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  • WPF validation on Enter Key Up

    - by Martin
    I'm trying to validate a UI change when Enter key is pressed. The UI element is a textbox, which is data binded to a string. My problem is that the data binding hasn't updated TestText when Enter key is Up. It is only updated when I press the button which brings up a message box. /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { String _testText = new StringBuilder("One").ToString(); public string TestText { get { return _testText; } set { if (value != _testText) { _testText = value; OnPropertyChanged("TestText"); } } } public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); myGrid.DataContext = this; } private void OnPropertyChanged(string property) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(property)); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void onKeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key != System.Windows.Input.Key.Enter) return; System.Diagnostics.Trace.WriteLine(TestText); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(TestText); } } Window XAML: Window x:Class="VerificationTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" KeyUp="onKeyUp" TextBox XAML: TextBox Name="myTextBox" Text="{Binding TestText}" Button XAML: Button Name="button1" Click="button1_Click"

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  • Java Concurrency in practice sample question

    - by andy boot
    I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. This states that if a thread has references to a shared object then other threads may be able to access that object before the constructor has finished executing. I have tried to put this into practice and so I wrote this code thinking that if I ran it enough times a RuntimeException("World is f*cked") would occur. But it isn't doing. Is this a case of the Java spec not guaranting something but my particular implementation of java guaranteeing it for me? (java version: 1.5.0 on Ubuntu) Or have I misread something in the book? Code: (I expect an exception but it is never thrown) public class Threads { private Widgit w; public static void main(String[] s) throws Exception { while(true){ Threads t = new Threads(); t.runThreads(); } } private void runThreads() throws Exception{ new Checker().start(); w = new Widgit((int)(Math.random() * 100) + 1); } private class Checker extends Thread{ private static final int LOOP_TIMES = 1000; public void run() { int count = 0; for(int i = 0; i < LOOP_TIMES; i++){ try { w.checkMe(); count++; } catch(NullPointerException npe){ //ignore } } System.out.println("checked: "+count+" times out of "+LOOP_TIMES); } } private static class Widgit{ private int n; private int n2; Widgit(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(2); this.n2 = n; } void checkMe(){ if (n != n2) { throw new RuntimeException("World is f*cked"); } } } }

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  • Why are Facebook Likes Insisting on using Wrong Product Image...?

    - by Joan Kent
    Firstly, I'm not a web developer so please be patient. I have read the other posts but I think i have everything covered. My website http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk includes the like button on the product pages. However, I've found that certain product pages are using the incorrect image when a user likes the page. For example - http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pots/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund I think this may have been down to an original incorrect setup which is now corrected. However, the problem remains... The only thing I have to go on :- if i use the facebook url linter (developers.facebook.com/tools/debug) on the above product page, I receive the following error :- Object at URL 'http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund' of type '213689662010141:product' is invalid because the domain 'www.joaniesgifts.co.uk' is not allowed for the application id '213689662010141' which owns the specified object type. If you are the owner of this application, you can verify your configured 'Site Domain' at developers.facebook.com/apps/213689662010141. (I have verified my site's domain) Everything else appears fine except it is also showing the wrong image!! However, under Raw Open Graph Document Information it has the correct link! If I then click graph api - graph.facebook.com/10150450766583352 it again shows the wrong image was linked! I've no idea what else to do - can you help me? Kind Regards, Joan PS Graph API shows the incorrect image after a scrape only minutes ago { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund", "type": "website", "title": "Terramundi Money Pot - Holiday Fund", "image": [ { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/index.php?route=product\u00252Fproduct\u00252Fcaptcha" } ], "updated_time": "2011-11-11T18:54:38+0000", "id": "10150450766583352" }

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  • How to improve multi-threaded access to Cache (custom implementation)

    - by Andy
    I have a custom Cache implementation, which allows to cache TCacheable<TKey> descendants using LRU (Least Recently Used) cache replacement algorithm. Every time an element is accessed, it is bubbled up to the top of the LRU queue using the following synchronized function: // a single instance is created to handle all TCacheable<T> elements public class Cache() { private object syncQueue = new object(); private void topQueue(TCacheable<T> el) { lock (syncQueue) if (newest != el) { if (el.elder != null) el.elder.newer = el.newer; if (el.newer != null) el.newer.elder = el.elder; if (oldest == el) oldest = el.newer; if (oldest == null) oldest = el; if (newest != null) newest.newer = el; el.newer = null; el.elder = newest; newest = el; } } } The bottleneck in this function is the lock() operator, which limits cache access to just one thread at a time. Question: Is it possible to get rid of lock(syncQueue) in this function while still preserving the queue integrity?

