Search Results

Search found 32492 results on 1300 pages for 'reporting database'.

Page 736/1300 | < Previous Page | 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743  | Next Page >

  • Multiple threads modifying a collection in Java??

    - by posdef
    Hi, The project I am working on requires a whole bunch of queries towards a database. In principle there are two types of queries I am using: read from excel file, check for a couple of parameters and do a query for hits in the database. These hits are then registered as a series of custom classes. Any hit may (and most likely will) occur more than once so this part of the code checks and updates the occurrence in a custom list implementation that extends ArrayList. for each hit found, do a detail query and parse the output, so that the classes created in (I) get detailed info. I figured I would use multiple threads to optimize time-wise. However I can't really come up with a good way to solve the problem that occurs with the collection these items are stored in. To elaborate a little bit; throughout the execution objects are supposed to be modified by both (I) and (II). I deliberately didn't c/p any code, as it would be big chunks of code to make any sense.. I hope it make some sense with the description above. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Using Rails, problem testing has_many relationship

    - by east
    The summary is that I've code that works when manually testing, but isn't doing what I would think it should when trying to build an automated test. Here are the details: I've two models: Payment and PaymentTranscation. class Payment ... has_many :transactions, :class_name => 'PaymentTransaction' class PaymentTranscation ... belongs_to payment The PaymentTransaction is only created in a Payment model method, like so: def pay_up ... transactions.create!(params...) ... end I've manually tested this code, inspected the database, and everything works well. The failing automated test looks like this: def test_pay_up purchase = Payment.new(...) assert purchase.save assert_equal purchase.state, :initialized.to_s assert purchase.pay_up # this should create a new PaymentTransaction... assert_equal purchase.state, :succeeded.to_s assert_equal purchase.transactions.count, 1 # FAILS HERE; transactions is an empty array end If I step through the code, it's clear that the PaymentTransaction is getting created correctly (though I can't see it in the database because everything is in a testing transaction). What I can't figure out is why transactions is returning an empty array in the test when I know a valid PaymentTransaction is getting created. Anybody have some suggestions? Thanks in advance, east

    Read the article

  • MySQL multidimensional arrays...

    - by jay
    What is the best way to store data that is dynamic in nature using MySQL? Let's say I have a table in which one item is "dynamic". For some entries I need to store one value, but for others it could be one hundred values. For example let's say I have the following simple table: CREATE TABLE manager ( name char(50), worker_1_name(50), worker_2_name(50), ... worker_N_name(50) ); Clearly, this is not an ideal way to set up a database. Because I have to accommodate the largest group that a manager could potentially have, I am wasting a lot of space in the database. What I would prefer is to have a table that I can use as a member of another table (like I would do in C++ through inheritance) that can be used by the "manager" table to handle the variable number of employees. It might look something like this. CREATE TABLE manager ( name char(50), underlings WORKERS ); CREATE TABLE WORKERS ( name char(50), ); I would like to be able to add a variable number of workers to each manager. Is this possible or am I constrained to enumerating all the possible number of employees even though I will use the full complement only rarely?

    Read the article

  • server caching problem on ASP.NET MVC page

    - by Rita
    Hi I have server caching error on ASP.NET MVC Pages. The scenario is like this. I have two applications (1).External Website and (2).Internal Adminsite, both pointing to the same Database. There is one page called EditProfile Page on the External Website that registered customer can update his profile information like Firstname, Lastname and Address…etc. Similarly there is similar functionality on the Internal Adminsite on the page called CustomerProfile Page where the Site Admin can update all these fields. When the user updates the profile information from the Adminsite, those updates are not reflecting back to the Website. Now I tried restarting the Website on IIS and that din’t help. Again I tried both restarting the Website on IIS and opening a new browser, then those updates are reflecting back. I am wondering how I can come out of this caching problem without restarting the site and open a new browser window everytime? Are there any IIS settings that could help? This caching is happening only on couple of tables only and all the updates are showing up in the database. Appreciate your responses. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How should a one-man development shop document their code?

