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  • how avoids deadlock condition

    - by rima
    Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

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  • How can "today's date" be varied for unit testing purposes?

    - by ck
    I use VS2008 targetting .NET 2.0 Framework, and, just in case, no I can't change this :) I have a DateCalculator class. Its method GetNextExpirationDate attempts to determine the next expiration, internally using DateTime.Today as a baseline date. As I was writing unit tests, I realized that I wanted to test GetNextExpirationDate for different 'today' dates. What's the best way to do this? Here are some alternatives I've considered: Expose a property/overloaded method with argument baselineDate and only use it from the unit test. In actual client code, disregard the property/overloaded method in favour of the method that defaults baselineDate to DateTime.Today. I'm reluctant to do this as it makes the public interface of the DateCalculator class awkward. Create a protected field called baselineDate that is internally set to DateTime.Today. When testing, derive a DateCalculatorForTesting from DateCalculator and set baslineDate via the constructor. It keeps the public interface clean, but still isn't great - baselineDate was made protected and a derived class is required, both solely for testing. Use extension methods. I tried this after adding the ExtensionAttribute, then realized it wouldn't work because extension methods can't access private/protected variables. I initially thought this was really quite an elegant solution. :( I'd be interested in hearing what others think.

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  • What's your preferred pointer declaration style, and why?

    - by Owen
    I know this is about as bad as it gets for "religious" issues, as Jeff calls them. But I want to know why the people who disagree with me on this do so, and hear their justification for their horrific style. I googled for a while and couldn't find a style guide talking about this. So here's how I feel pointers (and references) should be declared: int* pointer = NULL; int& ref = *pointer; int*& pointer_ref = pointer; The asterisk or ampersand goes with the type, because it modifies the type of the variable being declared. EDIT: I hate to keep repeating the word, but when I say it modifies the type I'm speaking semantically. "int* something;" would translate into English as something like "I declare something, which is a pointer to an integer." The "pointer" goes along with the "integer" much more so than it does with the "something." In contrast, the other uses of the ampersand and asterisk, as address-of and dereferencing operators, act on a variable. Here are the other two styles (maybe there are more but I really hope not): int *ugly_but_common; int * uglier_but_fortunately_less_common; Why? Really, why? I can never think of a case where the second is appropriate, and the first only suitable perhaps with something like: int *hag, *beast; But come now... multiple variable declarations on one line is kind of ugly form in itself already.

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  • Looks like COM object is created, but JScript fails to get a reference

    - by damix911
    I'm using the following code to create a COM component that I have developed and registered. var mycom = new ActiveXObject("Mirabilis.ComponentServices.1"); mycom.SetFirstNumber(5); mycom.SetSecondNumber(3); The first line runs fine, while if I alter the ProgID (that is, the string passed to ActiveXObject) I get the message Automation server can't create object. This suggests that at least the basics of the registration mechanism are working properly. I integrated some logging calls into the DLL. When I run the script I get the proof into the log file that both this call to QueryInterface: STDAPI DllGetClassObject( const CLSID &clsid, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddFactory *pAddFact = new CAddFactory; ... HRESULT hr = pAddFact->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } and this one: HRESULT __stdcall CAddFactory::CreateInstance( IUnknown *pUnknownOuter, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddObj *pObject = new CAddObj; ... HRESULT hr = pObject->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } return S_OK. However, when JScript gets to line 3 of the script, I get the following error message: 'mycom' is null or not an object Why is this happening? It looks like JScript should be able to obtain a reference. Some attempts I made I tried to return S_FALSE from DllCanUnloadNow to be sure that the DLL will not be unloaded, just in case, but with no luck.

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  • InstallExecuteSequence cache interferes with custom action operation

