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  • Images from SQL Server JPG/PNG Image Column not being Type Converted to Bitmap in HttpHandlers (cons

    - by kanchirk
    Our Silverlight 3.0 Client consumes Images stored/retrieved on the File System thorough ASP.NET HttpHandlers successfully. We are trying to store and read back Images using a SQL Server 2008 Database. Please find the stripped down code pasted below with the Exception. "Bitmap is not Valid" //Store document to the database private void SaveImageToDatabaseKK(HttpContext context, string pImageFileName) { try { //ADO.NET Entity Framework ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); int intLength = Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length); //Move the file contents into the Byte array Byte[] arrContent = new Byte[intLength]; context.Request.InputStream.Read(arrContent, 0, intLength); //Insert record into the Document table documentDB.InsertDocument(pImageFileName, arrContent, intLength); } catch { } } =The method to Read Back the Row from the Table and Send it back is below.= private void RetrieveImageFromDatabaseTableKK(HttpContext context, string pImageName) { try { ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); var docRow = documentDB.GetDocument(pImageName); //based on Imagename which is unique //DocData column in table is **Image** if (docRow!=null && docRow.DocData != null && docRow.DocData.Length > 0) { Byte[] bytImage = docRow.DocData; if (bytImage != null && bytImage.Length > 0) { Bitmap newBmp = ConvertToBitmap(context, bytImage ); if (newBmp != null) { newBmp.Save(context.Response.OutputStream, ImageFormat.Jpeg); newBmp.Dispose(); } } } } catch (Exception exRI) { } } // Convert byte array to Bitmap (byte[] to Bitmap) protected Bitmap ConvertToBitmap(byte[] bmp) { if (bmp != null) { try { TypeConverter tc = TypeDescriptor.GetConverter(typeof(Bitmap)); Bitmap b = (Bitmap)tc.ConvertFrom(bmp); **//This is where the Exception Occurs.** return b; } catch (Exception) { } } return null; }

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  • Ruby array, javascript and json issue

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, I am unable to get a highcharts plugin to render a chart in a rails application: http://github.com/loudpixel/highcharts-rails I believe it has something to do with the sql queries to the database placed in a ruby array, which the javascript is unable to intepret. This is what I have: def panels pass = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 1') fail = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 2') student_data = [ {:name => 'Pass', :y => pass}, {:name => 'Fail', :y => fail} ] pie_label_formatter = ' function() { if (this.y > 15) return this.point.name; }' pie_tooltip_formatter = ' function() { return "<strong>" + this.point.name + "</strong>: " + this.y + " %"; }' @pie_chart = Highchart.pie({ :chart => { :renderTo => "pie-chart-container", :margin => [50, 30, 0, 30] }, :plotOptions => { :pie => { :dataLabels => { :formatter => pie_label_formatter, :style => { :textShadow => '#000000 1px 1px 2px' } } } }, :series => [ { :type => 'pie', :data => student_data } ], :subtitle => { :text => 'April 2010' }, :title => { :text => 'Student Status Chart' }, :tooltip => { :formatter => pie_tooltip_formatter }, }) Note if I put this: :data = student_data.to_json It actually returns a json string of my query as text in the browser. Also, if I hard code values (e.g. :y = 1), it will render the chart properly. However, any database query will not render the chart properly. So I'm not sure exactly what the issue is. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • [ZF & jQuery] How can I access an URL using AJAX, receive no response, but just manipulate HTML?

    - by rasouza
    I don't know if it's better used with AJAX (tell me, otherwise) but here is my problem: Assuming i'm using Zend Framework, I have a table with several registries from a database with a delete button on each row. That's like this [...] <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a href="#" id="<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>" class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> [...] I would like to .fadeOut() and delete (through the link history/delete/id/ROW_ID ) a table row when clicked in the respective delete button. My deleteAction() has no render. It really shouldn't have one, it just deletes a row in the database. Still, how can I make it happen? I tried: // TR Fading when deleted $('.delete') .click(function() { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'history/delete/id/'+$(this).attr('id'), success: function() { $(this).parent().parent().fadeOut(); } }); return false; }); without success

