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  • ASP.NET MVC Page - hyper links in HTML.ValidationSummary

    - by Rita
    Hi I have Registration page and if the validation fails, it displays the error messages using HTML.ValidationSummary control. Now i have to display the Hyperlink in that Validation Error Message. But it is treating href also as string. The Validation Message that I am trying to display with hyperlink is: **"User already exists in the system, please <a href='../Login.aspx'>login</a>"** Appreciate your responses. Here is my Code: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(false) %> <fieldset> <div class="cssform">; <p> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.email)%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.email, new { @class = "required email" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.email)%> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm email")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBox("confirm_email")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_email") %> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("Password", null, new { @class = "required" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Password")%><br /> (Note: Password should be minimum 6 characters) </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("confirm_password")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_password") %> </p><hr /> <% } %

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  • How do I MVVM-ize this MouseDown code in my WPF 3D app?

    - by DanM
    In my view, I have: <UserControl x:Class ... MouseDown="UserControl_MouseDown"> <Viewport3D Name="Viewport" Grid.Column="0"> ... </Viewport3D > </UserControl> In my code-behind, I have: private void UserControl_MouseDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { ((MapPanelViewModel)DataContext).OnMouseDown(e, Viewport); } And in my view-model, I have: public void OnMouseDown(MouseEventArgs e, Viewport3D viewport) { var range = new LineRange(); var isValid = ViewportInfo.Point2DtoPoint3D(viewport, e.GetPosition(viewport), out range); if (!isValid) MouseCoordinates = "(no data)"; else { var point3D = range.PointFromZ(0); var point = ViewportInfo.Point3DtoPoint2D(viewport, point3D); MouseCoordinates = e.GetPosition(viewport).ToString() + "\n" + point3D + "\n" + point; } } I really don't have a good sense of how to handle mouse events with MVVM. I always just end up putting them in the code-behind and casting the DataContext as SomeViewModel, then passing the MouseEventArgs on to a handler in my view-model. That's bad enough already, but in this case, I'm actually passing in a control (a Viewport3D), which is necessary for translating coordinates between 2D and 3D. Any suggestions on how to make this more in tune with MVVM?

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  • Programmatically controlling Chart in Silverlight toolkit

    - by Manoj
    Hi, I want to control the x and y axis of a multi series line charts available in Silverlight toolkit from the C# code. I am not able to find any appropriate example using google. Any kind of example or pointers would be appreciated! EDIT: This is what I have done so far: <toolkit:Chart Canvas.Left="104" Canvas.Top="18" Name="chartCompare" Title="Compare Series" Height="285" Width="892"> <toolkit:LineSeries Title="SP1" Name="Series1"/> </toolkit:Chart> And in the code behind I am trying this: Series1.ItemsSource = ObjectList; Series1.IndependentValuePath = "Val1"; Series1.DependentValuePath = "Val2"; Where ObjectList is a List of Objects which has val1 and val2 as its property. But it is throwing an error when I run this in Line "Series1.ItemsSource = ObjectList;" saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object..". I have initialised and set its value just in the line before it. Actually I have set this as an item source for a data grid in the line before it and it works fine.

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  • Initializing SD card in SPI issues