    - by Dima G
    I need to upgrade a product that could be installed in per-user context to a new version that is always in per-machine context. The requirements are: Whether the old version was installed in a Per-User (no matter who) or Per-Machine context should be completely seamless to an administrator user that performs the upgrade. The MSI upgrade should succeed without the need to know the password of the user that originally installed the previous version of the product in a Per-User context. The installation should be performed from a single .msi file (no setup.exe is allowed). The installation should be able to run in a silent (non-UI) mode. No reboots are allowed during installation. My strategy is to find in the beginning of the installation whether the product is already installed in per-user context, and if so, to transform the registry keys manually to Per-Machine context (I checked: no additional changes such as file system changes etc. are needed except this transform). I figured out how to move all appropriate keys in the registry from the user settings to the machine settings (pre-loaded appropriate user hive in case it didn't appear in HKEY_USERS) and created custom action that does it - and it does work when I run it as a stand-alone executable before running the MSI. The problem, however, is that when Windows Installer runs InstallExecuteSequence it first creates a 'cached product context' for all products. So when my custom action runs in the course of InstallExecuteSequence, this cache has already been created. Thus FindRelatedProducts action that determines if older product with same upgrade code exists looks on that cache and ignores the changes that my custom action applied. If before running the MSI the previous product was in per-user context, FindRelatedProducts will look at the cache and not apply the upgrade and remove the previous version, because the new product is in per-machine context, even though the previous product version is already configured to per-machine context in the registry by that time by my custom action. What can be done to solve this problem without violating the requirements stated above?

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  • SSIS - Bulk Update at Database Field Level

    - by Adam
    Hello, Here's our mission: Receive files from clients. Each file contains anywhere from 1 to 1,000,000 records. Records are loaded to a staging area and business-rule validation is applied. Valid records are then pumped into an OLTP database in a batch fashion, with the following rules: If record does not exist (we have a key, so this isn't an issue), create it. If record exists, optionally update each database field. The decision is made based on one of 3 factors...I don't believe it's important what those factors are. Our main problem is finding an efficient method of optionally updating the data at a field level. This is applicable across ~12 different database tables, with anywhere from 10 to 150 fields in each table (original DB design leaves much to be desired, but it is what it is). Our first attempt has been to introduce a table that mirrors the staging environment (1 field in staging for each system field) and contains a masking flag. The value of the masking flag represents the 3 factors. We've then put an UPDATE similar to... UPDATE OLTPTable1 SET Field1 = CASE WHEN Mask.Field1 = 0 THEN Staging.Field1 WHEN Mask.Field1 = 1 THEN COALESCE( Staging.Field1 , OLTPTable1.Field1 ) WHEN Mask.Field1 = 2 THEN COALESCE( OLTPTable1.Field1 , Staging.Field1 ) ... As you can imagine, the performance is rather horrendous. Has anyone tackled a similar requirement? We're a MS shop using a Windows Service to launch SSIS packages that handle the data processing. Unfortunately, we're pretty much novices at this stuff.

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  • Reversing permutation of an array in Java efficiently

    - by HansDampf
    Okay, here is my problem: Im implementing an algorithm in Java and part of it will be following: The Question is to how to do what I will explain now in an efficient way. given: array a of length n integer array perm, which is a permutation of [1..n] now I want to shuffle the array a, using the order determined by array perm, i.e. a=[a,b,c,d], perm=[2,3,4,1] ------ shuffledA[b,c,d,a], I figured out I can do that by iterating over the array with: shuffledA[i]=a[perm[i-1]], (-1 because the permutation indexes in perm start with 1 not 0) Now I want to do some operations on shuffledA... And now I want to do the reverse the shuffle operation. This is where I am not sure how to do it. Note that a can hold an item more than once, i.e. a=[a,a,a,a] If that was not the case, I could iterate perm, and find the corresponding indexes to the values. Now I thought that using a Hashmap instead of the the perm array will help. But I am not sure if this is the best way to do.

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  • gethostbyname fails for local hostname after resuming from hibernate (Vista+7?)

    - by John
    Just wondering if anyone else has spotted this: On some user's machines running our software, occasionally the call to Win32 winsock gethostbyname fails with error code 11004. For the argument to gethostbyname, I'm passing in the result from gethostname. Now the docs say 11004 is WSANO_DATA. None of the descriptions seem to be relevant (it occurs if you pass in an IP6 address, but as I say, I'm passing in a hostname). Even more interesting is that the MSDN suggests that this combination (gethostname followed by gethostbyname) should never fail, not even if there is no IP address (in that case it would just return empty list of IPs). Here is the quote from the gethostname MSDN entry: ...it is guaranteed that the name returned will be successfully parsed by gethostbyname and WSAAsyncGetHostByName. It only ever happens after resuming from hibernate, in that short period when the network is restarting, and only on Vista/7 (well I've only seen it on Vista and 7). One theory I had was that it related to IP6. Maybe for a short period the network reports an IP6 address but not the corresponging IP4 address (I'm pretty sure that all the client machines are dual IP stack, but I could be wrong). I tried to reproduce by turning off my network card (to force no IP addresses) and couldn't reproduce. Anyone seen this before? Any ideas? John

