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• Assign a unique client ID to each <rich:dataTable /> row?

  - by Dolph Mathews

  I'm relatively new to working with the UI in Seam, so I'm hoping there is something simple I can replace the three instances of UNIQUE_ID with in the following example (such as #{object.uniqueId}). The goal is to have a <rich:dataTable /> wherein each row has the ability to show/hide a <rich:modalPanel /> with more details about the particular object instance. <rich:dataTable var="object" value="#{bean.myObject}"> <rich:column> <h:outputText value="#{object.summary}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <a onclick="Richfaces.showModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Show Details in ModalPanel</a> <a4j:form> <rich:modalPanel id="UNIQUE_ID" > <a onclick="Richfaces.hideModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Hide This ModalPanel</a> <h:outputText value="#{object.details}" /> </rich:modalPanel> </a4j:form> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> If I only had one link/modalPanel pair, this would obviously be trivial, but I don't know what to do within the scope of the <rich:dataTable />'s iteration. Also, in case it complicates things further, the page will also contain many <rich:dataTable />'s, each implementing this behavior.

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• GWT : Internet Explorer transparency issue

  - by dindeman

  This post concerns only IE. The last line of the following code is causing the issue. int width = 200; int height = 200; int overHeight = 40; AbsolutePanel absPanel = new AbsolutePanel(); absPanel.setSize(width + "px", height + "px"); SimplePanel underPanel = new SimplePanel(); underPanel.setWidth(width + "px"); underPanel.setHeight(height + "px"); underPanel.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor("red"); SimplePanel overPanel = new SimplePanel(); overPanel.setWidth(width + "px"); overPanel.setHeight(overHeight + "px"); overPanel.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor("black"); //Setting the IE opacity to 20% on the black element in order to obtain the see through effect. overPanel.getElement().getStyle().setProperty("filter", "alpha(opacity=20)"); absPanel.add(underPanel, 0, 0); absPanel.add(overPanel, 0, 0); RootPanel.get("test").add(absPanel); //The next line causes the problem. absPanel.getElement().getStyle().setProperty("filter", "alpha(opacity=100)"); So basically this code should display a red square of 200px by 200px (see underPanel in the code) and on top of it a black rectangle of 200px by 40px (see overPanel in the code). However the black rectangle is partially see through since its transparency is set to 20%, therefore it should appear in red, but of a darker red than the rectangle sitting under since it is actually a faded black item. Some rendering problem occurs because of the last line of code that sets the opacity of the containing AbsolutePanel to 100% (which in theory should not affect the visual result). Indeed in that case the panel lying over remains still see through but straight through the background colour of the page! It's like if the panel sitting under was not there at all... Any ideas? This is under GWT 2.0 and IE7.

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• rails Creating a model instance automatically when another is created

  - by bob

  Hello I have a user model and a ratings model. Whenever a new user is created I want to create a new feedback model with it automatically. Each user model has one feedback model and each feedback model has many ratings. My Classes class User < ActiveRecord::Base end class Feedback < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :ratings end class Rating < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :feedback end My database tables -user doesn't have anything special -feedback has user_id. This user_id should be the same as the user that has just been created. For example, user_id of 1 is created, then a feedback model should be created that belongs to user_id of 1. So the user_id column in the feedback database will also be 1. - Rating has a feedback_id and a user_id the user_id in this case is the id of the person who submitted the rating. I am having it assigned through the build command. I believe my process is correct here. The Goal The goal is to have each user have a feedback table that has many ratings from other users. So if someone goes to the feedback page, they will see all the ratings given and by who. Is there a better way to approach this? How do you create a model of feedback with the same id as the user being created right when a new user is created. The idea is that when a user is created a feedback is created associated with that user so people can then go to http://localhost:3000/users/1/feedback/ and submit new ratings. I'm trying to bypass having a user rate another user with just a ratings model because I'm not sure how to do it.