    - by Sembazuru
    Sorry for the length of this question, but I thought it best to show as much detail to fend of questions asking if I had done A when I had already done A... ;-) I've had a look at the "micro-SD card initialization using SPI interface" thread and didn't see any answers that matched my issue (i.e. things I haven't already tried). I have a similar issue where I'm trying to access a SD card through a micro-controller's SPI interface (specifically an HC908). I've tried following the flow charts in the Physical Layer Simplified Specification v2.00 and it seems to initialize correctly on Transcend 1GB & 2GB and an AE&C 1GB card. But I'm having problems on 3 other random cards from my stash of old cards that I've used on my camera. My code is all HC908 assembler. I scoped out the SPI clock line and during initialization it's running about 350kHz (the only speed multiplier that the HC908 supplies at my low MCU clock speed that falls within the 100-400kHz window). Here are the results of the three cards that aren't completing my initialization routine (all done consecutively w/o changing any code or timing parameters): Canon 16Meg card (labeled as SD): Set card select high Send 80 SPI clock cycles (done by writing 0xFF 10 times) Set card select low Send CMD0 [0x400000000095] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (indicates idle) Send CMD8 [0x48000001AA87] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Because illegal command set local flag to indicate v1 or MMC card Send CMD58 [0x7A00000000FD] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) because illegal command branch to error routine Send CMD13 [0x4D000000000D] (show status buffer) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1= 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Is the illegal command flag stuck? Should I be doing something after CMD8 to clear that flag? SanDisk UltraII 256Meg Set card select high Send 80 SPI clock cycles (done by writing 0xFF 10 times) Set card select low Send CMD0 [0x400000000095] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Send CMD8 [0x48000001AA87] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Because illegal command set local flag to indicate v1 or MMC card Send CMD58 [0x7A00000000FD] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Send 0xFF 4 times to read OCR OCR = 0xFFFFFFFF Send CMD55 [0x770000000065] (1st part of ACMD41) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Send CMD41 [0x6900000000E5] (2nd part of ACMD41) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Because illegal command, assume card is MMC Send CMD1 [0x4100000000F9] (for MMC) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Repeat the CMD1 50 times (my arbitrary number to wait until idle clears) Every R1 response is 0x05 (idle and illegal command) Why is OCR all F? Doesn't seem proper at all. Also, why does ACMD41 and CMD1 respond illegal command? Is CMD1 failing because the card is waiting for a valid ACMD after the CMD55 even with the illegal command response? SanDisk ExtremeIII 2G: Set card select high Send 80 SPI clock cycles (done by writing 0xFF 10 times) Set card select low Send CMD0 [0x400000000095] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Send CMD8 [0x40000001AA87] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x7F (??? My loop shows the responses for each iteration and I got 0xFF 0xFF 0xC1 0x7F... is the card getting out of sync?) Send CMD58 [0x7A00000000FD] and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle and back in sync) Send 0xFF 4 times to read OCR OCR = 0x00FF80 Send CMD55 [0x770000000065] (1st part of ACMD41) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x5F (??? loop responses are 0xFF 0xFF 0xF0 0x5F... again out of sync?) Send CMD41 [0x6900000000E5] (2nd part of ACMD41) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x05 (idle and illegal command, but back in sync???) Because illegal command, assume card is MMC Send CMD1 [0x4100000000F9] (for MMC) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x7F (??? loop responses are 0xFF 0xFF 0xC1 0x7F... again out of sync?) Repeat CMD1 and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x01 (idle) Repeat CMD1 and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x7F (??? loop responses are 0xFF 0xFF 0xC1 0x7F... again out of sync?) Repeat CMD1 and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x00 (out of idle) Send CMD9 [0x4900000000AF] (get CSD) and Loop up to 8 times waiting for high bit on response to go low R1 = 0x3F (??? loop responses are 0xFF 0xFF 0xC1 0x3F... again out of sync?) Code craps out because Illegal command bit is high. WTF is wrong with that card? Sometimes in sync, other times not. (The above pattern is repeatable.) I've scoped this one out and I'm not seeing any rogue clock cycles going through between MOSI/MISO transfers. Anyone have any clues? Need any more info? Thanx in advance for spending the time to read through all of this.

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  • Using PSExec from within CruiseControl .NET

    - by JayRu
    Hi All, I'm trying to call a PSExec task from CC.NET and running into some difficulties. Here's the CC project <project name="Test"> <tasks> <exec> <executable>C:\Utilities\psexec.exe</executable> <buildArgs>-u [UNAME] -p [PWD] "C:\Utilities\Joel.bat"</buildArgs> </exec> </tasks> </project> Here's the source of Joel.bat CLS @ECHO OFF What happens is that the first time I force the project to build, it runs successfully. The PSExec task is kicked off and the Joel.bat file is executed. I get some information in the build log about exit codes, but the task is successful. Here's the build log output. PsExec v1.97 - Execute processes remotely Copyright (C) 2001-2009 Mark Russinovich Sysinternals - www.sysinternals.com C:\Utilities\Joel.bat exited with error code 0. The second time I force the build I get the dreaded "The Application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000142)" error message. I can't ever run the build more than once More so, if I try to shut down the cruise control .net service from within the services MSC, it can't. It's like there's a lock somewhere that is taken and not released. The only way I can kill the service is by killing the ccservices.exe process. I've tried the exact same thing using an nant task and gotten the exact same results. It works the first time, and fails the second and I can't shutdown the process. I'm not sure if this is an issue with CC.NET or with PSEXEC (or me of course). Anybody got any ideas? I'm posting to the CC.NET forums as well. I'm using the latest and greatest of PSExec and 1.4.4 of CC.NET. Thx, Joel

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  • Development process for an embedded project with significant hardware changes