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  • T4MVC and duplicate controller names in different areas

    - by artvolk
    In my application I have controller named Snippets both in default area (in application root) and in my area called Manage. I use T4MVC and custom routes, like this: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss() ); And I get this error: Multiple types were found that match the controller named 'snippets'. This can happen if the route that services this request ('{controller}/{action}/{id}/') does not specify namespaces to search for a controller that matches the request. If this is the case, register this route by calling an overload of the 'MapRoute' method that takes a 'namespaces' parameter. The request for 'snippets' has found the following matching controllers: Snippets.Controllers.SnippetsController Snippets.Areas.Manage.Controllers.SnippetsController I know that there are overloads for MapRoute that take namespaces argument, but there are no such overloads with T4MVC support. May be I'm missing something? The possible syntax can be: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {"Snippets.Controllers"} ); or, it seems quite good to me to have namespace as T4MVC property: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {MVC.Snippets.Namespace} ); Thanks in advance!

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  • HTML5 Shiv not parsing quick enough

    - by Mikey Hogarth
    One of our web designers is working on a site at the moment and is using HTML5 elements, which she styles up in older browsers using the well documented Html5Shiv; http://css-tricks.com/html5-innershiv/ She reported some pretty weird behavior today and it looks like this is the cause. Initially it was very confusing, and went something along the lines of; "The page looks fine, I refresh it looks fine, refresh several times and occasionally it will not apply my styles to the HTML5 elements" Current best theory is that the shiv is not kicking in quick enough, and the page loads before the new elements have been registered. I was wondering if anyone could suggest a surefire way of including the shiv and making sure it's loaded and been parsed BEFORE the rest of the elements, so they will definitely get styled. EDIT (more info) Shiv is being included in the head, directly below the title/meta tags; <!--[if IE]> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js"></script> <![endif]--> The bit that is being styled is in the footer and is cross-site. Many of the pages will change in size as they're being powered by a CMS that our marketing team will use so I am unable to give an exact page size. All I would say is that if page size is an issue and there is no workaround, can someone let me know as this will mean we basically can't use HTML5 on this project (or at the very least we'll need to add superflous markup such as divs to ensure that the layout doesn't go crazy) EDIT 2 There is no chance of me posting the code unfortunately - it's only re-creatable under really obscure circumstances and the project is marked "top secret" at the moment :( If nobody knows then I'm guessing it's either a case of "everyone knows it happens but kinda ignores it" or just that it's something else other than the shiv.

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  • How do I make the following interaction with mySQL more efficient?

    - by Travis
    I've got an array that contains combinations of unique MySql IDs: For example: [ [1,10,11], [2,10], [3,10,12], [3,12,13,20], [4,12] ] In total there are a couple hundred different combinations of IDs. Some of these combinations are "valid" and some are not. For example, [1,10,11] may be a valid combination, whereas [3,10,12] may be invalid. Combinations are valid or invalid depending on how the data is arranged in the database. Currently I am using a SELECT statement to determine whether or not a specific combination of IDs is valid. It looks something like this: SELECT id1 FROM table WHERE id2 IN ($combination) GROUP BY id1 HAVING COUNT(distinct id2) = $number ...where $combination is one possible combination of IDs (eg 1,10,11) and $number is the number of IDs in that combination (in this case, 3). An invalid combination will return 0 rows. A valid combination will return 1 or more rows. However, to solve the entire set of possible combinations means looping a couple hundred SELECT statements, which I would rather not be doing. I am wondering: Are there any tricks for making this more efficient? Is it possible to submit the entire dataset to mySQL in one go, and have mySQL iterate through it? Any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • AVAudioPlayer problem regarding song overlaping in iPhone

    - by riteshkumar1905
    I have using AVAudioPlayer in my app but the problem is that when i play the song from list it will played while before stopping the song i am again goes to song list then select another song then both song will start playing simultaneously so please tell me the code which will terminate my first song. i am using avTouchContoller & avTouchViewController in my app. so i am enclosing the code for song which is written in avController.m & avTouchViewController.m as follow for single song avtouchController.m switch (flag) { case 1: //[self stop]; fileURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Aarti Keeje" ofType:@"aac"]]; self._player = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:fileURL error:nil]; //self._player=newplayer; //[newplayer release]; if (self._player) { _fileName.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%@ (%d ch.)", [[self._player.url relativePath] lastPathComponent], self._player.numberOfChannels, nil]; [self updateViewForPlayerInfo]; [self updateViewForPlayerState]; } [fileURL release]; break;