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• What is the Difference between GC.GetTotalMemory(false) and GC.GetTotalMemory(true)

  - by somaraj

  Hi, Could some one tell me the difference between GC.GetTotalMemory(false) and GC.GetTotalMemory(true); I have a small program and when i compared the results the first loop gives an put put < loop count 0 Diff = 32 for GC.GetTotalMemory(true); and < loop count 0 Diff = 0 for GC.GetTotalMemory(false); but shouldnt it be the otherway ? Smilarly rest of the loops prints some numbers ,which are different for both case. what does this number indicate .why is it changing as the loop increase. struct Address { public string Streat; } class Details { public string Name ; public Address address = new Address(); } class emp :IDisposable { public Details objb = new Details(); bool disposed = false; #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Disposing(true); } void Disposing(bool disposing) { if (!disposed) disposed = disposing; objb = null; GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } #endregion } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { long size1 = GC.GetTotalMemory(false); emp empobj = null; for (int i = 0; i < 200;i++ ) { // using (empobj = new emp()) //------- (1) { empobj = new emp(); //------- (2) empobj.objb.Name = "ssssssssssssssssss"; empobj.objb.address.Streat = "asdfasdfasdfasdf"; } long size2 = GC.GetTotalMemory(false); Console.WriteLine( "loop count " +i + " Diff = " +(size2-size1)); } } } }

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• How to call a service operation at a REST style WCF endpoint uri?

  - by Dieter Domanski

  Hi, is it possible to call a service operation at a wcf endpoint uri with a self hosted service? I want to call some default service operation when the client enters the endpoint uri of the service. In the following sample these uris correctly call the declared operations (SayHello, SayHi): - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hello - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hi But the uri - http://localhost:4711/clerk does not call the declared SayWelcome operation. Instead it leads to the well known 'Metadata publishing disabled' page. Enabling mex does not help, in this case the mex page is shown at the endpoint uri. private void StartSampleServiceHost() { ServiceHost serviceHost = new ServiceHost(typeof(Clerk), new Uri( "http://localhost:4711/clerk/")); ServiceEndpoint endpoint = serviceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IClerk), new WebHttpBinding(), ""); endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new WebHttpBehavior()); serviceHost.Open(); } [ServiceContract] public interface IClerk { [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "")] Stream SayWelcome(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hello/")] Stream SayHello(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hi/")] Stream SayHi(); } public class Clerk : IClerk { public Stream SayWelcome() { return Say("welcome"); } public Stream SayHello() { return Say("hello"); } public Stream SayHi() { return Say("hi"); } private Stream Say(string what) { string page = @"<html><body>" + what + "</body></html>"; return new MemoryStream(Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(page)); } } Is there any way to disable the mex handling and to enable a declared operation instead? Thanks in advance, Dieter

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• MEF GetExports<T, TMetaDataView> returning nothing with AllowMultiple = True

  - by sohum

  I don't understand MEF very well, so hopefully this is a simple fix of how I think it works. I'm trying to use MEF to get some information about a class and how it should be used. I'm using the Metadata options to try to achieve this. My interfaces and attribute looks like this: public interface IMyInterface { } public interface IMyInterfaceInfo { Type SomeProperty1 { get; } double SomeProperty2 { get; } string SomeProperty3 { get; } } [MetadataAttribute] [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = true)] public class ExportMyInterfaceAttribute : ExportAttribute, IMyInterfaceInfo { public ExportMyInterfaceAttribute(Type someProperty1, double someProperty2, string someProperty3) : base(typeof(IMyInterface)) { SomeProperty1 = someProperty1; SomeProperty2 = someProperty2; SomeProperty3 = someProperty3; } public Type SomeProperty1 { get; set; } public double SomeProperty2 { get; set; } public string SomeProperty3 { get; set; } } The class that is decorated with the attribute looks like this: [ExportMyInterface(typeof(string), 0.1, "whoo data!")] [ExportMyInterface(typeof(int), 0.4, "asdfasdf!!")] public class DecoratedClass : IMyInterface { } The method that is trying to use the import looks like this: private void SomeFunction() { // CompositionContainer is an instance of CompositionContainer var myExports = CompositionContainer.GetExports<IMyInterface, IMyInterfaceInfo>(); } In my case myExports is always empty. In my CompositionContainer, I have a Part in my catalog that has two ExportDefinitions, both with the following ContractName: "MyNamespace.IMyInterface". The Metadata is also loaded correctly per my exports. If I remove the AllowMultiple setter and only include one exported attribute, the myExports variable now has the single export with its loaded metadata. What am I doing wrong?