    - by CKoenig
    Hi, please let me first describe my situation. I work in an IT department for a small-to-medium sized industrial-company and basically I'm the only real developer (sometimes a second guy joins in for his own projects). I programm mostly in C#/.net. Of course I only programm for internal need (Intranet, reporting, data-driven apps, some mobile apps, ...). My question is how should I document my work? It's a highly dynamic environment (the features and bug fixes I implement are tested by me during production, and go live, often within a day. If I technical documentation like MSDN or even overview diagramms those would take me more time to sync than the whole programming process. Also I feel it's a waste of time because I would be the only one who ever read it. I do understand that if I get sick, leave, or forget this documentation would be valuable. PS:well of course you are right - the quesion is how much and how/where. I try using the XML-docu comments for the public exposed parts but as I'm a believer in self-documenting code the comments mostly restates in plain text what you can read from the method-head itself :(Maybe using the remarks section is the key but if you have 30 lines of code with a 15 line xml-comment in front it just looks dirty (sorry for posting it here but our firewall rejects JSON :( )

    Read the article

  • Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found - how to correct?

    - by Ash Kim
    Eclipse STS is reporting I have problem with my spring project. It's a fresh project generated from the Spring Web MVC Project Template (File-New-Spring Template Project-Spring Web MVC ). When I create the project it has no problems - it's only once I modify the pom (by adding the hibernate dependencies) that STS then picks up the spring problem. Strangely if I revert the pom the problem remains. Also I can run the project on a spring tc server and all works correctly. Any ideas how I can satisfy this problem report? "Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found" mvc-config.xml /src/main/webapp/WEB-INF/spring line 9 Spring Beans Problem mvc-config.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd"> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <!-- <= PROBLEMATIC LINE REPORTED BY STS --> <!-- Resolves view names to protected .jsp resources within the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> </beans>

    Read the article

  • How do I use the sed command to remove all lines between 2 phrases (including the phrases themselves

    - by fzkl
    I am generating a log from which I want to remove X startup output which looks like this: X.Org X Server 1.7.6 Release Date: 2010-03-17 X Protocol Version 11, Revision 0 Build Operating System: Linux 2.6.31-607-imx51 armv7l Ubuntu Current Operating System: Linux nvidia 2.6.33.2 #1 SMP PREEMPT Mon May 31 21:38:29 PDT 2010 armv7l Kernel command line: mem=448M@0M nvmem=64M@448M mem=512M@512M chipuid=097c81c6425f70d7 vmalloc=320M video=tegrafb console=ttyS0,57600n8 usbcore.old_scheme_first=1 tegraboot=nand root=/dev/nfs ip=:::::usb0:on rw tegra_ehci_probe_delay=5000 smp dvfs tegrapart=recovery:1b80:a00:800,boot:2680:1000:800,environment:3780:40:800,system:38c0:2bc00:800,cache:2f5c0:4000:800,userdata:336c0:c840:800 envsector=3080 Build Date: 23 April 2010 05:19:26PM xorg-server 2:1.7.6-2ubuntu7 (Bryce Harrington <[email protected]>) Current version of pixman: 0.16.4 Before reporting problems, check http://wiki.x.org to make sure that you have the latest version. Markers: (--) probed, (**) from config file, (==) default setting, (++) from command line, (!!) notice, (II) informational, (WW) warning, (EE) error, (NI) not implemented, (??) unknown. (==) Log file: "/var/log/Xorg.0.log", Time: Wed Jun 16 19:52:00 2010 (==) Using config file: "/etc/X11/xorg.conf" (==) Using config directory: "/usr/lib/X11/xorg.conf.d" Is there any way to do this without manually checking pattern for each line?