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  • Grails - Language prefix in url mappings

    - by Art79
    Hi there im having problem with language mappings. The way i want it to work is that language is encoded in the url like /appname/de/mycontroller/whatever If you go to /appname/mycontroller/action it should check your session and if there is no session pick language based on browser preference and redirect to the language prefixed site. If you have session then it will display english. English does not have en prefix (to make it harder). So i created mappings like this: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$lang/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$lang/store/$category" { controller = "storeItem" action = "index" constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$lang/store" { controller = "storeItem" action = "index" constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ lang="en" constraints { } } "/store/$category" { lang="en" controller = "storeItem" action = "index" } "/store" { lang="en" controller = "storeItem" action = "index" } "/"(view:"/index") "500"(view:'/error') } } Its not fully working and langs are hardcoded just for now. I think i did something wrong. Some of the reverse mappings work but some dont add language. If i use link tag and pass params:[lang:'pl'] then it works but if i add params:[lang:'pl', page:2] then it does not. In the second case both lang and page number become parameters in the query string. What is worse they dont affect the locale so page shows in english. Can anyone please point me to the documentation what are the rules of reverse mappings or even better how to implement such language prefix in a good way ? THANKS

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  • Comparing all values within a List against each other

    - by Kave
    I am a bit stuck here and can't think further. public struct CandidateDetail { public int CellX { get; set; } public int CellY { get; set; } public int CellId { get; set; } } var dic = new Dictionary<int, List<CandidateDetail>>(); How can I compare each CandidateDetail item against other CandidateDetail items within the same dictionary in the most efficient way? Example: There are three keys for the dictionary: 5, 6 and 1. Therefore we have three entries. now each of these key entries would have a List associated with. In this case let say each of these three numbers has exactly two CandidateDetails items within the list associated to each key. This means in other words we have two 5, two 6 and two 1 in different or in the same cells. I would like to know: if[5].1stItem.CellId == [6].1stItem.CellId = we got a hit. That means we have a 5 and a 6 within the same Cell if[5].2ndItem.CellId == [6].2ndItem.CellId = perfect. We found out that the other 5 and 6 are together within a different cell. if[1].1stItem.CellId == ... Now I need to check the 1 also against the other 5 and 6 to see if the one exists within the previous same two cells or not. Could a Linq expression help perhaps? I am quite stuck here... I don't know...Maybe I am taking the wrong approach. I am trying to solve the "Hidden pair" of the game Sudoku. :) http://www.sudokusolver.eu/ExplainSolveMethodD.aspx Many Thanks, Kave

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  • MySQL FULLTEXT aggravation

    - by southof40
    Hi - I'm having problems with case-sensitivity in MySQL FULLTEXT searches. I've just followed the FULLTEXT example in the MySQL doco at http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.1/en/fulltext-boolean.html . I'll post it here for ease of reference ... CREATE TABLE articles ( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, title VARCHAR(200), body TEXT, FULLTEXT (title,body) ); INSERT INTO articles (title,body) VALUES ('MySQL Tutorial','DBMS stands for DataBase ...'), ('How To Use MySQL Well','After you went through a ...'), ('Optimizing MySQL','In this tutorial we will show ...'), ('1001 MySQL Tricks','1. Never run mysqld as root. 2. ...'), ('MySQL vs. YourSQL','In the following database comparison ...'), ('MySQL Security','When configured properly, MySQL ...'); SELECT * FROM articles WHERE MATCH (title,body) AGAINST ('database' IN NATURAL LANGUAGE MODE); ... my problem is that the example shows that SELECT returning the first and fifth rows ('..DataBase..' and '..database..') but I only get one row ('database') ! The example doesn't demonstrate what collation the table in the example had but I have ended up with latin1_general_cs on the title and body columns of my example table. My version of MySQL is 5.1.39-log and the connection collation is utf8_unicode_ci . I'd be really grateful is someone could suggest why my experience differs from the example in the manual ! Be grateful for any advice.