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  • Importing Excel spreadsheet data into existing Access DB

    - by Keeb13r
    I've designed an Access 2003 DB with 3 tables: APPLICATIONS, SERVERS, and INSTALLATIONS. Records in the APPLICATIONS and SERVERS tables are uniquely identified by a synthetic primary key (in Access, an "auto number"). The INSTALLATIONS table is essentially a mapping table between APPLICATIONS and SERVERS: it's a list of records of which applications are installed on which servers. A record in the INSTALLATIONS table is also identified by a synthetic primary key, and it consists of an APPLICATION_ID and SERVER_ID for the records in their respective tables. I have an Excel 2003 spreadsheet I would like to import into this database, but it's proving difficult. The spreadsheet is made up of several tabs/worksheets, each one representing a server with its own listing of installed applications. I'm not sure how to proceed with an import - the "Get External Data -- Import" feature in Access has an import "In an Existing Table" option, but it's greyed out. I'm also unsure how I build the relationships between applications and servers for importing records into the INSTALLATIONS table. I had previously fooled around with adding some security to the Access DB file. I think I removed everything but perhaps I didn't and that's causing the problem? Some sample data from the Excel spreadsheet: SERVER101 * Adobe Reader 9 * BMC Remedy User 7.0 * HostExplorer 2008 * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft Office 2007 * Notepad++ SERVER102 * Adobe Reader 9 * DameWare Mini Remote Control * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 * Oracle 9.2 SERVER103 * AWDView * EXTRA! Personal Client 32-bit * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 * Snagit 9.1 * WinZip 12.1 The Access DB design is very simple: APPLICATION * APPLICATION_ID (autonumber) * APPLICATION_NAME (varchar) SERVER * SERVER_ID (autonumber) * SERVER_NAME (varchar) INSTALLATION * INSTALLATION_ID (autonumber) * APPLICATION_ID (number) * SERVER_ID (number)

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  • Is it possible to spoof or reuse VIEWSTATE or detect if it is protected from modification?

    - by Peter Jaric
    Question ASP and ASP.NET web applications use a value called VIEWSTATE in forms. From what I understand, this is used to persist some kind of state on the client between requests to the web server. I have never worked with ASP or ASP.NET and need some help with two questions (and some sub-questions): 1) Is it possible to programmatically spoof/construct a VIEWSTATE for a form? Clarification: can a program look at a form and from that construct the contents of the base64-encoded VIEWSTATE value? 1 a) Or can it always just be left out? 1 b) Can an old VIEWSTATE for a particular form be reused in a later invocation of the same form, or would it just be luck if that worked? 2) I gather from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972976.aspx#viewstate_topic12 that it is possible to turn on security so that the VIEWSTATE becomes secure from spoofing. Is it possible for a program to detect that a VIEWSTATE is safeguarded in such a way? 2 a) Is there a one-to-one mapping between the occurrence of EVENTVALIDATION values and secure VIEWSTATEs? Regarding 1) and 2), if yes, can I have a hint about how I would do that? For 2) I am thinking I could base64-decode the value and search for a string that always is found in unencrypted VIEWSTATEs. "First:"? Something else? Background I have made a small tool for detecting and exploiting so called CSRF vulnerabilities. I use it to quickly make proof of concepts of such vulnerabilities that I send to the affected site owners. Quite often I encounter these forms with a VIEWSTATE, and these I don't know if they are secure or not. Edit 1: Clarified question 1 somewhat. Edit 2: Added text in italics.

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  • Trying to write priority queue in Java but getting "Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ClassCastEx

    - by Dan
    For my data structure class, I am trying to write a program that simulates a car wash and I want to give fancy cars a higher priority than regular ones using a priority queue. The problem I am having has something to do with Java not being able to type cast "Object" as an "ArrayQueue" (a simple FIFO implementation). What am I doing wrong and how can I fix it? public class PriorityQueue<E> { private ArrayQueue<E>[] queues; private int highest=0; private int manyItems=0; public PriorityQueue(int h) { highest=h; queues = (ArrayQueue[]) new Object[highest+1]; <----problem is here } public void add(E item, int priority) { queues[priority].add(item); manyItems++; } public boolean isEmpty( ) { return (manyItems == 0); } public E remove() { E answer=null; int counter=0; do { if(!queues[highest-counter].isEmpty()) { answer = queues[highest-counter].remove(); counter=highest+1; } else counter++; }while(highest-counter>=0); return answer; } }