    Read the article

  • SQL Server becomes slow after restart

    - by Tobi DM
    We use SQL Server 2005 on an Windwos Server 2008. Ther Server has 48 GB RAM. SQL Server is configured to use 40 GB RAM. There is only one database hosted (About 70 GB). The only app beside SQL Server is our App-Server which connects the clients to the database. Now we encounter the following problem: After a restart of the server our the performance is great. The server grabs the 40 GB RAM wich it is allowed to and then runs fast as hell. But after about 4 weeks the system becomes slower and slower. The execution of statements (seen in the profiler) is raising slowly. But I cannot see that there is something going wrong on the server. CPU usage is at about 20% I/O also seems to be no Problem The process monitor does also not show that there are strange apps or something like that. Eventlog does also have no interessting messages No open transactions or blockings to see We tried already the following things without effect: Droped the cache by using the statements DBCC FreeProcCache DBCC FREESYSTEMCACHE('ALL') DBCC DropCleanbuffers Restarted the Appserver we are using. Restart the sql server service But nothing did help exept restarting the whole server. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Can iPad/iPhone Touch Points be Wrong Due to Calibration?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I have an iPad application that uses the whole screen (that is, UIStatusBarHidden is set true in the Info.plist file). The main window's frame is set to (0, 0, 768, 1024), as is the main view in that frame. The main view has multitouch enabled. The view has code to handle touches: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (UITouch *touch in touches) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:nil]; NSLog(@"touchesMoved at location %@", NSStringFromCGPoint(location)); } } When I run the app in the simulator, it works pretty much as expected. As I move the mouse from one edge of the screen to the other, reported X values go from 0 to 767. Reported Y values go from 20 to 1023, but it is a known issue that the simulator doesn't report touches in the top 20 pixels of the screen, even when there is no status bar. Here's what's weird: When I run the app on an actual iPad, the X values go from 0 to 767 as expected, but reported Y values go from -6 to 1017. The fact that it seems to work properly on the simulator leads me to suspect that real devices' touchscreens are not perfectly calibrated, and mine is simply reporting values six pixels too low. Can anyone verify that this is the case? Otherwise, is there anything else that could account for the Y values being six pixels off from what I expect? (In a few days, I should have a second iPad, so I can test this with another device and compare the results.)

    Read the article

  • Multi-level shop, xml or sql. best practice?

    - by danrichardson
    Hello, i have a general "best practice" question regarding building a multi-level shop, which i hope doesn't get marked down/deleted as i personally think it's quite a good "subjective" question. I am a developer in charge (in most part) of maintaining and evolving a cms system and associated front-end functionality. Over the past half year i have developed a multiple level shop system so that an infinite level of categories may exist down into a product level and all works fine. However over the last week or so i have questioned by own methods in front-end development and the best way to show the multi-level data structure. I currently use a sql server database (2000) and pull out all the shop levels and then process them into an enumerable typed list with child enumerable typed lists, so that all levels are sorted. This in my head seems quite process heavy, but we're not talking about thousands of rows, generally only 1-500 rows maybe. I have been toying with the idea recently of storing the structure in an XML document (as well as the database) and then sending last modified headers when serving/requesting the document for, which would then be processed as/when nessecary with an xsl(t) document - which would be processed server side. This is quite a handy, reusable method of storing the data but does it have more overheads in the fact im opening and closing files? And also the xml will require a bit of processing to pull out blocks of xml if for instance i wanted to show two level mid way through the tree for a side menu. I use the above method for sitemap purposes so there is currently already code i have built which does what i require, but unsure what the best process is to go about. Maybe a hybrid method which pulls out the data, sorts it and then makes an xml document/stream (XDocument/XmlDocument) for xsl processing is a good way? - This is the way i currently make the cms work for the shop. So really (and thanks for sticking with me on this), i am just wandering which methods other people use or recommend as being the best/most logical way of doing things. Thanks Dan