    - by pierr
    I have a good idea about Agile development process but it seems it does not fit well with a embedded project with significant hardware changes. I will describe below what we are currently doing (Ad-hoc way, no defined process yet). The changes are divided into three categories and different processes are used for each of them: complete hardware change example : use a different video codec IP a) Study the new IP b) RTL/FPGA simulation c) Implement the legacy interface - go to b) d) Wait until hardware (tape out) is ready f) Test on the real hardware hardware improvement example : enhance the image display quality by improving the underlying algorithm a) RTL/FPGA simulation b) Wait until hardware and test on the hardware Minor change example : only change hardware register mapping a) Wait until hardware and test on the hardware The worry is it seems we don't have too much control and confidence about software maturity for the hardware changes as the bring-up schedule is always very tight and the customer desired a seamless change when updating to a new version of hardware. How did you manage this kind of hardware change? Did you solve that by a Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL)? Did you have a automatic test for the HAL layer? How did you test when the hardware platform is not even ready? Do you have well-documented processes for this kind of change?

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  • jQuery.ajax call to Twitter succeeds but returns null for Firefox

    - by Zhami
    I've got code that makes a simple get request to Twitter (search) using jQuery's ajax method. The code works fine on Safari, but fails on Firefox (3.6.3). In the Firefox case, my jQuery.ajax parameters 'success' method is invoked, but the supplied data is null. (In Safari, I receive a boatload of JSON data). My ajax call is: $.ajax({ url: 'http://search.twitter.com/search.json?q='+searchTerm, dataType: 'json', async: true, beforeSend: function(request) { window.console.log('starting AJAX request to get Twitter data'); }, success: function(data, textStatus, request) { window.console.log('AJAX request to get Twitter succeeded: status=' + textStatus); callback(data); }, error: function(request, status, error) { window.console.log('AJAX request to get user data --> Error: ' + status); errback(request, status, error); } }); Firebug shows Response headers: Date Sun, 11 Apr 2010 22:30:26 GMT Server hi Status 200 OK X-Served-From b021 X-Runtime 0.23841 Content-Type application/json; charset=utf-8 X-Served-By sjc1o024.prod.twitter.com X-Timeline-Cache-Hit Miss Cache-Control max-age=15, must-revalidate, max-age=300 Expires Sun, 11 Apr 2010 22:35:26 GMT Vary Accept-Encoding X-Varnish 1827846877 Age 0 Via 1.1 varnish X-Cache-Svr sjc1o024.prod.twitter.com X-Cache MISS Content-Encoding gzip Content-Length 2126 Connection close The HTTP status is OK (200), the Conetnt-Type is properly application/json, and the Content-Length of 2126 (gzip'd) implies data came back. Yet Firebug shows the Response to be empty, and a test of the supplied data shows it o be 'null.' I am aware of a similar post on Stack Overflow: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1188976/jquery-get-function-succeeds-with-200-but-returns-no-content-in-firefox and from that would assume this problem is possibly related to cross-domain security, but... I know there are many JS widgets and whatnots that ajax get data from Twitter. Is there something I need to enable to allow this?

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  • Crystal Reports Images not loading in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Ryan Shripat
    I'm using Crystal Reports in a Webform inside of an MVC application. Images in the reports are not being displayed, however, on both the ASP.NET Development Server and IIS 7 (on Win7x64). I know from a number of other questions similar to this that the CrystalImageHandler HTTP Handler is responsible for rendering the image, but I've tried all of the usual solutions to no avail. So far, I have Added the following to my appSettings (via http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/msg26882.html) <add key="CrystalImageCleaner-AutoStart" value="true" /> <add key="CrystalImageCleaner-Sleep" value="60000" /> <add key="CrystalImageCleaner-Age" value="120000" /> Added the following httpHandler to system.web/httpHandlers (via http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2253682/crystal-report-viewer-control-isnt-loading-the-images-inside-the-report) <add verb="GET" path="CrystalImageHandler.aspx" type="CrystalDecisions.Web.CrystalImageHandler, CrystalDecisions.Web, Version=12.0.2000.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=692fbea5521e1304"/> Added the following to my Global.asax.cs (via http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2006011/crystal-reports-images-and-asp-net-mvc) routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.aspx/{*pathInfo}"); and routes.IgnoreRoute("CrystalImageHandler.aspx"); Any ideas as to why the images still 404?