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  • Devexpress Repository ComboBoxEdit loosing cursor position. Edit.SelectionStart Not being assigned

    - by user575219
    I am having an issue with my comboBoxEdit in a gridcontrol. I am using Winforms Devepress 11.2. I clicked in the text of an existing Repository comboBoxEdit, and typed in "appear backwards", however, it displayed as "sdrawkcab raeppa" like it would in a mirror. There are some posts about this topic but none of the solutions seem to work The reason for this is the following foreach (GridColumn column in this.gvNotes.Columns) { var columnEdit = column.ColumnEdit; if (columnEdit != null) { column.ColumnEdit.EditValueChanged += this.PostEditValueChanged; } } private void PostEditValueChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.gvNotes.PostEditor(); } This PostEditor ensures the save button is enabled when the user is still in the current cell. The user does not need to leave the cell or change column for the changes to be posted to the grid. So this is what I did: private void PostEditValueChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ComboBoxEdit edit = this.gridNotes.FocusedView.ActiveEditor as ComboBoxEdit; if (edit != null) { int len = edit.SelectionLength; int start = edit.SelectionStart; gridNotes.FocusedView.PostEditor(); edit.SelectionLength = len; edit.SelectionStart = start; } This did not solve the problem of the cursor resetting to the start position. Edit.SelectionStart is not being assinged to the len value.Even though len changes to 1 edit.SelectionStart remains at 0 Does anyone know what event needs to be handled to not loose the cursor position?

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  • Change Rectangle Fill Based on ColumnWidth of a grid

    - by Coesy
    Essentially i want to do as the title says, if the columnwidth is .50 then the rectangle should be red, if it's .75 then it should be amber, and if it's 1 then it should be green. I thought I could achieve this with DataTriggers but for some reason I am getting "Object Reference Not Set To An Instance Of An Object" error, here is my code, am I missing something here? FYI the width property will be changed in the backend through a timer_tick event. <Grid x:Name="Grid1" Width="300" Height="30"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn1" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition x:Name="MyColumn2" Width=".50*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".50*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Red"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value=".75*"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Yellow"></Setter> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ElementName=MyColumn1,Path=Width}" Value="1"> <Setter TargetName="rect" Property="Fill" Value="Green"></Setter> </DataTrigger> </Grid.Triggers> <Rectangle x:Name="rect" Grid.Column="0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"></Rectangle> <Rectangle Grid.Column="1" Fill="Blue"></Rectangle> </Grid>

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  • Cannont Update control in WPF custom control

    - by Fazi
    I have created a custom control which holds a button in it. The button is styled, so as to hold a grid with two rows, an image in the first and a TextBlock in the second. I have written an Event Handler for the custom control. When the mouse enters the path of the object the MouseEnter event fires, where I try to change the TextBlock's FontSize and Foreground color, however the control does not update. In contrast, I have tried to modify an regular TextBlock's(not part a custom control and controltemplate) properties, and they update correctly, on the fly. What am I missing here?? Here is the code for the event handler: private void ThemeButton_MouseEnter(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { InitializeProperties(); TextElement.FontSize = 16; TextElement.Text = "new text"; TextElement.Foreground = Brushes.Red; TextBlock element = MainWindow.FindChild<TextBlock>(MainWindow.StartWindow, "textField"); element.Text = "new text for regular textblock"; element.Foreground = Brushes.Red; } InitializeProperties is a methid that initializes TextElement(typeof TextBlock) and ImageElement(typeof Image) properties. They are not null. The properties are just regular .NET properties.

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  • Automapping Collections

    - by vaibhav
    I am using Automapper for mapping my domain model and DTO. When I map Mapper.Map<SiteDTO, SiteEntity> it works fine. But when I use collections of the same entities, it doesn't map. Mapper.Map<Collection<SiteEntity>, Collection<SiteDTO>>(siteEntityCollection); AS per Automapper Wiki, it says the lists implementing ICollection would be mapped, I am using Collection that implements ICollection, but automapper doesn't map it. Am I doing something wrong. public class SiteEntity //SiteDTO has exactly the same properties, so I am not posting it here. { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public byte Status { get; set; } public int ModifiedBy { get; set; } public DateTime ModifiedDate{ get; set; } public long TimeStamp{ get; set; } public string Description{ get; set; } public string Notes{ get; set; } public ObservableCollection<AreaEntity> Areas{ get; set; } }

