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  • how do i make the app take correct input..?

    - by user1824343
    This is my windows app's one layout which converts Celsius to Fahrenheit. The problem is that when I try to input the temperature it shows some junk(for eg: if i enter '3' it displayin '3.0000009') and sometimes its even showing stack overflow exception. The output is also not shown properly : cel.text is the textbox for celsius. fahre.text is the textbox for fahrenheit. namespace PanoramaApp1 { public partial class FahretoCel : PhoneApplicationPage { public FahretoCel() { InitializeComponent(); } private void fahre_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (fahre.Text != "") { try { double F = Convert.ToDouble(fahre.Text); cel.Text = "" + ((5.0/9.0) * (F - 32)) ; //this is conversion expression } catch (FormatException) { fahre.Text = ""; cel.Text = ""; } } else { cel.Text = ""; } } private void cel_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (cel.Text != "") { try { Double c = Convert.ToDouble(cel.Text); fahre.Text = "" + ((c *(9.0 / 5.0 )) + 32); } catch (FormatException) { fahre.Text = ""; cel.Text = ""; } } else { fahre.Text = ""; } } } }

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  • How to merge two icons together? (overlay one icon on top of another)

    - by demoncodemonkey
    I've got two 16x16 RGB/A .ICO icon files, each loaded into a separate System.Drawing.Icon object. How would you create a new Icon object containing the merge of the two icons (one overlaid on top of the other)? Edit: I probably wasn't too clear, I don't want to blend two images into each other, I want to overlay one icon on top of another. I should add that the icons already contain transparent parts and I do not need any transparent "blending" to make both icons visible. What I need is to overlay the non-transparent pixels of one icon over the top of another icon. The transparent pixels should let the background icon show through. For example, look at the stackoverflow icon. It has some areas that are grey and orange, and some areas that are totally transparent. Imagine you want to overlay the SO icon on top of the Firefox icon. You would see the greys and oranges of the SO icon in full colour, and where the SO icon is transparent, you would see those parts of the Firefox icon.

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  • How to update csv column names with database table header

    - by user1523311
    I am facing this problem some past days and now frustrate because I have to do it. I need to update my CSV file columns name with database table header. My database table fields are different from CSV file. Now the problem is that first I want to update column name of CSV file with database table headers and then import its data with field mapping into database. Please help me I don't know how I can solve this. This is my php code: $file = $_POST['fileName']; $filename = "../files/" . $file; $list = $_POST['str']; $array_imp = implode(',', $list); $array_exp = explode(',', $array_imp); $fp = fopen("../files/" . $file, "w"); $num = count($fp); for ($c = 0; $c < $num; $c++) { if ($fp[c] !== '') { fputcsv($fp, $array_exp); } } fclose($fp);

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  • Problem FlashVars parameter asp.net

    - by sofie-vo
    Code for asp.net page <%@ Page Language="VB" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeFile="trainingupload.aspx.vb" Inherits="trainingupload" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div height> <object width="1000" height="800"> <param name="movie" value="player.swf" /> <param name="FlashVars" value='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" '/> <embed src="bin-release/trainingscentrum.swf" FlashVars='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" ' width="1500" height="800" /> </embed> </object> </div> </form> </body> </html> Code behind Public Function getuser() As Guid Dim user As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() Dim userid As Guid = (CType(user.ProviderUserKey, Guid)) Return userid End Function In the code above I use an function to return the userid. When I replace <%=String.Format(getuser())% with an actual userid, I get the value in my flex application. But this code returns nothing. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Returning objects in php

    - by user220201
    I see similar questions asked but I seem to have problem with more basic stuff than were asked. How to declare a variable in php? My specific problem is I have a function that reads a DB table and returns the record (only one) as an object. class User{ public $uid; public $name; public $status; } function GetUserInfo($uid) { // Query DB $userObj = new User(); // convert the result into the User object. var_dump($userObj); return $userObj; } // In another file I call the above function. .... $newuser = GetUserInfo($uid); var_dump($newuser); What is the problem here, I cannot understand. Essentially the var_dump() in the function GetUserInfo() works fine. The var_dump() outside after the call to GetUserInfo() does not work. Thanks for any help. S

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  • Mixing stored procedures and ORM

    - by Jason
    The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

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  • How can I make this simple C# generics factory work?