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  • Elmah for non-HTTP protocol applications OR Elmah without HttpContext

    - by Josh
    We are working on a 3-tier application, and we've been allowed to use the latest and greatest (MVC2, IIS7.5, WCF, SQL2k8, etc). The application tier is exposed to the various web applications by WCF services. Since we control both the service and client side, we've decided to use net.tcp bindings for their performance advantage over HTTP. We would like to use ELMAH for the error logging, both on the web apps and services. Here's my question. There's lots of information about using ELMAH with WCF, but it is all for HTTP bindings. Does anyone know if/how you can use ELMAH with WCF services exposing non-HTTP endpoints? My guess is no, because ELMAH wants the HttpContext, which requires the AspNetCompatibilityEnabled flag to be true in the web.config. From MSDN: IIS 7.0 and WAS allows WCF services to communicate over protocols other than HTTP. However, WCF services running in applications that have enabled ASP.NET compatibility mode are not permitted to expose non-HTTP endpoints. Such a configuration generates an activation exception when the service receives its first message. If it is true that you cannot use ELMAH with WCF services having non-HTTP endpoints, then the follow-up question is: Can we use ELMAH in such a way that doesn't need HttpContext? Or more generally (so as not to commit the thin metal ruler error), is there ANY way to use ELMAH with WCF services having non-HTTP endpoints?

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  • Matplotlib pick event order for overlapping artists

    - by Ajean
    I'm hitting a very strange issue with matplotlib pick events. I have two artists that are both pickable and are non-overlapping to begin with ("holes" and "pegs"). When I pick one of them, during the event handling I move the other one to where I just clicked (moving a "peg" into the "hole"). Then, without doing anything else, a pick event from the moved artist (the peg) is generated even though it wasn't there when the first event was generated. My only explanation for it is that somehow the event manager is still moving through artist layers when the event is processed, and therefore hits the second artist after it is moved under the cursor. So then my question is - how do pick events (or any events for that matter) iterate through overlapping artists on the canvas, and is there a way to control it? I think I would get my desired behavior if it moved from the top down always (rather than bottom up or randomly). I haven't been able to find sufficient enough documentation, and a lengthy search on SO has not revealed this exact issue. Below is a working example that illustrates the problem, with PathCollections from scatter as pegs and holes: import matplotlib.pyplot as plt import sys class peg_tester(): def __init__(self): self.fig = plt.figure(figsize=(3,1)) self.ax = self.fig.add_axes([0,0,1,1]) self.ax.set_xlim([-0.5,2.5]) self.ax.set_ylim([-0.25,0.25]) self.ax.text(-0.4, 0.15, 'One click on the hole, and I get 2 events not 1', fontsize=8) self.holes = self.ax.scatter([1], [0], color='black', picker=0) self.pegs = self.ax.scatter([0], [0], s=100, facecolor='#dd8800', edgecolor='black', picker=0) self.fig.canvas.mpl_connect('pick_event', self.handler) plt.show() def handler(self, event): if event.artist is self.holes: # If I get a hole event, then move a peg (to that hole) ... # but then I get a peg event also with no extra clicks! offs = self.pegs.get_offsets() offs[0,:] = [1,0] # Moves left peg to the middle self.pegs.set_offsets(offs) self.fig.canvas.draw() print 'picked a hole, moving left peg to center' elif event.artist is self.pegs: print 'picked a peg' sys.stdout.flush() # Necessary when in ipython qtconsole if __name__ == "__main__": pt = peg_tester() I have tried setting the zorder to make the pegs always above the holes, but that doesn't change how the pick events are generated, and particularly this funny phantom event.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Html Helper Extensions and Rendering Their Required "include"s

    - by Jimbo
    I have build a custom Html Helper extension as follows: public static string DatePicker(this HtmlHelper helper, string name, string value) { return string.Format(@"<script type='text/javascript'> $(document).ready(function(){{ $('#{0}').datepicker({{ changeMonth: true, changeYear:true, dateFormat: 'd-M-yy', firstDay: 1, showButtonPanel: true, showWeek: true }}); }}); </script> <input type='text' name='{0}' id='{0}' value='{1}'>", name, value); } The problem is that this now requires the page to "include" the following: <script src="/Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.ui.datepicker.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> And a few other items. The questions are as follows: Is there a serious processing overhead if I were to include these items in EVERY page (like in the Site.Master for example) thus negating the need for the HtmlHelper to organise the "includes" - considering there would end up being about 20 includes for all the different types of jQuery UI widgets used throughout the site. If the HtmlHelper sorts out the "includes", it will add one every time this DatePicker is used (often there are two on a page) Does anyone have a way of determining whether or not the user has already rendered the same type of control on the page, thus not re-including the same jquery libraries when multiple instances of the DatePicker (for example) are used?

