs. modifying arrays directly and casting speeds

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    I was going to write a long-winded post, but I'll boil it down here: I'm trying to emulate the graphical old-school style of the NES via XNA. However, my FPS is SLOW, trying to modify 65K pixels per frame. If I just loop through all 65K pixels and set them to some arbitrary color, I get 64FPS. The code I made to look-up what colors should be placed where, I get 1FPS. I think it is because of my object-orented code. Right now, I have things divided into about six classes, with getters/setters. I'm guessing that I'm at least calling 360K getters per frame, which I think is a lot of overhead. Each class contains either/and-or 1D or 2D arrays containing custom enumerations, int, Color, or Vector2D, bytes. What if I combined all of the classes into just one, and accessed the contents of each array directly? The code would look a mess, and ditch the concepts of object-oriented coding, but the speed might be much faster. I'm also not concerned about access violations, as any attempts to get/set the data in the arrays will done in blocks. E.g., all writing to arrays will take place before any data is accessed from them. As for casting, I stated that I'm using custom enumerations, int, Color, and Vector2D, bytes. Which data types are fastest to use and access in the .net Framework, XNA, XBox, C#? I think that constant casting might be a cause of slowdown here. Also, instead of using math to figure out which indexes data should be placed in, I've used precomputed lookup tables so I don't have to use constant multiplication, addition, subtraction, division per frame. :)

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  • Modeling many-to-one with constraints?

    - by Greg Beech
    I'm attempting to create a database model for movie classifications, where each movie could have a single classification from each of one of multiple rating systems (e.g. BBFC, MPAA). This is the current design, with all implied PKs and FKs: TABLE Movie ( MovieId INT ) TABLE ClassificationSystem ( ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE Classification ( ClassificationId INT, ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE MovieClassification ( MovieId INT, ClassificationId INT, Advice NVARCHAR(250) -- description of why the classification was given ) The problem is with the MovieClassification table whose constraints would allow multiple classifications from the same system, whereas it should ideally only permit either zero or one classifications from a given system. Is there any reasonable way to restructure this so that a movie having exactly zero or one classifications from any given system is enforced by database constraints, given the following requirements? Do not duplicate information that could be looked up (i.e. duplicating ClassificationSystemId in the MovieClassification table is not a good solution because this could get out of sync with the value in the Classification table) Remain extensible to multiple classification systems (i.e. a new classification system does not require any changes to the table structure)? Note also the Advice column - each mapping of a movie to a classification needs to have a textual description of why that classification was given to that movie. Any design would need to support this.

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  • Detect whether or not a specific attribute was valid on the model

    - by Sir Code-A-Lot
    Having created my own validation attribute deriving from System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute, I wish to be able to detect from my controller, whether or not that specific attribute was valid on the model. My setup: public class MyModel { [Required] [CustomValidation] [SomeOtherValidation] public string SomeProperty { get; set; } } public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // Custom validation logic here } } Now, how do I detect from the controller whether validation of CustomValidationAttribute succeeded or not? I have been looking at the Exception property of ModelError in the ModelState, but I have no way of adding a custom exception to it from my CustomValidationAttribute. Right now I have resorted to checking for a specific error message in the ModelState: public ActionResult PostModel(MyModel model) { if(ModelState.Where(i => i.Value.Errors.Where((e => e.ErrorMessage == CustomValidationAttribute.SharedMessage)).Any()).Any()) DoSomeCustomStuff(); // The rest of the action here } And changed my CustomValidationAttribute to: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public static string SharedMessage = "CustomValidationAttribute error"; public override bool IsValid(object value) { ErrorMessage = SharedMessage; // Custom validation logic here } } I don't like relying on string matching, and this way the ErrorMessage property is kind of misused. What are my options?

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Why does my simple event handling example not work?

    - by njreed
    I am trying to make a simple event handler. (Note, I'm not trying to implement a full-blown publish/subscribe model; I'm just interested in why my example doesn't work as I think it should) var myObj = (function () { var private = "X"; function triggerEvent(eventName) { if (this[eventName]) { this[eventName](); } } // Setter / Getter function getProp() { return private; } function setProp(value) { private = value; triggerEvent("onPropChange"); } // Public API return { // Events "onPropChange": null, // Fires when prop value is changed // Methods "getProp": getProp, "setProp": setProp }; })(); // Now set event handler myObj.onPropChange = function () { alert("You changed the property!"); }; myObj.setProp("Z"); // --> Nothing happens. Wrong // Why doesn't my alert show? I set the onPropChange property of my object to a simpler handler function but it is not being fired. I have debugged this and it seems that in triggerEvent the variable this is referencing the global window object. I thought it should reference myObj (which is what I need). Can someone explain the error in my thinking and how I correct this? Help much appreciated. jsFiddle here

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  • How to get drag working properly in silverlight when mouse is not pressed ?