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• jQuery validation plugin - removing elements

  - by d3020

  I'm using the jQuery validation plugin. On most of my input type... tags I have class='required'. When I submit the page, via JavaScript, the controls on the page that have this class are found. However, there are a handful of checkboxes that I don't need to validate. I've tried removing the class code completely from the input tag, also tried class='cancel', and class='required:false. When doing any of those things though when the form submits it can't find the checkbox control. How do I still keep the ability to do Request.Form and find my checkbox object but at the same time when the form submits don't apply validation to this particular control. Thank you. Edit here. This is what I'm using without the "checked" code and ternary operator. In my input tag I'm calling a function like this... sb.Append(" " + crlf); Inside that function is where I check for the True or False coming back, like this. case "chkFlashedCarton": strResultValue = pst.FlashedCarton.ToString(); if (strResultValue == "True") { strResultValue = " checked"; } break; strResultValue is what is returned back. Does this help to see? Thank you.

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• Why does a non-dynamically created iframe shim show, but a dynamically created one does not?

  - by Carter

  I have a custom control that is made up of a text field and the ajax control toolkit dateextender. In IE6 I'm hitting the z-index bug where the calendar is showing behind select boxes. If I have the shim sitting in the control, initially hidden, it seems to display fine when the calendar is shown, but when I try to dynamically create the shim on showing it doesn't appear. I've tried bgiframe and some examples I found on SO, no luck. Here is my javascript code currently... var dateEditorShim; function dateEditor_OnShown(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = dateControl._width; var shimHeight = dateControl._height; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim = document.createElement('iframe'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('src', 'javascript:"";'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('frameBorder', '0'); dateEditorShim.style.width = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetWidth; dateEditorShim.style.height = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetHeight; dateEditorShim.style.top = dateControl._popupDiv.style.top; dateEditorShim.style.left = dateControl._popupDiv.style.left; dateControl._popupDiv.style.zIndex = 999; dateEditorShim.style.zIndex = 998; dateEditorShim.style.display = "block"; } function dateEditor_OnHiding(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = 0; var shimHeight = 0; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim.style.width = 0; dateEditorShim.style.height = 0; dateEditorShim.style.top = 0; dateEditorShim.style.left = 0; dateEditorShim.style.display = "none"; } You'll notice I have a commented out bit of code that gets an iframe that is embedded into the page, as I said, in this case the iframe at least shows up, but when I dynamically create it like the code above currently, it doesn't. I'm trying to figure out why. Any ideas?

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• Colorbox does not refresh its contents when I change URL

  - by Josef Sábl

  I am trying to make use of Colorbox on my webpage. One specific feature does not work as expected, though. In their example (Outside Webpage - Iframe specifically) Google appears in the Colorbox when clicked. When you change href on that link (Using Firebug or JavaScript, e.g.) to, let's say, Yahoo, it works as expected and Yahoo is displayed after click. But not in my case. Once I click the link, I have no way to change the URL. Href, as displayed in browser, changes (to Yahoo), but click always opens the first page (Google). What might be the problem? I almost copy-pasted their example: <script src="/lib/jquery.js"></script> <script src="/lib/jquery.colorbox.js"></script> <p><a class='example7' href="http://yahoo.com">Outside Webpage (Iframe)</a></p> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".example7").colorbox({width:"80%", height:"80%", iframe:true}); }); </script> My jquery version is 1.4.1 but I also tried same version as their example uses (1.3.2)

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• MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

  - by Fyodor Soikin

  I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

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• Forward slash problem in xsl and xsql

  - by Peter Kaleta

  Hi I have simple xsql <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="zad1.xsl" ?> <page xmlns:xsql="urn:oracle-xsql" connection="java:comp/env/jdbc/mondialDS"> <xsql:query max-rows="-1" null-indicator="no" tag-case="lower" rowset-element="continents"> select name as continent from mondial_user.Continent order by 1 </xsql:query> </page> which gives me a list of continents with "australia/oceania" among them i use XSL on above xsql : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <!-- Root template --> <res> <xsl:template match="/continents"> <xsl:for-each select="row"> <re> <xsl:value-of select="continent"/> </re> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </res> </xsl:stylesheet> Firefox throws an error on "wrong formated xml document" with: AfricaAmericaAsiaAustralia/OceaniaEurope -----------------------------------^ Help appreciated.