    - by Kevin Brassen
    I have this design: public interface IFactory<T> { T Create(); T CreateWithSensibleDefaults(); } public class AppleFactory : IFactory<Apple> { ... } public class BananaFactory : IFactory<Banana> { ... } // ... The fictitious Apple and Banana here do not necessarily share any common types (other than object, of course). I don't want clients to have to depend on specific factories, so instead, you can just ask a FactoryManager for a new type. It has a FactoryForType method: IFactory<T> FactoryForType<T>(); Now you can invoke the appropriate interface methods with something like FactoryForType<Apple>().Create(). So far, so good. But there's a problem at the implementation level: how do I store this mapping from types to IFactory<T>s? The naive answer is an IDictionary<Type, IFactory<T>>, but that doesn't work since there's no type covariance on the T (I'm using C# 3.5). Am I just stuck with an IDictionary<Type, object> and doing the casting manually?

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  • Which way to store this data is effective?

    - by Tattat
    I am writing a game, which need a map, and I want to store the map. The first thing I can think of, is using a 2D-array. But the problem is what data should I store in the 2D-array. The player can tap different place to have different reaction. So, I am thinking store a 2D-array with objects, when player click some position, and I find it in the array, and use the object in that array to execute a cmd. But I have a concern that storing lots of object may use lots of memory. So, I am think storing char/int only. But it seems that not enough for me. I want to store the data like that: { Type:1 Color:Green } No matter what color is, if they are all type 1, the have same reactions in logic, but the visual effect is based on the color. So, it is not easy to store using a prue char/int data, unless I make something like this: 1-5 --> all type 1. 1=color green , 2=color red, 3 = color yellow.... ... 6-10 --> all type 2. 2 = color green, 2 = color red ... ... So, do you have any ideas on how to minimize the ram use, but also easy for me to read... ...thx

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  • if a JAR is placed on app servers's classpath how do we reference it from JSP

    - by Omnipresent
    On our application we are getting an error saying: PWC6117: File "/struts-tags" not found code in the file thats giving error is: <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags" %> This file is in struts2-core.jar which is placed on the classpath of the app server (Sun 9.1). The code will work fine and not complain when the jar is actually in WEB-INF/lib of the application, compared to being on classpath of the appserver. But we can not change that. it has to be on appservers classpath. But how should we change our code so that this error goes away? I can create mapping in my web.xml so that tag uri's are change. but what should taglib-location be changed to? so that it references to app servers classpath? <taglib> <taglib-uri>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-uri> <taglib-location>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-location> </taglib>

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  • java + increasing performance and scalability

    - by varun
    Hi, below is the a code snippet, which returns the object of a class. now the object is basially comparing to some parameter in loop. my concern is what if there are thousands of objects in loop, in that case performance and scalability can be an issue. please suggest how to improve this code for performance part public Widget get(String name,int major,int minor,boolean exact) { Widget widgetToReturn = null; if(exact) { Widget w = new Widget(name, major, minor); // for loop using JDK 1.5 version for(Widget wid : set) { if((w.getName().equals(wid.getName())) && (wid.getVersion()).equals(w.getVersion())) { widgetToReturn = w; break; } } } else { Widget w = new Widget(name, major, minor); WidgetVersion widgetVersion = new WidgetVersion(major, minor); // for loop using JDK 1.5 version for(Widget wid : set) { WidgetVersion wv = wid.getVersion(); if((w.getName().equals(wid.getName())) && major == wv.getMajor() && WidgetVersion.isCompatibleAndNewer(wv, widgetVersion)) { widgetToReturn = wid; } else if((w.getName().equals(wid.getName())) && wv.equals(widgetVersion.getMajor(), widgetVersion.getMinor())) { widgetToReturn = w; } } } return widgetToReturn; }

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  • BufferedImage & ColorModel in Java

    - by spol
    I am using a image processing library in java to manipulate images.The first step I do is I read an image and create a java.awt.Image.BufferedImage object. I do it in this way, BufferedImage sourceImage = ImageIO.read( new File( filePath ) ); The above code creates a BufferedImage ojbect with a DirectColorModel: rmask=ff0000 gmask=ff00 bmask=ff amask=0. This is what happens when I run the above code on my macbook. But when I run this same code on a linux machine (hosted server), this creates a BufferedImage object with ColorModel: #pixelBits = 24 numComponents = 3 color space = java.awt.color.ICC_ColorSpace@c39a20 transparency = 1 has alpha = false isAlphaPre = false. And I use the same jpg image in both the cases. I don't know why the color model on the same image is different when run on mac and linux. The colormodel for mac has 4 components and the colormodel for linux has 3 components.There is a problem arising because of this, the image processing library that I use always assumes that there are always 4 components in the colormodel of the image passed, and it throws array out of bounds exception when run on linux box. But on macbook, it runs fine. I am not sure if I am doing something wrong or there is a problem with the library. Please let me know your thoughts. Also ask me any questions if I am not making sense!