    - by Mrt
    Hello, I have the following code xaml <Canvas x:Name="LayoutRoot" > <Rectangle Canvas.Left="40" Canvas.Top="40" Width="20" Height="20" Name="rec" Fill="Red" MouseLeftButtonDown="rec_MouseLeftButtonDown" MouseMove="rec_MouseMove" /> </Canvas> code behind public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); } public Point LastDragPosition { get; set; } private bool isDragging; private void rec_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if(!isDragging) { return; } var position = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); var newPosition = new Point( Canvas.GetLeft(rec) + position.X - LastDragPosition.X, Canvas.GetTop(rec) + position.Y - LastDragPosition.Y); Canvas.SetLeft(rec, newPosition.X); Canvas.SetTop(rec, newPosition.Y); LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); } private void rec_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { isDragging = true; LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(sender as UIElement); rec.CaptureMouse(); } } This issue is the rectangle follows the mouse if the mouse left button is down, but I would like the rectangle to move even when the mouse left button isn't down. It works, but if you move the mouse very slowly. If you move the mouse to quickly the rectangle stops moving (is the mouse capture lost ?) Cheers,

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  • Using block around a static/singleton resource reference

    - by byte
    This is interesting (to me anyway), and I'd like to see if anyone has a good answer and explanation for this behavior. Say you have a singleton database object (or static database object), and you have it stored in a class Foo. public class Foo { public static SqlConnection DBConn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BAR"].ConnectionString); } Then, lets say that you are cognizant of the usefulness of calling and disposing your connection (pretend for this example that its a one-time use for purposes of illustration). So you decide to use a 'using' block to take care of the Dispose() call. using (SqlConnection conn = Foo.DBConn) { conn.Open(); using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()) { cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "SP_YOUR_PROC"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } conn.Close(); } This fails, with an error stating that the "ConnectionString property is not initialized". It's not an issue with pulling the connection string from the app.config/web.config. When you investigate in a debug session you see that Foo.DBConn is not null, but contains empty properties. Why is this?

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  • Apply [ThreadStatic] attribute to a method in external assembly

    - by Sen Jacob
    Can I use an external assembly's static method like [ThreadStatic] method? Here is my situation. The assembly class (which I do not have access to its source) has this structure public class RegistrationManager() { private RegistrationManager() {} public static void RegisterConfiguration(int ID) {} public static object DoWork() {} public static void UnregisterConfiguration(int ID) {} } Once registered, I cannot call the DoWork() with a different ID without unregistering the previously registered one. Actually I want to call the DoWork() method with different IDs simultaneously with multi-threading. If the RegisterConfiguration(int ID) method was [ThreadStatic], I could have call it in different threads without problems with calls, right? So, can I apply the [ThreadStatic] attribute to this method or is there any other way I can call the two static methods same time without waiting for other thread to unregister it? If I check it like the following, it should work. for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) { new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => Checker(i))).Start(); } public string Checker(int i) { public static void RegisterConfiguration(i); // Now i cannot register second time public static object DoWork(i); Thread.Sleep(5000); // DoWork() may take a little while to complete before unregistered public static void UnregisterConfiguration(i); }

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  • Cancelling BackgroundWorker While Running

    - by Nevets
    I have an application in which I launch a window that displays byte data coming in from a 3rd party tool. I have included .CancelAsync() and .CancellationPending into my code (see below) but I have another issue that I am running into. private void backgroundWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { Thread popupwindow = new Thread(() => test()); popupwindow.Start(); // start test script if(backgroundWorker.CancellationPending == true) { e.Cancel = true; } } private voide window_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { try { this.backgroundWorker.CancelAsync(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message.ToString()); } } Upon cancelling the test I get an `InvalidOperationException occurred" error from my rich text box in my pop-up window. It states that "Invoke or BeginInvoke" cannot be called on a control until the window handle has been created". I am not entirely sure what that means and would appreciate your help. LogWindow code for Rich Text Box: public void LogWindowText(LogMsgType msgtype, string msgIn) { rtbSerialNumberValue.Invoke(new EventHandler(delegate { rtbWindow.SelectedText = string.Empty; rtbWindow.SelectionFont = new Font(rtbWindow.SelectionFont, FontStyle.Bold); rtbWindow.SelectionColor = LogMsgTypeColor[(int)msgtype]; rtbWindow.AppendText(msgIn); rtbWindow.ScrollToCaret(); })); }

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