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  • How to hand-over a TCP listening socket with minimal downtime?

    - by Shtééf
    While this question is tagged EventMachine, generic BSD-socket solutions in any language are much appreciated too. Some background: I have an application listening on a TCP socket. It is started and shut down with a regular System V style init script. My problem is that it needs some time to start up before it is ready to service the TCP socket. It's not too long, perhaps only 5 seconds, but that's 5 seconds too long when a restart needs to be performed during a workday. It's also crucial that existing connections remain open and are finished normally. Reasons for a restart of the application are patches, upgrades, and the like. I unfortunately find myself in the position that, every once in a while, I need to do this kind of thing in production. The question: I'm looking for a way to do a neat hand-over of the TCP listening socket, from one process to another, and as a result get only a split second of downtime. I'd like existing connections / sockets to remain open and finish processing in the old process, while the new process starts servicing new connectinos. Is there some proven method of doing this using BSD-sockets? (Bonus points for an EventMachine solution.) Are there perhaps open-source libraries out there implementing this, that I can use as is, or use as a reference? (Again, non-Ruby and non-EventMachine solutions are appreciated too!)

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  • XML Schema: How to specify an attribute with a custom 'simpleType' type?

    - by mackenir
    In my XML schema definition, I'm trying to restrict the value of an attribute to be an integer between 0 and 100. With reference to the sample schema below, I want attribute 'attr' on element 'root' to have this restriction. To achieve this I define a simpleType 'Percentage' and set this as the 'type' of 'attr'. However, my XML schema editor (VS 2008) flags the attribute up as having a problem: "Type 'Percentage' is not declared or is not a simple type". <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema elementFormDefault="qualified" id="test" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="http://testtttt"> <xs:simpleType name="Percentage"> <xs:restriction base="xs:integer"> <xs:minInclusive value="0"/> <xs:maxInclusive value="100"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> <xs:element name="root"> <xs:complexType> <xs:attribute name="attr" type="Percentage" use="optional" /> </xs:complexType> </xs:element>

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  • Visual Studio Linked Files Directory Structure

    - by jeffn825
    I have two versions of a project. One for Silverlight and one for .NET. The SL project has the vast majority of the code base in it. I want to globally add all files from the SL project into the .NET version as linked files. I've managed to do so successfully like this in the csproj file for the .NET version: <Compile Include="..\MyProj.Common.SL\**\*.cs" Exclude="..\MyProj.Common\Properties\**"> Unfortunately, this adds all the files right to the root of my project... so I end up with a long unreadable list of linked files in the .NET project. I really really really don't want to have to maintain an entire duplicate directory structure by hand and deal with directory name changes and file name changes and whatnot. So, is there any way to have Visual Studio preserve the directory structure when adding linked files in the wildcard manner above? Or is there at least a way of making it group all the linked files together under a directory in the .NET project like MyProj.Common.SL.Links? The very closest I've come is to set the <Visible>false</Visible> under the <Compile> tag, which effectively removes the long unreadable list of 300+ files....but unfortunately this screws up Resharper, which no longer sees those files as valid and it goes crazy on all the projects that reference the .NET project. If I could figure out a way of making Resharper not get all messed up, that would be an acceptable solution too... Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Throwing a C++ exception after an inline-asm jump

    - by SoapBox
    I have some odd self modifying code, but at the root of it is a pretty simple problem: I want to be able to execute a jmp (or a call) and then from that arbitrary point throw an exception and have it caught by the try/catch block that contained the jmp/call. But when I do this (in gcc 4.4.1 x86_64) the exception results in a terminate() as it would if the exception was thrown from outside of a try/catch. I don't really see how this is different than throwing an exception from inside of some far-flung library, yet it obviously is because it just doesn't work. How can I execute a jmp or call but still throw an exception back to the original try/catch? Why doesn't this try/catch continue to handle these exceptions as it would if the function was called normally? The code: #include <iostream> #include <stdexcept> using namespace std; void thrower() { cout << "Inside thrower" << endl; throw runtime_error("some exception"); } int main() { cout << "Top of main" << endl; try { asm volatile ( "jmp *%0" // same thing happens with a call instead of a jmp : : "r"((long)thrower) : ); } catch (exception &e) { cout << "Caught : " << e.what() << endl; } cout << "Bottom of main" << endl << endl; } The expected output: Top of main Inside thrower Caught : some exception Bottom of main The actual output: Top of main Inside thrower terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): some exception Aborted