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  • Populating a Datagrid with variable number of columns and rows in Flex

    - by Rie Mino
    I am trying to figure out how to manage a Datagrid based on an XML object like this: <matrix rows="5" columns="5"> <column> <row>0.5</row> <row>0.21</row> </column> <column> <row>0.6</row> <row>0.9</row> </column> <column> <row>0.5</row> <row>0.5</row> </column> <column> <row>0.8</row> <row>0.4</row> </column> </matrix> I will need to populate the Datagrid column names based on a different XML object and use the above XML to populate each of the column's rows. I currently am able to create the Datagrid and populate its column headers but I am unsure as to how to how to add the rows for each column. The above XML will be update with new row and column elements added and deleted. This, of course, will be bound to the Datagrid to show updates. Thanks in advanced for your help.

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  • Better way to implement custom views in a listview with simpleadapter?

    - by jonaz
    I have a value called tags which is a comma separated list of words. I want to put this into nicely designed "tag-buttons". The below works. However the line ((LinearLayout) view).removeAllViews(); seems like an ugly fix for not adding the tags multiple times every time adapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); is called after i load more rows with a setOnScrollListener() Any suggestion to "best practice" here, or at least a more good looking solution? adapter = new SimpleAdapter(activity,data, R.layout.list_transactions, new String[] {"comment", "amount","date","tags","category"}, new int[] { R.id.comment, R.id.amount,R.id.date,R.id.tags_container,R.id.category } ); SimpleAdapter.ViewBinder binder = new SimpleAdapter.ViewBinder() { @Override public boolean setViewValue(View view, Object object, String value) { //Log.d(TAG,"view.toString()= "+ view.toString()); if (view.getId() == R.id.tags_container) { String[] tags = value.split(","); ((LinearLayout) view).removeAllViews(); for (String tag : tags) { View v = createTagView(activity.getLayoutInflater(),tag); ((LinearLayout) view).addView(v); } return true; } return false; } };

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • Entity Framework 5 Enum Naming

    - by Tyrel Van Niekerk
    I am using EF 5 with migrations and code first. It all works rather nicely, but there are some issues/questions I would like to resolve. Let's start with a simple example. Lets say I have a User table and a user type table. The user type table is an enum/lookup table in my app. So the user table has a UserTypeId column and a foreign key ref etc to UserType. In my poco, I have a property called UserType which has the enum type. To add the initial values to the UserType table (or add/change values later) and to create the table in the initial migrator etc. I need a UserType table poco to represent the actual table in the database and to use in the map files. I mapped the UserType property in the User poco to UserTypeId in the UserType poco. So now I have a poco for code first/migrations/context mapping etc and I have an enum. Can't have the same name for both, so do I have a poco called UserType and something else for the enum or have the poco for UserType be UserTypeTable or something? More importantly however, am I missing some key element in how code first works? I tried the example above, ran Add-Migration and it does not add the lookup table for the enum.

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  • changing the serialization procedure for a graph of objects (.net framework)

    - by pierusch
    Hello I'm developing a scientific application using .net framework. The application depends heavily upon a large data structure (a tree like structure) that has been serialized using a standard binaryformatter object. The graph structure looks like this: <serializable()>Public class BigObjet inherits list(of smallObject) end class <serializable()>public class smallObject inherits list(of otherSmallerObjects) end class ... The binaryFormatter object does a nice job but it's not optimized at all and the entire data structure reaches around 100Mb on my filesystem. Deserialization works too but it's pretty slow (around 30seconds on my quad core). I've found a nice .dll on codeproject (see "optimizing serialization...") so I wrote a modified version of the classes above overriding the default serialization/deserialization procedure reaching very good results. The problem is this: I can't lose the data previosly serialized with the old version and I'd like to be able to use the new serialization/deserialization method. I have some ideas but I'm pretty sure someone will be able to give me a proper and better advice ! use an "helper" graph of objects who takes care of the entire serialization/deserialization procedure reading data from the old format and converting them into the classes I nedd. This could work but the binaryformatter "needs" to know the types being serialized so........ :( modify the "old" graph to include a modified version of serialization procedure...so I'll be able to deserialize old file and save them with the new format......this doesn't sound too good imho. well any help will be higly highly appreciated :)

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  • LINQ Joins - Performance