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  • What is the best approach to embed mp4 for the iPhone without using JavaScript?

    - by usingtechnology
    I am trying to troubleshoot this code and am running into a dead-end, so I thought I would ask my first question here. I have three questions: 1) What is the best approach to embed an mp4 for an iPhone specific view, preferably without using Javascript? 2) Are there any preferred practices to debug code on an iPhone? 3) Can anyone tell me what is wrong with my specific code below? I should mention upfront that the variable $fileName does indeed contain the correct info, I've just omitted that portion of the code. Also, the poster image does flicker for a brief moment before I receive the greyed out, broken QuickTime image so that is an indication that this is partially working. Code: <object width="448" height="335" classid="clsid:02BF25D5-8C17-4B23-BC80-D3488ABDDC6B" codebase="http://www.apple.com/qtactivex/qtplugin.cab"> <param name="src" value="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" /> <param name="href" value="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" /> <param name="target" value="myself" /> <param name="controller" value="true" /> <param name="autoplay" value="false" /> <param name="scale" value="aspect" /> <embed src="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" href="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" type="video/mp4" target="myself" width="448" height="335" scale="aspect" controller="false" autoplay="false"> </embed> </object>

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  • How to do something when AVQueuePlayer finishes the last playeritem

    - by user1634529
    I've got an AVQueuePlayer which I'm creating from an array of 4 AVPlayerItems, and it all plays fine. I want to do something when the last item in the queue finishes playing, I've looked a load of answers on here and this is the one that looks most promising for what I want: The best way to execute code AFTER a sound has finished playing In my button handler i have this code: static const NSString *ItemStatusContext; [thePlayerItemA addObserver:self forKeyPath:@"status" options:0 context:&ItemStatusContext]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(playerItemDidReachEnd) name:AVPlayerItemDidPlayToEndTimeNotification object:thePlayerItemA]; theQueuePlayer = [AVQueuePlayer playerWithPlayerItem:thePlayerItemA]; [theQueuePlayer play]; and then I have a function to handle playerItemDidReachEnd: - (void)playerItemDidReachEnd:(NSNotification *)notification { // Do stuff here NSLog(@"IT REACHED THE END"); } But when I run this I get an Internal Inconsistency Exception: An -observeValueForKeyPath:ofObject:change:context: message was received but not handled. Key path: status Observed object: <AVPlayerItem: 0x735a130, asset = <AVURLAsset: 0x73559c0, URL = file://localhost/Users/mike/Library/Application%20Support/iPhone%20Simulator/5.0/Applications/A0DBEC13-2DA6-4887-B29D-B43A78E173B8/Phonics%2001.app/yes.mp3>> Change: { kind = 1; } What am I doing wrong?

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  • deployd authentification using jquery ajax

    - by user2507987
    I have installed deployd in my debian 7.0.0 64 bit, I have also succesfully installed mongodb in it, I have create some collection and user collection in deployd dashboard, then using user guide how to connect and query the table in deployd, I choose jquery ajax to log in to deployd from my localhost site and after login success I try to get/post some data, but somehow deployd return access denied. I have create collection name it people, and then at the GET, POST, PUT Event I have write this code : cancelUnless(me, "You are not logged in", 401); then using this ajax code, I try to login and POST new people data: $(document).ready(function(){ /* Create query for username and password for login */ var request = new Object; request.username = 'myusername'; request.password = 'mypassword'; submitaddress = "http://myipaddress:myport/users/login"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress, data: request, cache: false, success: function(data){ var returndata = eval(data); /* After Login success try to post people data */ if (returndata){ var request2 = new Object; request2.name = 'People Name'; submitaddress2 = "http://myipaddress:myport/people"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress2, data: request2, cache: false, success: function(){ } }) } } } }); }) The login process success, it's return session id and my user id, but after login success and I try to POST people data it's return "You are not logged in", can anyone help me, what is the correct way to login to deployd using jquery from other website(cross domain)?