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  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

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  • Covert uiiamge into string

    - by Warrior
    I am new iphone development.Is there any possibility to covert the uiimage into string and then once again back to image. - (void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingImage:(UIImage *)img1 editingInfo:(NSDictionary *)editInfo { [[picker parentViewController] dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; NSData *data = UIImagePNGRepresentation(img1); NSString *str1; str1 = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:data encoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; MyAppAppDelegate *appDelegate = (MyAppAppDelegate *) [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [appDelegate setCurrentLink:str1]; EmailPictureViewController *email = [[EmailPictureViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"EmailPictureViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:email animated:YES]; } so i can use delegate methods to tranfer the image from one view to another view. so i should convert the string once again to image and display it in another view. In Another view - (void)viewDidLoad { MyAppAppDelegate *appDelegate =(MyAppAppDelegate *) [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; str1 = [appDelegate getCurrentLink]; NSLog(@"The String %@",str1); NSData *aData; aData = [str1 dataUsingEncoding: NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSLog(@"The String Data %@",aData); NSLog(@"Inside Didload3"); [imgview setImage:[UIImage imageWithData:aData]]; } But this doesn't work for me.Where do i go wrong.Is there any way to solve it?.Please help me out.Thanks.

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  • Changing <object> height and width works in Chrome but not Firefox or IE. Why?

    - by Michael Hopkins
    I am making a site with two Youtube videos. These videos use the raw embed code from Youtube. The site's design doesn't work with any of the default Youtube sizes, so I am writing code to automatically resize the video. Here is my code. There will never be more than these two tags on the page, otherwise I'd do a better job selecting the videos. <script language='JavaScript' type='text/javascript'> var x=document.getElementsByTagName('object'); x.[0].width='350'; x.[0].height='350'; x.[1].width='350'; x.[1].height='350'; </script> For reference, here's a sample default Youtube embed that the code might alter: <object width="480" height="385"> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube-nocookie.com/v/zSgiXGELjbc&hl=en_US&fs=1&rel=0"></param> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param> <embed src="http://www.youtube-nocookie.com/v/zSgiXGELjbc&hl=en_US&fs=1&rel=0" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="480" height="385"></embed> </object> In Chrome, the video players sit perfectly in a 350x350 box. In IE and FF (latest versions), the videos are the unchanged, normal size. I cannot find anything in Google that explans why this won't work. I have tried using setattribute, for loops, adjusting both and , single-quotes and double-quotes, etc. Any ideas what is going wrong?

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  • Simple jQuery toggle() and return false inside click()

    - by Casey Stark
    I'm mostly a djangonaut and phper, but I'm getting javascript development. I've been looking at this very simple block for a feedback widget on a page. The code is pretty self-explanatory. <a id="feedback-widget-toggle" href="[feedback_url]">Feedback</a> <div id="feedback-widget"> <form method="POST" action="[form_url]"> ... </form> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#feedback-widget-toggle").click(function() { $("#feedback-widget").toggle("slide", {}, 500); return false; }); }); </script> It's really simple. So simple that I feel pretty dumb for this one. The jQuery is just supposed to disable the link and slide out the feedback-widget div. That's it. I'm new to jQuery, so it's probably some very simple syntax error that I'm not sure how to debug well enough. Thanks.

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  • C# ref Confusion

    - by Rahat
    I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

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  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

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  • iphone: cross platform references and referencing external framework resources

    - by dan
    hi there working on an iphone app and separate framework. the separate framework is for an API that i'm building for use in multiple future apps. this api now needs to reference resources (images). what i would like to do is keep the resources WITH the API framework as local set of resources. i followed the instructions from http://www.clintharris.net/2009/iphone-app-shared-libraries/ to setup my app's project to use the headers from the separate API framework. what i can't seem to figure out is how to automatically load the framework's resources into the app's xcode environment so they can be linked in at app compile time. sure, i can drag the resources across from the framework into the main app's set of resources. but that seems kinda ugly and another step that possibly can be automated (??) anyone know of a better way? it would be great if any changes from the framework would be automatically available in the main app (due to the project 'link-age'). thanks for any help/tips/suggestions...