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  • Update iPhone UIProgressView during NSURLConnection download.

    - by Scott Pendleton
    I am using this code: NSURLConnection *oConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:oRequest delegate:self]; to download a file, and I want to update a progress bar on a subview that I load. For that, I use this code: - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { [oReceivedData appendData:data]; float n = oReceivedData.length; float d = self.iTotalSize; NSNumber *oNum = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:n/d]; self.oDPVC.oProgress.progress = [oNum floatValue]; } The subview is oDPVC, and the progress bar on it is oProgress. Setting the progress property does not update the control. From what I have read on the Web, lots of people want to do this and yet there is not a complete, reliable sample. Also, there is much contradictory advice. Some people think that you don't need a separate thread. Some say you need a background thread for the progress update. Some say no, do other things in the background and update the progress on the main thread. I've tried all the advice, and none of it works for me. One more thing, maybe this is a clue. I use this code to load the subview during applicationDidFinishLaunching: self.oDPVC = [[DownloadProgressViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DownloadProgressViewController" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview:self.oDPVC.view]; In the XIB file (which I have examined in both Interface Builder and in a text editor) the progress bar is 280 pixels wide. But when the view opens, it has somehow been adjusted to maybe half that width. Also, the background image of the view is default.png. Instead of appearing right on top of the default image, it is shoved up about 10 pixels, leaving a white bar across the bottom of the screen. Maybe that's a separate issue, maybe not.

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  • how many types of code signing certificates do I need?

    - by gerryLowry
    in Canada, website SSL certificates can be had for as low as US$10. unfortunately, code signing certificates cost about 10 time as much, one website mentions Vista compatibility ... this seems strange because my assumption is they must support XP, Vista, Windows 7, Server 2003, and Server 2008 or they would be useless. https://secure.ksoftware.net/code_signing.html US$99 Support Platforms Microsoft Authenticode. Sign any Microsoft executable format (32 and 64 bit EXE, DLL, OCX, DLL or any Active X control). Signing hardware drivers is not currently supported. Abode AIR. Sign any Adobe AIR application. Java. Sign any JAR applet Microsoft Office. Sign any MS Office Macro or VBA (Visual Basic for Applications) file. Mozilla. Sign any Mozilla Object file. The implication is that a single code signing certificate can do ALL of the above. ksoftware actually discounts Commodo certificates and the Commode website is unclear. QUESTION: Will ONE code signing certificate be enough or do I need one for Microsoft executables, and a second for things like Word and Excel macros? my main goal is to sign things like vs2008 code snippets so that I can export them securely; however, I would like to be able to use the same code signing certificate for signing other items too. Thank you ~~ regards, Gerry (Lowry)

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  • How do I deselect grid row when grouping in David Poll's silverlight CollectionPrinter

    - by kpg
    I'm using David Poll's CollectionPrinter and modifications by Fama to perform grouping. I'm using the control to print a datagrid with grouping and it works well if not a little slow. Problem: When the grid is displayed the first row of the grid is selected and the first cell of the row is also selected. I want to either deselect the row or change the datagrid template to make selected rows/cells appear as not selected. I tried to specify a grid template to change the row/cell selection appearance but when I added the default template I got a COM error of all things - anyway I concluded that what I was doing was not compatible with the SLab libraries, or perhaps because the grid was specified in a datatemplate. In any case I abandoned that approach. Since I have the SLab source if I understood it more there may be a way to deselect the row after from that side of things - but I know the SLaB CommectionPrinter does not rely on the data template to be a grid, so I'm not sure how to modify the code to accomplish what I want. Question: How can I prevent the row from being selected or deselect it once it is or change the appearance of the selectd row when using the CollectionPrinter with grouping? Note that the row selection problem may occur without grouping as well, I don;t know, but it definatly does with grouping.

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  • Redirect from URL with QueryString to the same URL without QueryString