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  • Any techniques to interrupt, kill, or otherwise unwind (releasing synchronization locks) a single de

    - by gojomo
    I have a long-running process where, due to a bug, a trivial/expendable thread is deadlocked with a thread which I would like to continue, so that it can perform some final reporting that would be hard to reproduce in another way. Of course, fixing the bug for future runs is the proper ultimate resolution. Of course, any such forced interrupt/kill/stop of any thread is inherently unsafe and likely to cause other unpredictable inconsistencies. (I'm familiar with all the standard warnings and the reasons for them.) But still, since the only alternative is to kill the JVM process and go through a more lengthy procedure which would result in a less-complete final report, messy/deprecated/dangerous/risky/one-time techniques are exactly what I'd like to try. The JVM is Sun's 1.6.0_16 64-bit on Ubuntu, and the expendable thread is waiting-to-lock an object monitor. Can an OS signal directed to an exact thread create an InterruptedException in the expendable thread? Could attaching with gdb, and directly tampering with JVM data or calling JVM procedures allow a forced-release of the object monitor held by the expendable thread? Would a Thread.interrupt() from another thread generate a InterruptedException from the waiting-to-lock frame? (With some effort, I can inject an arbitrary beanshell script into the running system.) Can the deprecated Thread.stop() be sent via JMX or any other remote-injection method? Any ideas appreciated, the more 'dangerous', the better! And, if your suggestion has worked in personal experience in a similar situation, the best!

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  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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  • How to implement iterator as an attribute of a class in Java

    - by de3
    Hi, let's say I have this simple MyArray class, with two simple methods: add, delete and an iterator. In the main method we can see how it is supposed to be used: public class MyArray { int start; int end; int[] arr; myIterator it; public MyArray(){ this.start=0; this.end=0; this.arr=new int[500]; it=new myIterator(); } public void add(int el){ this.arr[this.end]=el; this.end++; } public void delete(){ this.arr[this.start]=0; this.start++; } public static void main(String[] args){ MyArray m=new MyArray(); m.add(3); m.add(299); m.add(19); m.add(27); while(m.it.hasNext()){ System.out.println(m.it.next()); } } And then MyIterator should be implemented somehow: import java.util.Iterator; public class myIterator implements Iterator{ @Override public boolean hasNext() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } @Override public Object next() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public void remove() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } MyIterator should iterate arr from MyArray class, from start to end values; both are also attributes of MyArray. So, as MyIterator should use MyArray attributes, how should MyIterator be implemented? Perhaps I can send the current object in the initialization: it=new myIterator(this); But I guess it's not the best soultion. Or maybe MyArray itself should implement Iterator interface? How is this solved?

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  • How do I assign a rotating category to database entries in the order the records come in?

    - by Stomped
    I have a table which gets entries from a website, and as those entries go into the database, they need to be assigned the next category on a list of categories that may be changed at any time. Because of this reason I can't do something simple like for mapping the first category of 5 to IDs 1, 6, 11, 16. I've considered reading in the list of currently possibly categories, and checking the value of the last one inserted, and then giving the new record the next category, but I imagine if two requests come in at the same moment, I could potentially assign them both the same category rather then in sequence. So, my current round of thinking is the following: lock the tables ( categories and records ) insert the newest row into records get the newest row's ID select the row previous to the insertl ( by using order by auto_inc_name desc 0, 1 ) take the previous row's category, and grab the next one from the cat list update the new inserted row unlock the table I'm not 100% sure this will work right, and there's possibly a much easier way to do it, so I'm asking: A. Will this work as I described in the original problem? B. Do you have a better/easier way to do this? Thanks ~

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  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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  • Problem accessing private variables in jQuery like chainable design pattern

    - by novogeek
    Hi folks, I'm trying to create my custom toolbox which imitates jQuery's design pattern. Basically, the idea is somewhat derived from this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2061501/jquery-plugin-design-pattern-common-practice-for-dealing-with-private-function (Check the answer given by "David"). So here is my toolbox function: (function(window){ var mySpace=function(){ return new PrivateSpace(); } var PrivateSpace=function(){ var testCache={}; }; PrivateSpace.prototype={ init:function(){ console.log('init this:', this); return this; }, ajax:function(){ console.log('make ajax calls here'); return this; }, cache:function(key,selector){ console.log('cache selectors here'); testCache[key]=selector; console.log('cached selector: ',testCache); return this; } } window.hmis=window.m$=mySpace(); })(window) Now, if I execute this function like: console.log(m$.cache('firstname','#FirstNameTextbox')); I get an error 'testCache' is not defined. I'm not able to access the variable "testCache" inside my cache function of the prototype. How should I access it? Basically, what I want to do is, I want to cache all my jQuery selectors into an object and use this object in the future.

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  • In Ruby or Python can the very idea of Class be rewritten?