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  • keep HTMLformat after replace some text (using PHP and JS)

    - by Sadi
    I would like modify HTML like I am <b>Sadi, novice</b> programmer. to I am <b>Sadi, learner</b> programmer. To do it I will search using a string "novice programmer". How can I do it please? Any idea? Thank you Sadi More clarification: I get some nice reply with possible solution. But please keep posting if you have any idea in mind. I would like to more clarify the problem just in case anyone missed it. Main post shows the problem as an example scenario. 1) Now the problem is find and replace some string without considering the tags. The tags may shows up within a single word. String may contain multiple word. Tag only appear in the content string or the document. The search phrase never contain any tags. We can easily remove all tags and do some text operation. But here the another problem shows up. 2) The tags must be preserve, even after replacing the text. That is what the example shows. Thank you Again for helping

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  • How can I get a static URL to a map image using the Google Static Maps API?

    - by Argote
    === BACKGROUND === Hello, so I've published a Web-App (still in "Beta") which uses the Flickr API to get information for the photos of a particular Flickr user and generates IPB code to post any of his/her images. While Flickr now gives you the IPB code to show the image and link back to the photo site directly on its site, my App also has the option of embeding the title, description, select EXIF data, location information, etc. into the post for the IPB forum. === PROBLEM === I've most recently added the option to integrate a Google Maps image of the photo's geolocation data into the post by using the Google Static Maps API. The problem is that the image URL I have is in the following form (including IPB [IMG] tags): [IMG]http://maps.google.com/maps/api/staticmap?zoom=16&size=600x600&maptype=hybrid&markers=19.387687,-99.251732&sensor=false[/IMG] Which shows this example image (In practice the image size is user selectable): However, some IPB forums seem to not support dyamic image URLs which gives me a broken image, I'd like to replace the [IMG]http://maps.google.com/maps/api/staticmap?zoom=16&size=600x600&maptype=hybrid&markers=19.387687,-99.251732&sensor=false[/IMG] with something like [IMG]http://maps.google.com/maps/api/staticmap/map0000001.png[/IMG] which should be supported by all IPB forums. Thanks in advance for your help. In case you're interested, the most recent "released" version of my Web-App can be found here: http://flickr.argote.mx/ (The changes I mention here are still on local development server).

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  • special debugging lines (java)

    - by David
    Recently i've found myself writing a lot of methods with what i can only think to call debugging scaffolding. Here's an example: public static void printArray (String[] array, boolean bug) { for (int i = 0; i<array.lenght; i++) { if (bug) System.out.print (i) ; //this line is what i'm calling the debugging scaffolding i guess. System.out.println(array[i]) ; } } in this method if i set bug to true, wherever its being called from maybe by some kind of user imput, then i get the special debugging text to let me know what index the string being printed as at just in case i needed to know for the sake of my debugging (pretend a state of affairs exists where its helpful). All of my questions more or less boil down to the question: is this a good idea? but with a tad bit more objectivity: Is this an effective way to test my methods and debug them? i mean effective in terms of efficiency and not messing up my code. Is it acceptable to leave the if (bug) stuff ; code in place after i've got my method up and working? (if a definition of "acceptability" is needed to make this question objective then use "is not a matter of programing controversy such as ommiting brackets in an if(boolean) with only one line after it, though if you've got something better go ahead and use your definition i won't mind) Is there a more effective way to accomplish the gole of making debugging easier than what i'm doing? Anything you know i mean to ask but that i have forgotten too (as much information as makes sense is appreciated).

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  • Removing specific XML tags

    - by iTayb
    I'd like to make an application that removes duplicates from my wpl (Windows PlayList) files. The wpl struct is something like this: <?wpl version="1.0"?> <smil> <head> <meta name="Generator" content="Microsoft Windows Media Player -- 11.0.5721.5145"/> <meta name="AverageRating" content="55"/> <meta name="TotalDuration" content="229844"/> <meta name="ItemCount" content="978"/> <author/> <title>english</title> </head> <body> <seq> <media src="D:\Anime con 2006\Shits\30 Seconds to Mars - 30 Seconds to Mars\30 Seconds to Mars - Capricorn.mp3" tid="{BCC6E6B9-D0F3-449C-91A9-C6EEBD92FFAE}" cid="{D38701EF-1764-4331-A332-50B5CA690104}"/> <media src="E:\emule.incoming\Ke$ha - Coming Unglued.mp3" tid="{E2DB18E5-0449-4FE3-BA09-9DDE18B523B1}"/> <media src="E:\emule.incoming\Lady Gaga - Bad Romance.mp3" tid="{274BD12B-5E79-4165-9314-00DB045D4CD8}"/> <media src="E:\emule.incoming\David Guetta -Sexy Bitch Feat. Akon.mp3" tid="{46DA1363-3DFB-4030-A7A9-88E13DF30677}"/> </seq> </body> </smil> This looks like standard XML file. How can I load the file and get the src value of each media tag? How can I remove specific media, in case of duplicates? Thank you very much.