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  • How does real world login process happen in web application in Java?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I am very much confused regarding login process that happen in Java web application. I read many tutorials regarding jdbcRealm and JAAS. But, one thing that i don't understand is that why should i use them ? Can't i simply check directly against my database of users? and once they successfully login to the site, i store some variable in session as a flag. And probably check that session variable on all restricted pages (I mean keep a filter for restricted resources url pattern).If the flag doesn't exist simply redirect the user to login page. Is this approach correct?Does this approch sound correct? If yes, then why did all this JAAS and jdbcRealm came into existence? Secondly, I am trying to completely implement SAS(Software as service) in my web application, meaning everything is done through web services.If i use webservices, is it possible to use jdbcRealm? If not, then is it possible to use JAAS? If yes, then please show me some example which uses mySql as a database and then authenticates and authorizes. I even heard about Spring Security. But, i am confused about that too in the sense that how do i use webservice with Spring Security. Please help me. I am really very confused. I read sun's tutorials but they only keep talking about theories. For programmers to understand a simple concept, they show a 100 page theory first before they finally come to one example.

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  • Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

    - by Gael
    Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

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  • How do I create a dynamic data transfer object dynamically from ADO.net model

    - by Richard
    I have a pretty simple database with 5 tables, PK's and relationships setup, etc. I also have an ASP.net MVC3 project I'm using to create simple web services to feed JSON/XML to a mobile app using post/get. To access my data I'm using an ADO.net entity model class to handle generation of the entities, etc. Due to issues with serialization/circular references created by the auto-generated relations from ADO.net entity model, I've been forced to create "Data transfer objects" to strip out the relations and data that doesn't need to be transferred. Question 1: is there an easier way to create DTOs using the entity framework itself? IE, specify only the entity properties I want to convert to Jsonresults? I don't wish to use any 3rd party frameworks if I can help it. Question 2: A side question for Entity Framework, say I create an ADO.net entity model in one project within a solution. Because that model relies on the connection to the database specified in project A, can project B somehow use that model with a similar connection? Both projects are in the same solution. Thanks!

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  • How to reuse results with a schema for end of day stock-data

    - by Vishalrix
    I am creating a database schema to be used for technical analysis like top-volume gainers, top-price gainers etc.I have checked answers to questions here, like the design question. Having taken the hint from boe100 's answer there I have a schema modeled pretty much on it, thusly: Symbol - char 6 //primary Date - date //primary Open - decimal 18, 4 High - decimal 18, 4 Low - decimal 18, 4 Close - decimal 18, 4 Volume - int Right now this table containing End Of Day( EOD) data will be about 3 million rows for 3 years. Later when I get/need more data it could be 20 million rows. The front end will be asking requests like "give me the top price gainers on date X over Y days". That request is one of the simpler ones, and as such is not too costly, time wise, I assume. But a request like " give me top volume gainers for the last 10 days, with the previous 100 days acting as baseline", could prove 10-100 times costlier. The result of such a request would be a float which signifies how many times the volume as grown etc. One option I have is adding a column for each such result. And if the user asks for volume gain in 10 days over 20 days, that would require another table. The total such tables could easily cross 100, specially if I start using other results as tables, like MACD-10, MACD-100. each of which will require its own column. Is this a feasible solution? Another option being that I keep the result in cached html files and present them to the user. I dont have much experience in web-development, so to me it looks messy; but I could be wrong ( ofc!) . Is that a option too? Let me add that I am/will be using mod_perl to present the response to the user. With much of the work on mysql database being done using perl. I would like to have a response time of 1-2 seconds.