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  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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  • Technical choices in unmarshaling hash-consed data

    - by Pascal Cuoq
    There seems to be quite a bit of folklore knowledge floating about in restricted circles about the pitfalls of hash-consing combined with marshaling-unmarshaling of data. I am looking for citable references to these tidbits. For instance, someone once pointed me to library aterm and mentioned that the authors had clearly thought about this and that the representation on disk was bottom-up (children of a node come before the node itself in the data stream). This is indeed the right way to do things when you need to re-share each node (with a possible identical node already in memory). This re-sharing pass needs to be done bottom-up, so the unmarshaling itself might as well be, too, so that it's possible to do everything in a single pass. I am in the process of describing difficulties encountered in our own context, and the solutions we found. I would appreciate any citable reference to the kind of aforementioned folklore knowledge. Some people obviously have encountered the problems before (the aterm library is only one example). But I didn't find anything in writing. Even the little piece of information I have about aterm is hear-say. I am not worried it's not reliable (you can't make this up), but "personal communication" and "look how it's done in the source code" are considered poor form in citations. I have enough references on hash-consing alone. I am only interested in references where it interferes with other aspects of programming, such as marshaling or distribution.

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  • Explaining the forecasts from an ARIMA model

    - by Samik R.
    I am trying to explain to myself the forecasting result from applying an ARIMA model to a time-series dataset. The data is from the M1-Competition, the series is MNB65. For quick reference, I have a google doc spreadsheet with the data. I am trying to fit the data to an ARIMA(1,0,0) model and get the forecasts. I am using R. Here are some output snippets: > arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)) Series: x ARIMA(1,0,0) with non-zero mean Call: arima(x = x, order = c(1, 0, 0)) Coefficients: ar1 intercept 0.9421 12260.298 s.e. 0.0474 202.717 > predict(arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)), n.ahead=12) $pred Time Series: Start = 53 End = 64 Frequency = 1 [1] 11757.39 11786.50 11813.92 11839.75 11864.09 11887.02 11908.62 11928.97 11948.15 11966.21 11983.23 11999.27 I have a few questions: (1) How do I explain that although the dataset shows a clear downward trend, the forecast from this model trends upward. This also happens for ARIMA(2,0,0), which is the best ARIMA fit for the data using auto.arima (forecast package) and for an ARIMA(1,0,1) model. (2) The intercept value for the ARIMA(1,0,0) model is 12260.298. Shouldn't the intercept satisfy the equation: C = mean * (1 - sum(AR coeffs)), in which case, the value should be 715.52. I must be missing something basic here. (3) This is clearly a series with non-stationary mean. Why is an AR(2) model still selected as the best model by auto.arima? Could there be an intuitive explanation? Thanks.

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  • How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

    - by marue
    I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

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  • binding a command inside a listbox item to a property on the viewmodel parent

    - by giddy
    I've been working on this for about an hour and looked at all related SO questions. My problem is very simple: I have HomePageVieModel: HomePageVieModel +IList<NewsItem> AllNewsItems +ICommand OpenNewsItem My markup: <Window DataContext="{Binding HomePageViewModel../> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=AllNewsItems}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock> <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNews}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=NewsContent}" /> </Hyperlink> </TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> The list shows fine with all the items, but for the life of me whatever I try for the Command won't work: <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNewsItem, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=vm:HomePageViewModel, AncestorLevel=1}}"> <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNewsItem, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=vm:HomePageViewModel,**Mode=FindAncestor}**}"> <Hyperlink Command="{Binding Path=OpenNewsItem, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=vm:HomePageViewModel,**Mode=TemplatedParent}**}"> I just always get : System.Windows.Data Error: 4 : Cannot find source for binding with reference .....

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  • Designing a class in such a way that it doesn't become a "God object"

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm designing an application that will allow me to draw some functions on a graphic. Each function will be drawn from a set of points that I will pass to this graphic class. There are different kinds of points, all inheriting from a MyPoint class. For some kind of points it will be just printing them on the screen as they are, others can be ignored, others added, so there is some kind of logic associated to them that can get complex. How to actually draw the graphic is not the main issue here. What bothers me is how to make the code logic such that this GraphicMaker class doesn't become the so called God-Object. It would be easy to make something like this: class GraphicMaker { ArrayList<Point> points = new ArrayList<Point>(); public void AddPoint(Point point) { points.add(point); } public void DoDrawing() { foreach (Point point in points) { if (point is PointA) { //some logic here else if (point is PointXYZ) { //...etc } } } } How would you do something like this? I have a feeling the correct way would be to put the drawing logic on each Point object (so each child class from Point would know how to draw itself) but two problems arise: There will be kinds of points that need to know all the other points that exist in the GraphicObject class to know how to draw themselves. I can make a lot of the methods/properties from the Graphic class public, so that all the points have a reference to the Graphic class and can make all their logic as they want, but isn't that a big price to pay for not wanting to have a God class?