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  • How to check the backtrace of a "USER process" in the Linux Kernel Crash Dump

    - by Biswajit
    I was trying to debug a USER Process in Linux Crash Dump. The normal steps to go to the crash dump are: Go to the path where the dump is located. Use the command crash kernel_link dump.201104181135. Where kernel_link is a soft link I have created for vmlinux image. Now you will be in the CRASH prompt. If you run the command foreach <PID Of the process> bt Eg: crash> **foreach 6920 bt** **PID: 6920 TASK: ffff88013caaa800 CPU: 1 COMMAND: **"**climmon**"**** #0 [ffff88012d2cd9c8] **schedule** at ffffffff8130b76a #1 [ffff88012d2cdab0] **schedule_timeout** at ffffffff8130bbe7 #2 [ffff88012d2cdb50] **schedule_timeout_uninterruptible** at ffffffff8130bc2a #3 [ffff88012d2cdb60] **__alloc_pages_nodemask** at ffffffff810b9e45 #4 [ffff88012d2cdc60] **alloc_pages_curren**t at ffffffff810e1c8c #5 [ffff88012d2cdc90] **__page_cache_alloc** at ffffffff810b395a #6 [ffff88012d2cdcb0] **__do_page_cache_readahead** at ffffffff810bb592 #7 [ffff88012d2cdd30] **ra_submit** at ffffffff810bb6ba #8 [ffff88012d2cdd40] **filemap_fault** at ffffffff810b3e4e #9 [ffff88012d2cdda0] **__do_fault** at ffffffff810caa5f #10 [ffff88012d2cde50] **handle_mm_fault** at ffffffff810cce69 #11 [ffff88012d2cdf00] **do_page_fault** at ffffffff8130f560 #12 [ffff88012d2cdf50] **page_fault** at ffffffff8130d3f5 RIP: 00007fd02b7e9071 RSP: 0000000040e86ea0 RFLAGS: 00010202 RAX: 0000000000000000 RBX: 0000000000000000 RCX: 00007fd02b7e9071 RDX: 0000000000000000 RSI: 0000000000000000 RDI: 0000000040e86ec0 RBP: 0000000040e87140 R8: 0000000000000800 R9: 0000000000000000 R10: 0000000000000000 R11: 0000000000000202 R12: 00007fff16ec43d0 R13: 00007fd02bcadf00 R14: 0000000040e87950 R15: 0000000000001000 ORIG_RAX: ffffffffffffffff CS: 0033 SS: 002b If you check the above backtrace it shows the kernel functions used for scheduling/handling page fault but not the functions that were executed in the USER process (here eg. climmon). So I am not able to debug this process as I am not able to see the functions executed in that process. Can any one help me with this case?

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  • Enabling/Disabling Aero from a Windows Service

    - by rgould
    I have some code to enable/disable the Windows Aero service in Vista, and I would like to run it in a Windows Service. The code works in a standalone application, but when I run it from a Service, nothing happens. No errors or exceptions are thrown. I realise that running code in a service is a different scope than running code in an application, but in this case, how would I enable/disable Aero from the service? Is this even possible? Here is the code I am working with: public static readonly uint DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION = 0; public static readonly uint DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION = 1; [DllImport("dwmapi.dll", EntryPoint="DwmEnableComposition")] protected static extern uint Win32DwmEnableComposition(uint uCompositionAction); public static bool EnableAero() { Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION); } Edit: It turns out that the DwmEnableComposition call is returning HRESULT 0x80070018, or ERROR_BAD_LENGTH. Seems like a strange error, since the code works when not running as a service. I also tried changing the entire thing to the following code, but got the same result. It sets the window station and desktop, and it seems to be correct, but the call to DwmEnableComposition results in the same error. I've not included the PInvoke declarations for brevity. protected override void OnStop() { IntPtr winStation = OpenWindowStation("winsta0", true, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (winStation == null || winStation.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetProcessWindowStation(winStation)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint thread = GetCurrentThreadId(); IntPtr hdesk = OpenInputDesktop(0, false, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (hdesk == null || hdesk.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetThreadDesktop(hdesk)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint result = Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION); if (result != 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } }