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  • SQLAlchemy: select over multiple tables

    - by ahojnnes
    Hi, I wanted to optimize my database query: link_list = select( columns=[link_table.c.rating, link_table.c.url, link_table.c.donations_in], whereclause=and_( not_(link_table.c.id.in_( select( columns=[request_table.c.recipient], whereclause=request_table.c.donator==donator.id ).as_scalar() )), link_table.c.id!=donator.id, ), limit=20, ).execute().fetchall() and tried to merge those two selects in one query: link_list = select( columns=[link_table.c.rating, link_table.c.url, link_table.c.donations_in], whereclause=and_( link_table.c.active==True, link_table.c.id!=donator.id, request_table.c.donator==donator.id, link_table.c.id!=request_table.c.recipient, ), limit=20, order_by=[link_table.c.rating.desc()] ).execute().fetchall() the database-schema looks like: link_table = Table('links', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True, autoincrement=True), Column('url', Unicode(250), index=True, unique=True), Column('registration_date', DateTime), Column('donations_in', Integer), Column('active', Boolean), ) request_table = Table('requests', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True, autoincrement=True), Column('recipient', Integer, ForeignKey('links.id')), Column('donator', Integer, ForeignKey('links.id')), Column('date', DateTime), ) There are several links (donator) in request_table pointing to one link in the link_table. I want to have links from link_table, which are not yet "requested". But this does not work. Is it actually possible, what I'm trying to do? If so, how would you do that? Thank you very much in advance!

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  • General JDBC Setup

    - by AeroDroid
    So I have a MySQL database set up on a Debian server and it works fine from a phpMyAdmin client. I'm currently working on a project to write a Java server that would be able to use the MySQL database that is already on this server through a JDBC connection. I've looked at many tutorials and documentations but all of them seem to just explain how to do client-side code, but I have yet to figure out how to even successfully open a JDBC connection to the server. As far as I am concerned, I believe that program has the drivers properly set up because it's not crashing anymore (I simply direct the Java Build Path of my program to the Connector/J provided by MySQL). As far as my program goes, this is what it looks like... import java.sql.*; public class JDBCTest { public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println("Started!"); try { DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.mysql.jdbc.Driver()); System.out.println("Driver registered. Connecting..."); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://localhost/", "root", "password"); System.out.println("Connected!"); conn.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { System.out.println("Error!"); e.printStackTrace(); } } } This is what's printed... Started! Driver registered. Connecting... It's as if the DriverManager.getConnection(String) just freezes there. I'm sure this is a problem with the server because when I intentionally misspell localhost, or an IP address, the program crashes within 20 seconds. This just hangs there forever. Sorry about this wall of text, but my final question is if anyone has any information what I should do or install on the server to get this to work? Thank you so much!

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  • .NET - Is there a way to programmatically fill all tables in a strongly-typed dataset?

    - by Mike Loux
    Hello, all! I have a SQL Server database for which I have created a strongly-typed DataSet (using the DataSet Designer in Visual Studio 2008), so all the adapters and select commands and whatnot were created for me by the wizard. It's a small database with largely static data, so I would like to pull the contents of this DB in its entirety into my application at startup, and then grab individual pieces of data as needed using LINQ. Rather than hard-code each adapter Fill call, I would like to see if there is a way to automate this (possibly via Reflection). So, instead of: Dim _ds As New dsTest dsTestTableAdapters.Table1TableAdapter.Fill(_ds.Table1) dsTestTableAdapters.Table2TableAdapter.Fill(_ds.Table2) <etc etc etc> I would prefer to do something like: Dim _ds As New dsTest For Each tableName As String In _ds.Tables Dim adapter as Object = <routine to grab adapter associated with the table> adapter.Fill(tableName) Next Is that even remotely doable? I have done a fair amount of searching, and I wouldn't think this would be an uncommon request, but I must be either asking the wrong question, or I'm just weird to want to do this. I will admit that I usually prefer to use unbound controls and not go with strongly-typed datasets (I prefer to write SQL directly), but my company wants to go this route, so I'm researching it. I think the idea is that as tables are added, we can just refresh the DataSet using the Designer in Visual Studio and not have to make too many underlying DB code changes. Any help at all would be most appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • Windows service threading call to WCF service

    - by Sam Brinsted
    Hi, I have a windows service that is reading data from a database and then submitting it to a WCF serivce. Once that has finished it is stamping a processed date on the original record. Trouble I am currently having is to do with threading. The call to the WCF serivce is relatively long and I want to have a number of concurrent calls to the service to help improve the throughput of the windows service. Currently I have a submitToService method on a new worker class. Upon reading a new row from the database I am creating a new thread which is calling this method. This obviously isn't too good as the number of threads quickly shoots up and overburdens the WCF service. I have put a thread.sleep in the submit method and am sure to call System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.Abort(); after the submission has finished. However, I don't seem to see the number of threads go down. How can I just have a fixed number of threads that can be used in the windows service? I did think about using a thread pool but read somewhere that wasn't a good choice for a windows service. Thanks very much.