    Read the article

  • Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

    - by Ophidian
    I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

    Read the article

  • Using Client Application Services in windows forms not working

    - by Nickson
    i am trying to implement asp.net membership, profile and role based security in a windows application by configuring client Application Services for my windows forms application. I have followed both these articles http://www.dotnetbips.com/articles/e863aa3c-0dd6-468d-bd35-120a334c5030.aspx and http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb546195.aspx step-by-step but for some reason i can't get the authentication working. I have a deployed intranet asp.net website which is already using an asp.net membership database for authentication and want to use that same database for authenitcation in my windows forms application. The site URL is http://myServer_Name:My_Port and i am specifying that URL as the both the Authentication service location and Roles service location in the windows application services property tab. But in the windows application login form, when i say Dim msg As String = "Welcome " If Not Membership.ValidateUser(UsernameTextBox.Text), PasswordTextBox.Text)) Then MessageBox.Show("Invalid User ID or Password!") Else msg = msg + UsernameTextBox.Text End If i get my "Invalid User ID or Password!" message even when i supply a valid user name with the corresponding password. i am able to login with the same credentials from the asp.net site. How can i test if the Authentication service location is being reached from the windows application?? Or what other information can i provide here such that one is able to help me get this working??

    Read the article

  • multithreading issue

    - by vbNewbie
    I have written a multithreaded crawler and the process is simply creating threads and having them access a list of urls to crawl. They then access the urls and parse the html content. All this seems to work fine. Now when I need to write to tables in a database is when I experience issues. I have 2 declared arraylists that will contain the content each thread parse. The first arraylist is simply the rss feed links and the other arraylist contains the different posts. I then use a for each loop to iterate one while sequentially incrementing the other and writing to the database. My problem is that each time a new thread accesses one of the lists the content is changed and this affects the iteration. I tried using nested loops but it did not work before and this works fine using a single thread.I hope this makes sense. Here is my code: SyncLock dlock For Each l As String In links finallinks.Add(l) Next End SyncLock SyncLock dlock For Each p As String In posts finalposts.Add(p) Next End SyncLock ... Dim i As Integer = 0 SyncLock dlock For Each rsslink As String In finallinks postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 finallinks and finalposts are the two arraylists. I did not include the rest of the code which shows the threads working but this is the essential part where my error occurs which is basically here postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 ERROR: index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection Is there an alternative?

    Read the article

  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

    Read the article

  • Android application listed as compatible with Sony Xperia S but still filtered from google play

    - by mlidal
    I have published an Android application and some users are complaining that it is listed as not compatible with Sony Xperia S. According to the developer console Xperia S (LT26i) is listed as compatible. Do anyone know of any reason why the app is still filtered from google play? I have seen people reporting problems with big apk files. This app is about 20Mb in size, with the largest file being 14Mb. Quite a bit but not enough to cause problems I think... Here is the output from aapt dump badging: package: name='no.bouvet.nrkut' versionCode='4' versionName='1.0' sdkVersion:'4' targetSdkVersion:'13' uses-permission:'android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION' uses-permission:'android.permission.ACCESS_COARSE_LOCATION' uses-permission:'android.permission.ACCESS_WIFI_STATE' uses-permission:'android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE' uses-permission:'android.permission.INTERNET' uses-permission:'android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE' application-label:'UT.no' application-icon-120:'res/drawable-ldpi/utno_launcher.png' application-icon-160:'res/drawable-mdpi/utno_launcher.png' application-icon-240:'res/drawable-hdpi/utno_launcher.png' application-icon-320:'res/drawable-xhdpi/utno_launcher.png' application: label='UT.no' icon='res/drawable-mdpi/utno_launcher.png' launchable-activity: name='no.bouvet.nrkut.MainActivity' label='UT.no' icon='' uses-feature:'android.hardware.location' uses-feature:'android.hardware.location.gps' uses-feature:'android.hardware.location.network' uses-feature:'android.hardware.wifi' uses-feature:'android.hardware.touchscreen' uses-feature:'android.hardware.screen.portrait' main other-activities search supports-screens: 'small' 'normal' 'large' 'xlarge' supports-any-density: 'true' locales: '--_--' densities: '120' '160' '240' '320'