    - by Meiscooldude
    I am curious on how exactly LINQ (not LINQ to SQL) is performing is joins behind the scenes in relation to how Sql Server performs joins. Sql Server before executing a query, generates an Execution Plan. The Execution Plan is basically an Expression Tree on what it believes is the best way to execute the query. Each node provides information on whether to do a Sort, Scan, Select, Join, ect. On a 'Join' node in our execution plan, we can see three possible algorithms; Hash Join, Merge Join, and Nested Loops Join. Sql Server will choose which algorithm to for each Join operation based on expected number of rows in Inner and Outer tables, what type of join we are doing (some algorithms don't support all types of joins), whether we need data ordered, and probably many other factors. Join Algorithms: Nested Loop Join: Best for small inputs, can be optimized with ordered inner table. Merge Join: Best for medium to large inputs sorted inputs, or an output that needs to be ordered. Hash Join: Best for medium to large inputs, can be parallelized to scale linearly. LINQ Query: DataTable firstTable, secondTable; ... var rows = from firstRow in firstTable.AsEnumerable () join secondRow in secondTable.AsEnumerable () on firstRow.Field<object> (randomObject.Property) equals secondRow.Field<object> (randomObject.Property) select new {firstRow, secondRow}; SQL Query: SELECT * FROM firstTable fT INNER JOIN secondTable sT ON fT.Property = sT.Property Sql Server might use a Nested Loop Join if it knows there are a small number of rows from each table, a merge join if it knows one of the tables has an index, and Hash join if it knows there are a lot of rows on either table and neither has an index. Does Linq choose its algorithm for joins? or does it always use one?

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  • Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

    - by Anders Svensson
    I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

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  • XmlSerializer 'forgetting' my namespace

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have to create an XML file with all the elements prefixed, like this: <ps:Request num="123" xmlns:ps="www.ladieda.com"> <ps:ClientId>5566</ps:ClientId> <ps:Request> When i serialize my object, c# is smart and does this: <Request num="123" xmlns="www.ladieda.com"> <ClientId>5566</ClientId> <Request> That is good, because the ps: is not necessary. But is there a way to force C# to serialize all the prefixes? My serialize code is this (for incoming object pObject): String XmlizedString = null; MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(pObject.GetType()); XmlTextWriter xmlTextWriter = new XmlTextWriter(memoryStream, Encoding.UTF8); xs.Serialize(xmlTextWriter, pObject); memoryStream = (MemoryStream)xmlTextWriter.BaseStream; XmlizedString = UTF8ByteArrayToString(memoryStream.ToArray()); return XmlizedString; private String UTF8ByteArrayToString(Byte[] characters) { UTF8Encoding encoding = new UTF8Encoding(); String constructedString = encoding.GetString(characters); return (constructedString); }

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  • Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

    - by doublep
    On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

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  • How to maintain ComboBox.SelectedItem reference when DataSource is resorted?

    - by Dave
    This really seems like a bug to me, but perhaps some databinding gurus can enlighten me? (My WinForms databinding knowledge is quite limited.) I have a ComboBox bound to a sorted DataView. When the properties of the items in the DataView change such that items are resorted, the SelectedItem in my ComboBox does not keep in-sync. It seems to point to someplace completely random. Is this a bug, or am I missing something in my databinding? Here is a sample application that reproduces the problem. All you need is a Button and a ComboBox: public partial class Form1 : Form { private DataTable myData; public Form1() { this.InitializeComponent(); this.myData = new DataTable(); this.myData.Columns.Add("ID", typeof(int)); this.myData.Columns.Add("Name", typeof(string)); this.myData.Columns.Add("LastModified", typeof(DateTime)); this.myData.Rows.Add(1, "first", DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(-2)); this.myData.Rows.Add(2, "second", DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(-1)); this.myData.Rows.Add(3, "third", DateTime.Now); this.myData.DefaultView.Sort = "LastModified DESC"; this.comboBox1.DataSource = this.myData.DefaultView; this.comboBox1.ValueMember = "ID"; this.comboBox1.DisplayMember = "Name"; } private void saveStuffButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataRowView preUpdateSelectedItem = (DataRowView)this.comboBox1.SelectedItem; // OUTPUT: SelectedIndex = 0; SelectedItem.Name = third Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("SelectedIndex = {0:N0}; SelectedItem.Name = {1}", this.comboBox1.SelectedIndex, preUpdateSelectedItem["Name"])); this.myData.Rows[0]["LastModified"] = DateTime.Now; DataRowView postUpdateSelectedItem = (DataRowView)this.comboBox1.SelectedItem; // OUTPUT: SelectedIndex = 2; SelectedItem.Name = second Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("SelectedIndex = {0:N0}; SelectedItem.Name = {1}", this.comboBox1.SelectedIndex, postUpdateSelectedItem["Name"])); // FAIL! Debug.Assert(object.ReferenceEquals(preUpdateSelectedItem, postUpdateSelectedItem)); } }