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  • Hiring my first employee

    - by Ady
    A few years ago I moved to a new job having been programming for 2 years using C#, however this new company was mainly using VB6. I made the case for .NET and won, but one of the consessions I had to make was to use VB.NET and not C# (understandable as most of the other developers were already using VB). Three years later it was time to move on, but when applying for jobs I couldn't get past the recruitment agents. I realised that when they were looking at the basic requirements (5 years experience) that they could not add 2 and 3 together to make 5. They were looking for 5 years in VB or C# not across both. Frustrated I decided to combine my skills with a designer friend and start my own company. After two years of hard graft we are now looking for our first employee (a programmer), and this question has hit me again, but now I see the employers perspective. Why take the risk of someone getting up to speed when you have thousands of applicants to choose from. So my question is this, if I define the requirements to be too narrow, I could miss the really great candidates. But if they are too broad it's going to take ages to go through them all. This will be our first 'employee' so the choice needs to be good, I can't afford to make a mistake and employ someone naff. Another option would be to choose a bright university graduate, and train them up (less of a risk because we can pay them less). What have others done in this situation, and what would you recommend I do?

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  • What are the options for overriding Django's cascading delete behaviour?

    - by Tom
    Django models generally handle the ON DELETE CASCADE behaviour quite adequately (in a way that works on databases that don't support it natively.) However, I'm struggling to discover what is the best way to override this behaviour where it is not appropriate, in the following scenarios for example: ON DELETE RESTRICT (i.e. prevent deleting an object if it has child records) ON DELETE SET NULL (i.e. don't delete a child record, but set it's parent key to NULL instead to break the relationship) Update other related data when a record is deleted (e.g. deleting an uploaded image file) The following are the potential ways to achieve these that I am aware of: Override the model's delete() method. While this sort of works, it is sidestepped when the records are deleted via a QuerySet. Also, every model's delete() must be overridden to make sure Django's code is never called and super() can't be called as it may use a QuerySet to delete child objects. Use signals. This seems to be ideal as they are called when directly deleting the model or deleting via a QuerySet. However, there is no possibility to prevent a child object from being deleted so it is not usable to implement ON CASCADE RESTRICT or SET NULL. Use a database engine that handles this properly (what does Django do in this case?) Wait until Django supports it (and live with bugs until then...) It seems like the first option is the only viable one, but it's ugly, throws the baby out with the bath water, and risks missing something when a new model/relation is added. Am I missing something? Any recommendations?

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  • inserting a form to session raises picklingerror - django

    - by shanyu
    I receive an exception when I add a form to the session: PicklingError: Can't pickle <class 'django.utils.functional.__proxy__'>: attribute lookup django.utils.functional.__proxy__ failed The form includes a few simple fields and has some javascript attached to a widget. It might be that Django forms cannot be pickled at all, but the exception seems to point to unicode lazy translation. To test further, I have also tried to insert only the form errors (an errordict) to the session and received the same error. I appreciate some help here, thanks in advance. EDIT: Here's why I insert a form into the session: I have an app that has a form. This form is rendered by a template tag in another app. When posted, if the form is valid, no problem, I do stuff and redirect to "next". However if it is not valid, I want to go back to the posting page to show errors. Recall that the comments app in this case redirects to an intermediate "hey, please fix the errors" page. I am trying to avoid this, and hence redirect back to the posting page with the form and its errors in the session that the template tag will render.

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  • How can I loop thru all controls (including ToolStripItems) C#

    - by Murray
    I need to save and restore settings for specific controls on a form. I loop thru all controls and return the one whose name matches the one I want, like so: private static Control GetControlByName(string name, Control.ControlCollection Controls) { Control thisControl = null; foreach (Control c in Controls) { if (c.Name == name) { thisControl = c; break; } if (c.Controls.Count > 0) { thisControl = GetControlByName(name, c.Controls); if (thisControl != null) { break; } } } return thisControl; } From this I can determine the type of control and therefore the property that should be / has been stored. This works well unless the control is one of the ToolStrip family which has been added to a toolstrip. e.g. this.toolStrip.Items.AddRange(new System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripItem[] { this.lblUsername, // ToolStripLabel this.toolStripSeparator1, this.cbxCompany}); // ToolStripComboBox In this case I can see the control I'm interested in (cbxCompany) when debugging, but the name property has no value so the code does not match to it. Any suggestions on how I can get to these controls too? Cheers, Murray

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