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• HTML5 Shiv not parsing quick enough

  - by Mikey Hogarth

  One of our web designers is working on a site at the moment and is using HTML5 elements, which she styles up in older browsers using the well documented Html5Shiv; http://css-tricks.com/html5-innershiv/ She reported some pretty weird behavior today and it looks like this is the cause. Initially it was very confusing, and went something along the lines of; "The page looks fine, I refresh it looks fine, refresh several times and occasionally it will not apply my styles to the HTML5 elements" Current best theory is that the shiv is not kicking in quick enough, and the page loads before the new elements have been registered. I was wondering if anyone could suggest a surefire way of including the shiv and making sure it's loaded and been parsed BEFORE the rest of the elements, so they will definitely get styled. EDIT (more info) Shiv is being included in the head, directly below the title/meta tags; <!--[if IE]> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js"></script> <![endif]--> The bit that is being styled is in the footer and is cross-site. Many of the pages will change in size as they're being powered by a CMS that our marketing team will use so I am unable to give an exact page size. All I would say is that if page size is an issue and there is no workaround, can someone let me know as this will mean we basically can't use HTML5 on this project (or at the very least we'll need to add superflous markup such as divs to ensure that the layout doesn't go crazy) EDIT 2 There is no chance of me posting the code unfortunately - it's only re-creatable under really obscure circumstances and the project is marked "top secret" at the moment :( If nobody knows then I'm guessing it's either a case of "everyone knows it happens but kinda ignores it" or just that it's something else other than the shiv.

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• ASP.NET MVC Map String Url To A Route Value Object

  - by mwgriffiths

  I am creating a modular ASP.NET MVC application using areas. In short, I have created a greedy route that captures all routes beginning with {application}/{*catchAll}. Here is the action: // get /application/index public ActionResult Index(string application, object catchAll) { // forward to partial request to return partial view ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(catchAll); // this gets called in the view page and uses a partial request class to return a partial view } Example: The Url "/Application/Accounts/LogOn" will then cause the Index action to pass "/Accounts/LogOn" into the PartialRequest, but as a string value. // partial request constructor public PartialRequest(object routeValues) { RouteValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(routeValues); } In this case, the route value dictionary will not return any values for the routeData, whereas if I specify a route in the Index Action: ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }); It works, and the routeData values contains a "controller" key and an "action" key; whereas before, the keys are empty, and therefore the rest of the class wont work. So my question is, how can I convert the "/Accounts/LogOn" in the catchAll to "new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }"?? If this is not clear, I will explain more! :) Matt This is the "closest" I have got, but it obviously wont work for complex routes: // split values into array var routeParts = catchAll.ToString().Split(new char[] { '/' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); // feels like a hack catchAll = new { controller = routeParts[0], action = routeParts[1] };

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• Splitting build cross the network?

  - by Dandikas

  Is there a known solution for splitting build process cross the network machines? Use case: We are an average software development company. We own around 50 development workstations (Quad Core 2.66Ghz, 4 GB ram, 200 GB raid). No need to tell that at any single moment not every machine is loaded to the max. There are 5 to 15 projects running simultaneously at any single moment. Obviously all of them are continuously build on server, than deployed to proper environment. Single project build is taking from 3 to 15 minutes. The problem: Whenever we build 5 projects in a row the last project is going to be ready after around 25 - 50 minutes. Building in parallel does not solve the problem (build is only a part of the game, than you need to deploy, run tests etc.) YES the correct solution is to add another build server, but "That involves buying new Expensive hardware, and we already spent a lot!". Yea, right(damn them)! Anyway. What about splitting build among developers workstation? Lets say whenever we need to build project "A" we check 5 workstations and start build on all that are not overloaded. The build can be canceled by a developer if he really needs all the power of his machine as long as there is at least 1 machine that is still building. After build is finished deployment can be performed to a proper environment (hosted on some server, not on workstation :) ). The bigger the company the more this makes sense to me. Anyone tried something like this? Are there any good practices? Any helpful software? (90% of the projects are .net C#)

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• XML: what processing rules apply for values intertwined with tags?