    - by John Berryman
    Howdy All... first time at stack overflow. I'm looking into using some of the metaprogramming features provided by Ruby or Python, but first I need to know the extent to which they will allow me to extend the language. The main thing I need to be able to do is to rewrite the concept of Class. This doesn't mean that I want to rewrite a specific class during run time, but rather I want to make my own conceptualization of what a Class is. To be a smidge more specific here, I want to make something that is like what people normally call a Class, but I want to follow an "open world" assumption. In the "closed world" of normal Classes, if I declare Poodle to be a subclass of Dog to be a subclass of Animal, then I know that Poodle is not going to also be a type of FurCoat. However, in an open world Class, then the Poodle object I've defined may or may not be and object of type FurCoat and we won't know for sure until I explain that I can wear the poodle. (Poor poodle.) This all has to do with a study I'm doing concerning OWL ontologies. Just so you know, I've tried to find information online, but due to the overloading of terms here I haven't found anything helpful. Super thanks, John

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  • Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

    - by Michal Bachman
    I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

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  • Class with property referenced with dll not serializing

    - by djerry
    Hey guys, I got this class TapiCall. It has 4 properties : 2 datetimes, 1 string and an object. The object is a class that's referenced by Atapi3.dll, so i cannot alter it. My class TapiCall looks like this : [DataContract] public class TapiCall { private DateTime start, end; private TCall call; private string status; [DataMember] public string Status { get { return status; } set { status = value; } } [DataMember] public TCall Call { get { return call; } set { call = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime End { get { return end; } set { end = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime Start { get { return start; } set { start = value; } } public TapiCall() { } public TapiCall(DateTime start, DateTime end, TCall call) { this.Start = start; this.End = end; this.Call = call; } } Now when i use my visual studio command line, to generate my proxy class, it generates an error. When i remove TapiCall from the method in my app, i can rebuild my proxy again, so i know [OperationContract] void StuurUpdatedCall(TapiCall tpCall); is causing the problem. My question now is can i Serialize a class that's referenced by a dll? Thanks in advance.

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  • lambda expressions in VB.NET... what am I doing wrong???

    - by Bob
    when I run this C# code, no problems... but when I translate it into VB.NET it compiles but blows due to 'CompareString' member not being allowed in the expression... I feel like I'm missing something key here... private void PrintButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1) { //Context using (ClientOM.ClientContext ctx = new ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text)) { //Get selected list string listTitle = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString(); ClientOM.Web site = ctx.Web; ctx.Load(site, s => s.Lists.Where(l => l.Title == listTitle)); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); ClientOM.List list = site.Lists[0]; //Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, l => l.Fields.Where(f => f.Hidden == false && (f.CanBeDeleted == true || f.InternalName == "Title"))); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); //Get items for the list ClientOM.ListItemCollection listItems = list.GetItems( ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()); ctx.Load(listItems); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); // DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE } MessageBox.Show("Document Created!"); } } but in VB.NET code this errors due to not being allowed 'CompareString' members in the ctx.Load() methods... Private Sub PrintButton_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) If ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1 Then 'Context Using ctx As New ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text) 'Get selected list Dim listTitle As String = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString() Dim site As ClientOM.Web = ctx.Web ctx.Load(site, Function(s) s.Lists.Where(Function(l) l.Title = listTitle)) ctx.ExecuteQuery() Dim list As ClientOM.List = site.Lists(0) 'Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, Function(l) l.Fields.Where(Function(f) f.Hidden = False AndAlso (f.CanBeDeleted = True OrElse f.InternalName = "Title"))) ctx.ExecuteQuery() 'Get items for the list Dim listItems As ClientOM.ListItemCollection = list.GetItems(ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()) ctx.Load(listItems) ' DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE ctx.ExecuteQuery() End Using MessageBox.Show("Document Created!") End If End Sub

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  • How do software events work internally?

    - by Duddle
    Hello! I am a student of Computer Science and have learned many of the basic concepts of what is going on "under the hood" while a computer program is running. But recently I realized that I do not understand how software events work efficiently. In hardware, this is easy: instead of the processor "busy waiting" to see if something happened, the component sends an interrupt request. But how does this work in, for example, a mouse-over event? My guess is as follows: if the mouse sends a signal ("moved"), the operating system calculates its new position p, then checks what program is being drawn on the screen, tells that program position p, then the program itself checks what object is at p, checks if any event handlers are associated with said object and finally fires them. That sounds terribly inefficient to me, since a tiny mouse movement equates to a lot of cpu context switches (which I learned are relatively expensive). And then there are dozens of background applications that may want to do stuff of their own as well. Where is my intuition failing me? I realize that even "slow" 500MHz processors do 500 million operations per second, but still it seems too much work for such a simple event. Thanks in advance!

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