    Read the article

  • Exec problem in SQL Server 2005

    - by IordanTanev
    Hi, I have the situation where i have two databases with same structure. The first have some data in its data tables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when I run the script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When I copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script tries to run it with exec I get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

    Read the article

  • Best way to test a Delphi application

    - by Osama ALASSIRY
    I have a Delphi application that has many dependencies, and it would be difficult to refactor it to use DUnit (it's huge), so I was thinking about using something like AutomatedQA's TestComplete to do the testing from the front-end UI. My main problem is that a bugfix or new feature sometimes breaks old code that was previously tested (manually), and used to work. I have setup the application to use command-line switches to open-up a specific form that could be tested, and I can create a set of values and clicks needed to be done. But I have a few questions before I do anything drastic... (and before purchasing anything) Is it worth it? Would this be a good way to test? The result of the test should in my database (Oracle), is there an easy way in testcomplete to check these values (multiple fields in multiple tables)? I would need to setup a test database to do all the automated testing, would there be an easy way to automate re-setting the test db? Other than drop user cascade, create user,..., impdp. Is there a way in testcomplete to specify command-line parameters for an exe? Does anybody have any similar experiences.

    Read the article

  • Can I use a specific model from within a behavior in CakePHP?

    - by Paul Willy
    I'm trying to write a behavior that will give my models access to a simple workflow engine I've devised. The workflow engine itself works as a CakePHP model, with workflow data stored in the database just as any other model data is stored. Basically what I want to do is have the behavior use the workflow model whenever an action is called on the base model. For example, if the edit() action is executed for Posts, then the Post (with the behavior attached) will trigger the workflow behavior with its own model name, action, and id as arguments (e.g. [Post, edit, 1]). Then the behavior will invoke the functionality of the Workflow model, which has a record for what to do when edit is run on Posts (e.g. send e-mail to users who are subscribed to that post) and will carry that out. My question is, what is the proper way to invoke model/controller methods from within the behavior? The model to be used from within the behavior will always be Workflow, but the behavior should be usable from basically any model (aside from Workflow itself). I know I could run SQL queries directly from the behavior, but of course this is not the Cake way :-) Or, am I going about this in the wrong way? I want to store a certain amount of logic in the database so that it is easily configurable by different users, and not have endless configuration checks within the model/controller logic itself so that workflow steps can be easily added/changed/removed in the future.

    Read the article

  • Why does a change of Session State provider lead to an ASPx page yielding garbage?

    - by Rory Becker
    I have an aspnet webapp which has worked very well up until now. I was recently asked to explore ways of making it scale better. I found that seperation of database and Webapp would help. Further I was told that if I changed my session providing mechanism to SQLServer, I would be able to duplicate the Web Stack to several machines which could each call back to the state server allowing the load to be distirbuted better. This sounds logical. So I created an ASPState database using ASPNet_RegSQL.exe as detailed in many locations across the web and changed the web.config on my app from: <sessionState mode="InProc" cookieless="false" timeout="20" /> To: <sessionState mode="SQLServer" sqlConnectionString="Server=SomeSQLServer;user=SomeUser;password=SomePassword" cookieless="false" timeout="20" /> Then I addressed my app, which presented me with its logon screen and I duly logged in. Once in I was presented, not with the page I was expecting, but with: I can change the sessionstate back and forth. This problem goes away and then comes back based on which set of configuration I use. Why is this happening?

    Read the article

  • Why is it not good to use $_SESSION in Restful Implementations?