    - by Slauma
    I have a page request with a QueryString, say http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx?OrderID=1. The page is displayed in a browser. Now there is an asp:LinkButton on the page which should enable the user to open the page without the QueryString (as if he had entered http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx directly in the browser's address bar). I had two ideas: 1) Use the PostBackUrl attribute of the LinkButton: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" PostBackUrl="~/Orders.aspx" /> 2) Use "RedirectUrl" in an event handler: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" /> ...and... protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Orders.aspx"); } In both cases the browser's address bar shows http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx without the QueryString, as I like to have it. But in the first case the page does not change at all. But it should, because I'm evaluating the QueryString in code-behind and control the appearance of the page depending on whether a QueryString exists or not. The second option works as intended. If I am not wrong the second option requires an additional roundtrip: Browser sends request to server Event handler on server side sends Redirect URL to browser Browser sends again request to the server, but with the new URL Server sends new requested page to browser Is this correct at all? Whereas the first option omits the first two steps in the list above, thus saving the additional roundtrip and resulting in: Browser sends request to the server, but with the new URL (the PostbackURL specified in the LinkButton) Server sends new requested page to browser But, as said, the result isn't the same. I'm sure my try to explain the differences between the two options is wrong somewhere. But I don't know where exactly. Can someone explain what's really the difference? Do I really need this second roundtrip of option (2) to achieve what I want? Thanks in advance!

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  • WPF TreeViewItem Context Menu Unhighlights Item

    - by Snea
    I have been having problems with this for some time now, and have come up with some less-than-desirable solutions. The problem is that when a TreeViewItem's context menu is opened, the TreeViewItem is greyed out. Is it possible for a TreeViewItem to stay highlighted while its ContextMenu is open? The problem with the TreeViewItem greying out, is that it gives no relation to the context menu and the TreeViewItem, and it looks ugly. Generally, the code I use for setting a context menu is this. Sometimes the context menu will be generated by the code with a PreviewRightMouseButtonDown EventSetter, but it doesn't make a difference. <TreeView> <TreeView.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type TreeViewItem}"> <Setter Property="ContextMenu"> <Setter.Value> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Header="Menu Item 1" /> <MenuItem Header="Menu Item 2" /> </ContextMenu> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </TreeView.Resources> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 1"> <TreeViewItem Header="Sub-Item 1"/> </TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 2"></TreeViewItem> </TreeView> So far the only solution I have found is to override the "grey" unfocused color with the focused color, but then the TreeView never seems unfocused, such as when another control is clicked on. I have had problems with ListViews as well.

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  • Add a sub-view to a DetailView UIView in iPad

    - by Elisabeth
    I'm creating a split view controller app, the detail view has a segmented control in a navigation bar at the top. Clicking on a segment will add a new view to the detail view with the appropriate information on it (covering up the DetailViewController's default UIView). I've created two new UIViews, corresponding to each segment, and I'm trying to add them to the view like this (in DetailViewController.m): if (exerciseSegmentControl.selectedSegmentIndex == UISegmentedControlNoSegment) { NSLog(@"No segment selected"); } UIView *viewToShow; if (selectedView == 0 && exerciseSegmentControl.selectedSegmentIndex == 1) { viewToShow = exerciseSolutionView; } else { viewToShow = exerciseView; } [self.view addSubview:viewToShow]; I see the view appear, but it's in the wrong place, it is placed at the very top of the window, instead of below the navigation bar. In IB, I've created instances of the views, and I've used the Attributes inspector to specify "Navigation Bar" for top bar, which sets the height of the view correctly. But the view is clearly being added too far up in the window - I see the view below it (the DetailViewController's UIView) peaking out at the bottom (I changed the background color so I know which view I'm seeing). Any tips on how to get the subview I'm adding to get placed correctly in the window? Thanks!

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  • How do I point a ListFieldIterator to a subweb when ControlMode = Display?

    - by Rich Bennema
    I have a custom page with the following ListFieldIterator: <SharePoint:ListFieldIterator runat="server" ControlMode="Display" OnInit="listFieldIterator_Init" /> Here is the Init event: protected void listFieldIterator_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { ListFieldIterator listFieldIterator = sender as ListFieldIterator; SPContext current = SPContext.Current; SPFieldUrlValue value = new SPFieldUrlValue(current.ListItem[SPBuiltInFieldId.URL].ToString()); Uri uri = new Uri(value.Url); using (SPWeb web = current.Site.OpenWeb(uri.AbsolutePath)) { SPListItem item = web.GetListItem(uri.PathAndQuery); if (null != item) { listFieldIterator.ItemContext = SPContext.GetContext(this.Context, item.ID, item.ParentList.ID, web); } } } Everything works great if the target List Item is in the same site as the page. But once it points to a different site, all the fields appear, but the values all appear in the following format: Failed to render "Title" column because of an error in the "Single line of text" field type control. See details in log. Exception message: List does not exist The page you selected contains a list that does not exist. It may have been deleted by another user.. If I change the ControlMode to Edit, the values are displayed correctly. So how do I get it to work while in Display mode?