  - by iCE-9

  I've started working on a simple XML pull-parser, and as I've just defuzzed my mind on what's correct syntax in XML with regards to certain characters/sequences, ignorable whitespace and such (thank you, http://www.w3schools.com/xml/xml_elements.asp), I realized that I still don't know squat about what can be sketched up as the following case (which Validome finds well-formed very much; note that I only want to use xml files for data storage, no entities, DTD or Schemas needed): <bookstore> <book id="1"> <author>Kurt Vonnegut Jr.</author> <title>Slapstick</title> </book> We drop a pie here. <book id="2">Who cares anyway? <author>Stephen King</author> <title>The Green Mile</title> </book> And another one here. <book id="3"> <author>Next one</author> <title>This time with its own title</title> </book> </bookstore> "We drop a pie here." and "And another one here." are values of the 'bookstore' element. "Who cares anyway?" is a value related to the second 'book' element. How are these processed, if at all? Will "We drop a pie here." and "Another one here." be concatenated to form one value for the 'bookstore' element, or are they treated separately, stored somewhere, affecting the outcome of the parsing of the element they belong to, or...?

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• How to bind "rest" variables to list of values in macro in Scheme

  - by Slartibartfast

  I want to make a helper macro for writing match-extensions. I have something like this: (define-match-expander my-expander (? (stx) (let* ([dat (cdr (syntax-e stx))] [var1 (car dat))] [var2 (cadr dat)]) ;transformer goes here ))) So I wanted a macro that will do this let binding. I've started with something like this: (define-syntax-rule (define-my-expander (id vars ...) body) (define-match-expander id (? (stx) (match-let ([(vars ...) (cdr (syntax-e stx))]) body)))) but match-let isn't defined in transformation time. First question would be is there any other way of doing this (making this expanders, I mean)? Maybe there is already something similar in plt-scheme that I'm not aware of, or I'm doing it wrong in some way. Regardless of answer on the first question, if I ever want to bound list of variables to list of values inside of a macro, how should I do it? EDIT: In combination with Eli's answer macro now looks like this: (define-syntax-rule (define-my-expander (id vars ...) body) (define-match-expander id (? (stx) (syntax-case stx () [(_ vars ...) body]))))

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• Design problem with callback functions in android

  - by Franz Xaver

  Hi folks! I'm currently developing an app in android that is accessing wifi values, that is, the application needs to scan for all access point and their specific signal strengths. I know that I have to extend the class BroadcastReceiver overwriting the method BroadcastReceiver.onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) which is called when the values are ready. Perhaps there exist solutions provided by the android system itself but I'm relatively new to android so I could need some help. The problem I encountered is that I got one class (an activity, thus controlled by the user) that needs this scan results for two different things (first to save the values in a database or second, to use them for further calculations but not both at one moment!) So how to design the callback system in order to "transport" the scan results from onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) to the operation intended by the user? My first solution was to define enums for each use case (save or use for calculations) which wlan-interested classes have to submit when querying for the values. But that would force the BroadcastReceiverextending class to save the current enum and use it as a parameter in the callback function of the querying class (this querying class needs to know what it asked for when getting backcalled) But that seems to me kind of dirty ;) So anyone a good idea for this?

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• Dependency Injection: How to maintain multiple configurations?

  - by Malax

  Hi StackOverflow, Lets assume we've build a system with a DI framework which is working quite fine. This system currently uses JMS to "talk" with other systems not maintained by us. The majority of our customers like the JMS approach and uses it according to our specification. The component which does all the messaging is injected with Spring into the rest of the application. Now we got the case that one customer cannot implement the JMS solution and want to use another messaging technology. Thats not a problem because we can simply implement a messaging service using this technology and inject it in the rest of the application. But how are we supposed to handle the deployment and maintenance of the configuration? Since the application uses Spring i could imagine to check in all the configurations i have for this application and the system administrator could start the application and passing the name of the DI XML file to specify which configuration should be loaded. But... it just don't feel right. Are there any solutions for such cases available? What are the best-practices you use? I could even imagine more complex scenarios which do not contain only one service substitution... Thanks a lot!