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  • Dangling pointers and double free

    - by user151410
    After some painful experiences, I understand the problem of dangling pointers and double free. I am seeking proper solutions. aStruct has a number of fields including other arrays. aStruct *A=NULL, *B = NULL; A = (aStruct*) calloc(1, sizeof(sStruct)); B = A; free_aStruct(A); ... //bunch of other code in various places. ... free_aStruct(B); Is there any way to write free_aStruct(X) so that free_aStruct(B) exists gracefully?? void free_aStruct(aStruct *X){ if (X ! = NULL){ if (X->a != NULL){free(X->a); x->a = NULL;} free(X); X = NULL; } } Doing above only sets A = NULL when free_aStruct(A); is called. B is now dangling. How can this situation be avoided / remedied? Is reference counting the only viable solution? or, are there other "defensive" free approaches, to prevent free_aStruct(B); from exploding? Thanks, Russ

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  • How can I compare market data feed sources for quality and latency improvement?

    - by yves Baumes
    I am in the very first stages of implementing a tool to compare 2 market data feed sources in order to prove the quality of new developed sources to my boss ( meaning there are no regressions, no missed updates, or wrong ), and to prove latencies improvement. So the tool I need must be able to check updates differences as well as to tell which source is the best (in term of latency). Concrectly, reference source could be Reuters while the other one is a Feed handler we develop internally. People warned me that updates might not arrive in the same order as Reuters implementation could differs totally from ours. Therefore a simple algorithm based on the fact that updates could arrive in the same order is likely not to work. My very first idea would be to use fingerprint to compare feed sources, as Shazaam application does to find the title of the tube you are submitting. Google told me it is based on FFT. And I was wondering if signal processing theory could behaves well with market access applications. I wanted to know your own experience in that field, is that possible to develop a quite accurate algorithm to meet the needs? What was your own idea? What do you think about fingerprint based comparison?

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  • Hibernate noob fetch join problem

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I have two classes, Test2 and Test3. Test2 has an attribute test3 that is an instance of Test3. In other words, I have a unidirectional OneToOne association, with test2 having a reference to test3. When I select Test2 from the db, I can see that a separate select is being made to get the details of the associated test3 class. This is the famous 1+N selects problem. To fix this to use a single select, I am trying to use the fetch=join annotation, which I understand to be @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) However, with fetch set to join, I still see separate selects. Here are the relevant portions of my setup.. hibernate.cfg.xml: <property name="max_fetch_depth">2</property> Test2: public class Test2 { @OneToOne (cascade=CascadeType.ALL , fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn (name="test3_id") @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) public Test3 getTest3() { return test3; } NB I set the FetchType to EAGER out of desperation, even though it defaults to EAGER anyway for OneToOne mappings, but it made no difference. Thanks for any help! Edit: I've pretty much given up on trying to use FetchMode.JOIN - can anyone confirm that they have got it to work ie produce a left outer join? In the docs I see that "Usually, the mapping document is not used to customize fetching. Instead, we keep the default behavior, and override it for a particular transaction, using left join fetch in HQL" If I do a left join fetch instead: query = session.createQuery("from Test2 t2 left join fetch t2.test3"); then I do indeed get the results I want - ie a left outer join in the query.

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  • Rails - Scalable calculation model

    - by H O
    I currently have a calculation structure in my rails app that has models metric, operand and operation_type. Presently, the metric model has many operands, and can perform calculations based on the operation_type (e.g. sum, multiply, etc.), and each operand is defined as being right or left (i.e. so that if the operation is division, the numerator and denominator can be identified). Presently, an operand is always an attribute of some model, e.g. @customer.sales.selling_price.sum. In order to make this scalable, in need to allow an operand to be either an attribute of some kind, or the results of a previous operation, i.e. an operand can be a metric. I have included a diagram of how my models currently look: Can anyone assist me with the most elegant way of allowing an operand to be an actual operand, or another metric? Thanks! EDIT: It seems based on the only answer so far that perhaps polymorphic associations are the way to go on this, but the answer is so brief I have no idea how they could be used in this way - can anyone elaborate? EDIT 2: OK, I think I'm getting somewhere - essentially i presently have a metric, which has_many operands, and an operand has_many metrics. I need a polymorphic self join, where a metric can also have many metrics - do I need to call this something else, perhaps calculated_metrics, so that the metric model can use itself? That would leave me with a situation where a metric has_many operands, and a metric has many calculated_metrics.