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  • Webforms MVP Passive View - event handling

    - by ss2k
    Should the view have nothing event specific in its interface and call the presenter plain methods to handle events and not have any official EventHandlers? For instance // ASPX protected void OnSaveButtonClicked(object sender, EventArgs e) { _Presenter.OnSave(); } Or should the view have event EventHandlers defined in its interface and link those up explicitly to control events on the page // View public interface IView { ... event EventHandler Saved; ... } // ASPX Page implementing the view protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { base.OnInit(e); SaveButton.Click += delegate { Saved(this, e); }; } // Presenter internal Presenter(IView view,IRepository repository) { _view = view; _repository = repository; view.Saved += Save; } The second seems like a whole lot of plumbing code to add all over. My intention is to understand the benefits of each style and not just a blanket answer of which to use. My main goals is clarity and high value testability. Testability overall is important, but I wouldn't sacrifice design simplicity and clarity to be able to add another type of test that doesn't lead to too much gain over the test cases already possible with a simpler design. If a design choice does off more testability please include an example (pseudo code is fine) of the type of test it can now offer so I can make my decision if I value that type of extra test enough. Thanks!

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  • Visual Studio Templates - adding additional pre-existing projects

    - by Bob Palmer
    Hey all, I'm working on a Visual Studio template where the generated project relies on a number of references, which happen to be other projects under source control. The question is how do I set this up in my ProjectGroup template? For example, if I have an already existing project at "C:\Stuff\MyUtilityProject\Utility.csproj" with a single file (Tools.cs) that I want to add to my template, how would I go about this? Here's what my vstempalte looks like. FYI - I am having no issues with the ProjectTemplateLink or creation of the Solution folder, just in adding the pre-existing Utility.csproj to my new solution: Thanks in advance! <VSTemplate Version="2.0.0" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/vstemplate/2005" Type="ProjectGroup"> <TemplateData> <Name>MySampleSolution</Name> <Description>My Test Project</Description> <ProjectType>CSharp</ProjectType> <Icon>__TemplateIcon.ico</Icon> </TemplateData> <TemplateContent> <ProjectCollection> <SolutionFolder Name="Content"> <Project File="C:\Stuff\MyUtilityProject\Utility.csproj"> <ProjectItem>Tools.cs</ProjectItem> </Project> </SolutionFolder> <ProjectTemplateLink ProjectName="MyWorkingTemplate"> MyWorkingTemplate\MyTemplate.vstemplate </ProjectTemplateLink> </ProjectCollection> </TemplateContent> </VSTemplate>

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  • ASP.NET MVC GoogleBot Issues

    - by Khalid Abuhakmeh
    I wrote a site using ASP.NET MVC, and although it is not completely SEO optimized at this point I figured it is a good start. What I'm finding is that when I use Google's Webmaster Tools to fetch my site (to see what a GoogleBot sees) it sees this. HTTP/1.1 200 OK Cache-Control: public, max-age=1148 Content-Type: application/xhtml+xml; charset=utf-8 Expires: Mon, 18 Jan 2010 18:47:35 GMT Last-Modified: Mon, 18 Jan 2010 17:07:35 GMT Vary: * Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-AspNetMvc-Version: 2.0 X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 18 Jan 2010 18:28:26 GMT Content-Length: 254 <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title> Index </title> </head> <body> </body> </html> Obviously this is not what my site looks like. I have no clue where Google is getting that HTML from. Anybody have an answer and a solution? Anybody experience the same issues? Thanks in advance.

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  • C# PrintPreviewDialog Modification possible?

    - by C. Griffin
    Currently, what I'm doing is this: Using the built-in .NET PrintPreviewDialog Attaching my own Click handler to the Print button, which allows for the user to select the printer before finally printing. This all WORKS, HOWEVER, the OnprintToolStripButtonClick event is still sending the document to the default printer BEFORE the user gets to choose the actual printer and click Print (which works, but they're getting an extra copy on the default printer first from the old Handler). Can I remove this built-in Click handler? I've tried the other methods mentioned on here in regards to using an EventHandlerList to remove the handlers, but it doesn't work for the built-in printing event. Here is a copy of my current code in case it helps clarify: // ... Irrelevant code before this private PrintPreviewDialog ppdlg; ToolStrip ts = new ToolStrip(); ts.Name = "wrongToolStrip"; foreach (Control ctl in ppdlg.Controls) { if (ctl.Name.Equals("toolStrip1")) { ts = ctl as ToolStrip; break; } } ToolStripButton printButton = new ToolStripButton(); foreach (ToolStripItem tsi in ts.Items) { if (tsi.Name.Equals("printToolStripButton")) { printButton = tsi as ToolStripButton; } } printButton.Click += new EventHandler(this.SelectPrinterAfterPreview); // ... Irrelevant code afterwards omitted // Here is the Handler for choosing a Printer that gets called after the // PrintPreviewDialog's "Print" button is clicked. private void SelectPrinterAfterPreview(object sender, EventArgs e) { frmMainPage frmMain = (frmMainPage)this.MdiParent; if (frmMain.printDialog1.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { pd.PrinterSettings.PrinterName = frmMain.printDialog1.PrinterSettings.PrinterName; pd.PrinterSettings.Copies = frmMain.printDialog1.PrinterSettings.Copies; pd.Print(); } }