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• C++ wxWidgets Event Handling

  - by Wallter

  Q1:I am using wxWidgets (C++) and have come accost a problem that i can not locate any help. I have created several wxTextCtrl boxes and would like the program to update the simple calculations in them when the user 'kills the focus.' I could not find any documentation on this subject on the wxWidgets webpage and Googling it only brought up wxPython. The two events i have found are: EVT_COMMAND_KILL_FOCUS - EVT_KILL_FOCUS for neither of which I could find any snippet for. Could anyone give me a short example or lead me to a page that would be helpful? Q2:Would i have to create an event to handle the focus being killed for each of my 8 wxTextCtrl boxes? In the case that i have to create a different event: How would i get each event to differentiate from each other? I know i will have to create new wxID's for each of the wxTextCtrl boxes but how do I get the correct one to be triggered? class BasicPanel : public wxPanel { ... wxTextCtrl* one; wxTextCtrl* two; wxTextCtrl* three; wxTextCtrl* four; ... }

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• binding nested json object value to a form field

  - by Jack

  I am building a dynamic form to edit data in a json object. First, if something like this exists let me know. I would rather not build it but I have searched many times for a tool and have found only tree like structures that require entering quotes. I would be happy to treat all values as strings. This edit functionality is for end users so it needs to be easy an not intimidating. So far I have code that generates nested tables to represent a json object. For each value I display a form field. I would like to bind the form field to the associated nested json value. If I could store a reference to the json value I would build an array of references to each value in a json object tree. I have not found a way to do that with javascript. My last resort approach will be to traverse the table after edits are made. I would rather have dynamic updates but a single submit would be better than nothing. Any ideas? // the json in files nests only a few levels. Here is the format of a simple case, { "researcherid_id":{ "id_key":"researcherid_id", "description":"Use to retrieve bibliometric data", "url_template" :[ { "name": "Author Detail", "url": "http://www.researcherid.com/rid/${key}" } ] } } $.get('file.json',make_json_form); function make_json_form(response) { dataset = $.secureEvalJSON(response); // iterate through the object and generate form field for string values. } // Then after the form is edited I want to display the raw updated json (then I want to save it but that is for another thread) // now I iterate through the form and construct the json object // I would rather have the dataset object var updated on focus out after each edit. function show_json(form_id){ var r = {}; var el = document.getElementById(form_id); table_to_json(r,el,null); $('body').html(formattedJSON(r)); }

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• Using Facebook Login to create a user?

  - by andbeyond

  I've read this SO post which led me to this FB policy page, which seemed to include some pertinent information, but I'd like more of a community response, maybe some experienced FB API people who know the limits. My question is if I can use Facebook's Login api to, essentially, create a new user on my website. I really would just like to allow users to easily "transfer" some data from FB in order to more easily create a new account on my site. I realize, first and foremost, that I would obviously announce to the user that by click "submit" in the form, that they are creating a separate account on my site. Pertinent blocks on the policy page state: You may cache data you receive through use of the Facebook API in order to improve your application’s user experience, but you should try to keep the data up to date. This permission does not give you any rights to such data. Which doesn't look good for me, but also this: If you stop using Platform or we disable your application, you must delete all data you have received through use of the Facebook API unless: (a) it is basic account information; or (b) you have received explicit consent from the user to retain their data. Which, in my case, I would be satisfying part B. I would be asking the user's permission to retain the data, as I am simply using Facebook as a conveience to the user when creating an account. I also realize that Facebook has a registration API, but this would require a Facebook styled login form, along with my own sites login form, and I'd rather one interface, as this makes it easier for me on the front and back end. Any thoughts?

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• Sensible unit test possible?