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  • ASP.NET/C#: How to use a Subclassed Control on a Page?

    - by Bob Kaufman
    I've subclassed DropDownList to add functionality specific to my application: public class MyDropDownList : DropDownList { ... } ... then referenced it in Web.Config, which is where I figure things start to go wrong: <pages theme="Main"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="bob" tagName="MyDropDownList" src="~/Components/MyDropDownList.cs" /> </controls> </pages> my reference to it does not work: <tr><td>Category</td> <td><bob:MyDropDownList runat="server" ID="Category"... /> and my best clue is the complier error message: "The file 'src' is not a valid [sic] here because it doesn't expose a type." I figure I'm misapplying knowledge of how to create a Web User Control here. What I want to be able to do is refer to this control on an ASP.NET page just like I would the parent DropDownList. Refactoring back into a Web User Control that contains a DropDownList is not desirable, because I want to apply a RequiredFieldValidator to it.

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  • C# Configuration Manager . ConnectionStrings

    - by Yoda
    I have a console app containing an application configuration file containing one connection string as shown below: <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="Target" connectionString="server=MYSERVER; Database=MYDB; Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> When I pass this to my Connection using: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[1].ToString() I have two values in there, hence using the second in the collection, my question is where is this second coming from? I have checked the Bin version and original and its not mine! Its obviously a system generated one but I have not seen this before? Can anyone enlighten me? The mystery connection string is: data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Integrated Security=SSPI;AttachDBFilename=|DataDirectory|aspnetdb.mdf;User Instance=true This isn't a problem as such I would just like to know why this is occuring? Thanks in advance! For future reference to those who may or may not stumble on this, after discovering the machine.config its become apparent it is bad practice to refer to a config by its index as each stack will potentially be different, which is why "Keys" are used. Cheers all!

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  • Copy and paste between sheets in a workbook with VBA code

    - by Hannah
    Trying to write a macro in VBA for Excel to look at the value in a certain column from each row of data in a list and if that value is "yes" then it copies and pastes the entire row onto a different sheet in the same workbook. Let's name the two sheets "Data" and "Final". I want to have the sheets referenced so it does not matter which sheet I have open when it runs the code. I was going to use a Do loop to cycle through the rows on the one data sheet until it finds there are no more entries, and if statements to check the values. I am confused about how to switch from one sheet to the next. How do I specifically reference cells in different sheets? Here is the pseudocode I had in mind: Do while DataCells(x,1).Value <> " " for each DataCells(x,1).Value="NO" if DataCells(x,2).Value > DataCells(x,3).Value or _ DataCells(x,4).Value < DataCells(x,5).Value 'Copy and paste/insert row x from Data to Final sheet adding a new 'row for each qualifying row else x=x+1 end else if DataCells(x,1).Value="YES" Loop 'copy and paste entire row to a third sheet 'continue this cycle until all rows in the data sheet are examined

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  • Execute codes in a different page but remain on the same actual php page

    - by chupinette
    I have a complicated problem here..I have codes to send mail using PEAR which i have tested in a php page called testmail.php. Now i have my actual application an a page called Cart.php where i have a button called Place Order. When i click on this button, it actually redirects to a url called : http://localhost/final/index.php?OrderSuccessful which actually displays a message on the page and sends an email. The problem is that when i put the code for email in Cart.php, i get errors. But when i put the url http://localhost/final/testmail.php it actually works. So i was thinking, is there a way to execute the codes from that testmail.php by remaining on the page Cart.php? include('Mail.php'); $mail = Mail::factory("mail"); $headers = array("From"=>"[email protected]", "Subject"=>"Your order has been placed "); $body = "lol"; $mail->send("[email protected]", $headers, $body); I get the error Assigning the return value of new by reference is deprecated

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