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  • How to add Flex 4 spark List Item custom properties

    - by maik3l
    I'm trying to make a simple flash application providing interface for taking tests as a high school assignment. One of the requirements is to use an XML file as data source.Now, having a List component bound to the XML file with questions consisting of data such as question body, question type (ie. single choice, multiple choice, open, image etc.) and possible answers (where applicable), I was wondering if I could add some additional data (and what is the best possible way to do so) to each question upon its transfer to the List component. I am trying to achieve two main goals with this: firstly, to mark the questions to which an answer has already been given, like with such code in ItemRenderer class: <s:Label color="{data.color}" text="{data.label}"/> where data.color would be set whenever the user gives an answer to a question. Secondly, while at it, I thought of such possibility as a great way to store answers given to particular questions. In this case, the Class of the answer object would have been Object, since there has to be many type of questions (where the answer could also be a Bitmap for example). This is a question of both how to do it and if it seems a good idea at all (and if no, if there is a better way?), because I am quite new to the whole Flash Builder and Flex thing and I am not really accustomed to all the possibilities and best practices. Thanks!

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  • creating a thread in jsp and using join has problem

    - by Suresh S
    guys the following code does not wiat for the thread t to complete and join with the main thread, also the "created object" trace is called one more time after join is called please let me know the solution <% AProc empList = new AProc(); System.out.println("** Created Object ****"); System.out.println("Condition"+(!(p.length==0) && !(status) && !(threadLive))); if (!(p.length==0) && !(status) && !(threadLive)){ java.util.Date currDate = new java.util.Date(); try { Thread t = new Thread(empList); System.out.println("Check thread life 1 "+t.isAlive()); empList.setServletRequest(request , schemaName); System.out.println("Thread Started "+t); t.start(); System.out.println("Check thread life 2 "+t.isAlive()); if(t.isAlive()) { threadLive = true; } t.join(); while (t.isAlive()) { t.join(); } System.out.println("Check thread life 3 "+t.isAlive()); System.out.println("Thread End "+t); //} } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception in thread while running Procedure "+e); status=false; threadLive=false; } status = e.getStatusProc(); }%>

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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • Javascript not registering/executing after button click

    - by rs
    I have a textbox which i convert to tinymce textbox using tinymce.js file. I'm trying to add a new script with database fields substituted based on selection made from dropdownlist to page using registerstartupscript. In page load protected sub page_load(byVal sender as object, byval e as EventArgs) handles me.load AddScriptToPage() if not page.ispostback() then session("fname") = nothing end if end sub Script Method Sub AddScriptToPage() dim _script = " c.onRenderMenu.add(function(c, m) { " & _ add_columns() & _ "}); " ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(Me.GetType(), keyword,_script) End Sub function add_columns() as string dim ret_string = String.empty select case ddlList.selectedvalue case 1 sqlcommand = "xyz" case 2 sqlcommand = "xyz" case 3 //Load from excel sqlcommand = nothing end select if sqlcommand isnot nothing then executereader() while reader.read() ret_string = ret_string & reader("column") end while elseif session("fname") isnot nothing dt = getdatatable(session("fname").tostring()) //method that opens oledb connection and returns columns for each dr in dt.rows ret_string = ret_string & dr("column") next end if add_columns = ret_string end function When excel file is uploaded to server this event is called protected sub btnclick(byVal sender as object, byval e as EventArgs) if hasfile then 'i have custom properties set after control validation 'Upload file 'set session value with filepath session("fname") = filepath 'call js register event AddScriptToPage() end if end sub When i click upload button i'm calling AddScriptToPage, and debug it it hits AddScripttoPage event and executes it but it doesn't showup on page. It should show column names in tinymce editor but it doesn't. But when i click another button on the same page it shows (becos session has the filename). On Upload button click page flow: Page load - AddScriptToPage is executed (registers scripts with no columns) Then AddScriptToPage in btnclick event is executed (registers scripts with columns) Why is this script not getting registered even though it is executed on vb code on uploadclick event? And why does it show up after another button click and not original button click that calls this event?

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