  - by nkr1pt

  Could a sensible unit test be written for this code which extracts a rar archive by delegating it to a capable tool on the host system if one exists? I can write a test case based on the fact that my machine runs linux and the unrar tool is installed, but if another developer who runs windows would check out the code the test would fail, although there would be nothing wrong with the extractor code. I need to find a way to write a meaningful test which is not binded to the system and unrar tool installed. How would you tackle this? public class Extractor { private EventBus eventBus; private ExtractCommand[] linuxExtractCommands = new ExtractCommand[]{new LinuxUnrarCommand()}; private ExtractCommand[] windowsExtractCommands = new ExtractCommand[]{}; private ExtractCommand[] macExtractCommands = new ExtractCommand[]{}; @Inject public Extractor(EventBus eventBus) { this.eventBus = eventBus; } public boolean extract(DownloadCandidate downloadCandidate) { for (ExtractCommand command : getSystemSpecificExtractCommands()) { if (command.extract(downloadCandidate)) { eventBus.fireEvent(this, new ExtractCompletedEvent()); return true; } } eventBus.fireEvent(this, new ExtractFailedEvent()); return false; } private ExtractCommand[] getSystemSpecificExtractCommands() { String os = System.getProperty("os.name"); if (Pattern.compile("linux", Pattern.CASE_INSENSITIVE).matcher(os).find()) { return linuxExtractCommands; } else if (Pattern.compile("windows", Pattern.CASE_INSENSITIVE).matcher(os).find()) { return windowsExtractCommands; } else if (Pattern.compile("mac os x", Pattern.CASE_INSENSITIVE).matcher(os).find()) { return macExtractCommands; } return null; } }

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• HTTP: can GET and POST requests from a same machine come from different IPs?

  - by NoozNooz42

  I'm pretty sure I remember reading --but cannot find back the links anymore-- about this: on some ISP (including at least one big ISP in the U.S.) it is possible to have a user's GET and POST request appearing to come from different IPs. (note that this is totally programming related, and I'll give an example below) I'm not talking about having your IP adress dynamically change between two requests. I'm talking about this: IP 1: 123.45.67.89 IP 2: 101.22.33.44 The same user makes a GET, then a POST, then a GET again, then a POST again and the servers see this: - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 So altough it's the same user, the webserver sees different IPs for the GET and the POSTs. Surely seen that HTTP is a stateless protocol this is perfectly legit right? I'd like to find back the explanation as to how/why certain ISP have their networks configured such that this may happen. I'm asking because someone asked me to implement the following IP filter and I'm pretty sure it is fundamentally broken code (breaking havoc for at least one major american ISP users). Here's a Java servlet filter that is supposed to protect against some attacks. The reasoning is that: "For any session filter checks that IP address in the request is the same that was used when session was created. So in this case session ID could not be stolen for forming fake sessions." http://www.servletsuite.com/servlets/protectsessionsflt.htm However I'm pretty sure this is inherently broken because there are ISPs where you may see GET and POST coming from different IPs. Any info on this subject is very welcome.

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• Can I automatically throw descriptive exceptions with parameter values and class feild information?

  - by Robert H.

  I honestly don't throw exceptions often. I catch them even less, ironically. I currently work in shop where we let them bubble up to avicode. For whatever reason, however, avicode isn't configured to capture some of the critical bits I need when these exceptions come bouncing back to my attention. Specifically, I'd like to see the parameter values and the class’s field data at the time of the exception. I’d guess with the large suite of .Net services that I could create a static method to crawl up the stack, gather these bits and store them in a string that I could stick in my exception message. I really don't are how long such a method would take to execute as performance is no longer a concern when I hit one of these scenarios. If it's possible, I'm sure someone has done it. If that's the case, I'm having a hard time finding it. I think any search containing "exception" brings back too many resutls. Anyway, can this be done? If so, some examples or links would be great. Thanks in advance for your time, Robert

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• Making a query result equal to zero when a condition is null

  - by John

  Hello, I believe the query below should work. However, when I run it, the results are blank. I think this is happening since for now, the table "comment" is empty. So there is no instance where s.submissionid = c.submissionid. I would like to have the query below to work even if there if no s.submissionid that equals a c.submissionid. In this case, I would like countComments to equal zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.submissionid s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username, count(c.comment) AS countComments FROM submission AS s, login AS l, comment AS c, WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid AND s.submissionid = c.submissionid GROUP BY s.loginid, s.submissionid s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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