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  • __doPostBack is not working in firefox

    - by Dan Williams
    The __doPostBack is not working in firefox 3 (have not checked 2). Everything is working great in IE 6&7 and it even works in Chrome?? It's a simple asp:LinkButton with an OnClick event <asp:LinkButton ID="DeleteAllPicturesLinkButton" Enabled="False" OnClientClick="javascript:return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete all pictures? \n This action cannot be undone.');" OnClick="DeletePictureLinkButton_Click" CommandName="DeleteAll" CssClass="button" runat="server"> The javascript confirm is firing so I know the javascript is working, it's specirically the __doPostBack event. There is a lot more going on on the page, just didn't know if it's work it to post the entire page. I enable the control on the page load event. Any ideas? I hope this is the correct way to do this, but I found the answer. I figured I'd put it up here rather then in a stackoverflow "answer" Seems it had something to do with nesting ajax toolkit UpdatePanel. When I removed the top level panel it was fixed. Hope this helps if anyone else has the same problem. I still don't know what specifically was causing the problem, but that was the solution for me.

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  • Databinding between UserControls?

    - by Dave
    I've got a situation where one of my UserControls would like to display a list of strings in a droplist, and the ItemsSource is set to another UserControl's ObservableCollection. The consumer of this data has its droplist defined in XAML like this: <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" SelectedItem="{Binding MyItem, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type UserControl}}, Path=DataContext.MyItems}" Margin="3"></ComboBox> MyItems is defined as an ObservableCollection<string> in the producer UserControl. Now everything works fine when the controls are loaded. As long as MyItems is populated first, and then the consumer UserControl is displayed, all of the items are there. I obviously don't get any errors in the Output Window or anything like that. The issue I have is that when the ObservableCollection is modified, those changes are not reflected in the consumer UserControl! I've never had this problem before, but all of my previous uses of ObservableCollection with updating the collection are within a single control, and databinding is not inter-UserControl. Is there something I did wrong? Is there a good way to actually debug this? Reed Copsey indicates here that inter-UserControl databinding is possible. Unfortunately, my favorite Bea Stollnitz article on WPF databinding debugging doesn't suggest anything that I could use for this particular problem.

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  • Frame Buster Buster ... buster code needed

    - by Jeff Atwood
    Let's say you don't want other sites to "frame" your site in an <iframe>: <iframe src="http://yourwebsite.com"></iframe> So you insert anti-framing, frame busting JavaScript into all your pages: /* break us out of any containing iframes */ if (top != self) { top.location.replace(self.location.href); } Excellent! Now you "bust" or break out of any containing iframe automatically. Except for one small problem. As it turns out, your frame-busting code can be busted, as shown here: <script type="text/javascript"> var prevent_bust = 0 window.onbeforeunload = function() { prevent_bust++ } setInterval(function() { if (prevent_bust > 0) { prevent_bust -= 2 window.top.location = 'http://server-which-responds-with-204.com' } }, 1) </script> This code does the following: increments a counter every time the browser attempts to navigate away from the current page, via the window.onbeforeonload event handler sets up a timer that fires every millisecond via setInterval(), and if it sees the counter incremented, changes the current location to a server of the attacker's control that server serves up a page with HTTP status code 204, which does not cause the browser to nagivate anywhere My question is -- and this is more of a JavaScript puzzle than an actual problem -- how can you defeat the frame-busting buster? I had a few thoughts, but nothing worked in my testing: attempting to clear the onbeforeunload event via onbeforeonload = null had no effect adding an alert() stopped the process let the user know it was happening, but did not interfere with the code in any way; clicking OK lets the busting continue as normal I can't think of any way to clear the setInterval() timer I'm not much of a JavaScript programmer, so here's my challenge to you: hey buster, can you bust the frame-busting buster?

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