    - by keisimone
    Original Question: i read that for RESTful websites. it is not good to use $_SESSION. Why is it not good? how then do i properly authenticate users without looking up database all the time to check for the user's roles? I read that it is not good to use $_SESSION. http://www.recessframework.org/page/towards-restful-php-5-basic-tips I am creating a WEBSITE, not web service in PHP. and i am trying to make it more RESTful. at least in spirit. right now i am rewriting all the action to use Form tags POST and add in a hidden value called _method which would be "delete" for deleting action and "put" for updating action. however, i am not sure why it is recommended NOT to use $_SESSION. i would like to know why and what can i do to improve. To allow easy authorization checking, what i did was to after logging in the user, the username is stored in the $_SESSION. Everytime the user navigates to a page, the page would check if the username is stored inside $_SESSION and then based on the $_SESSION retrieves all the info including privileges from the database and then evaluates the authorization to access the page based on the info retrieved. Is the way I am implementing bad? not RESTful? how do i improve performance and security? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

    Read the article

  • proper use of volatile keyword

    - by luke
    I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

    Read the article

  • Is the RESTORE process dependent on schema?

    - by Martin Aatmaa
    Let's say I have two database instances: InstanceA - Production server InstanceB - Test server My workflow is to deploy new schema changes to InstanceB first, test them, and then deploy them to InstanceA. So, at any one time, the instance schema relationship looks like this: InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) An additional part of my workflow is to keep the data in InstanceB as fresh as possible. To fulfill this, I am taking the database backups of InstanceA and applying them (restoring them) to InstanceB. My question is, how does schema version affect the restoral process? I know I can do this: Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.5 But can I do this? Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) If no, what would the failure look like? If yes, would the type of schema change matter? For example, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by just having an altered storec proc, I imagine that this type of schema change should't affect the restoral process. On the other hand, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by having a different table definition (say, an additional column), I image this would affect the restoral process. I hope I've made this clear enough. Thanks in advance for any input!

    Read the article

  • Spaced repetition (SRS) for learning

    - by Fredrik Johansson
    A client has asked me to add a simple spaced repeition algorithm (SRS) for an onlinebased learning site. But before throwing my self into it, I'd like to discuss it with the community. Basically the site asks the user a bunch of questions (by automatically selecting say 10 out of 100 total questions from a database), and the user gives either a correct or incorrect answer. The users result are then stored in a database, for instance: userid questionid correctlyanswered dateanswered 1 123 0 (no) 2010-01-01 10:00 1 124 1 (yes) 2010-01-01 11:00 1 125 1 (yes) 2010-01-01 12:00 Now, to maximize a users ability to learn all answers, I should be able to apply an SRS algorithm so that a user, next time he takes the quiz, receives questions incorrectly answered more often; than questions answered correctly. Also, questions that are previously answered incorrectly, but recently often answered correctly should occur less often. Have anyone implemented something like this before? Any tips or suggestions? Theese are the best links I've found: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spaced_repetition http://www.mnemosyne-proj.org/principles.php http://www.supermemo.com/english/ol/sm2.htm

    Read the article

  • Pros/cons of reading connection string from physical file vs Application object (ASP.NET)?

    - by HaterTot
    my ASP.NET application reads an xml file to determine which environment it's currently in (e.g. local, development, production). It checks this file every single time it opens a connection to the database, in order to know which connection string to grab from the Application Settings. I'm entering a phase of development where efficiency is becoming a concern. I don't think it's a good idea to have to read a file on a physical disk ever single time I wish to access the database (very often). I was considering storing the connection string in Application["ConnectionString"]. So the code would be public static string GetConnectionString { if (Application["ConnectionString"] == null) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(HttpContext.Current.Request.PhysicalApplicationPath + "bin/ServerEnvironment.xml"); XmlElement xe = (XmlElement) xnl[0]; switch (xe.InnerText.ToString().ToLower()) { case "local": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringLocal; break; case "development": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringDevelopment; break; case "production": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringProduction; break; default: throw new Exception("no connection string defined"); } Application["ConnectionString"] = connString; } return Application["ConnectionString"].ToString(); } I didn't design the application so I figure there must have been a reason for reading the xml file every time (to change settings while the application runs?) I have very little concept of the inner workings here. What are the pros and cons? Do you think I'd see a small performance gain by implementing the function above? THANKS

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743  | Next Page >