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  • How to cache pages using background jobs ?

    - by Alexandre
    Definitions: resource = collection of database records, regeneration = processing these records and outputting the corresponding html Current flow: Receive client request Check for resource in cache If not in cache or cache expired, regenerate Return result The problem is that the regeneration step can tie up a single server process for 10-15 seconds. If a couple of users request the same resource, that could result in a couple of processes regenerating the exact same resource simultaneously, each taking up 10-15 seconds. Wouldn't it be preferrable to have the frontend signal some background process saying "Hey, regenerate this resource for me". But then what would it display to the user? "Rebuilding" is not acceptable. All resources would have to be in cache ahead of time. This could be a problem as the database would almost be duplicated on the filesystem (too big to fit in memory). Is there a way to avoid this? Not ideal, but it seems like the only way out. But then there's one more problem. How to keep the same two processes from requesting the regeneration of a resource at the same time? The background process could be regenerating the resource when a frontend asks for the regeneration of the same resource. I'm using PHP and the Zend Framework just in case someone wants to offer a platform-specific solution. Not that it matters though - I think this problem applies to any language/framework. Thanks!

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  • JSON Select option question?

    - by user303832
    Hello,I wrote somethinh like this, `$sql = "SELECT * FROM dbase"; $strOptions = ""; if (!$q=mysql_query($sql)) { $strOptions = "<option>There was an error connecting to database</option>"; } if (mysql_num_rows($q)==0) { $strOptions = "<option>There are no news in database</option>"; }else { $a=0; while ($redak=mysql_fetch_assoc($q)) { $a=$a+1; $vvvv[$a]["id"]=$redak["id"]; $vvvv[$a]["ssss"]=$redak["ssss"]; } } for ($i=1; $i<=$a; $i++) { $strOptions = $strOptions. '<option value="'. $vvvv[$i]["id"] .'">'.$i.'.) - '.strip_tags($vvvv[$i]["ssss"]).'</option>'; } echo '[{ "message": "3" },{ "message": "' . count($wpdb->get_results("SELECT * FROM dbase")) . '" },{ "message": "'.$strOptions .'"}]';` I just cannot later parse json file,later I parse it on this way to fill select-option $jq("#select-my").children().remove(); $jq("#select-my").append(data[2].message); I use jquery form pluing,everything work fine,except this,I cant parse data for select-option element.I try and with json_encode in php.Can someone help please?

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  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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  • Why does Perl's DBI complain about "failed: ERROR OCIEnvNlsCreate" when I try to connect to Oracle 1

    - by John
    I am getting the following error connecting to an Oracle 11g database using a simple Perl script: failed: ERROR OCIEnvNlsCreate. Check ORACLE_HOME (Linux) env var or PATH (Windows) and or NLS settings, permissions, etc. at The script is as follows: #!/usr/local/bin/perl use strict; use DBI; if ($#ARGV < 3) { print "Usage: perl testDbAccess.pl dataBaseUser dataBasePassword SID dataBasePort\n"; exit 0; } my ($user, $pwd, $sid, $port) = @ARGV; my $host = `hostname`; my $dbh; my $sth; my $dbname = "dbi:Oracle:HOST=$host;SID=$sid;PORT=$port"; openDbConnection(); closeDbConnection(); sub openDbConnection() { $dbh = DBI->connect ($dbname, $user ,$pwd , { RaiseError => 1}) || die "Database connection not made: $DBI::errstr"; } sub closeDbConnection() { #$sth->finish(); $dbh->disconnect(); } Anyone seen this problem before?

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  • How can I map stored procedure result into a custom class with linq-to-sql?

    - by Remnant
    I have a stored procedure that returns a result set (4 columns x n Rows). The data is based on multiple tables within my database and provides a summary for each department within a corporate. Here is sample: usp_GetDepartmentSummary DeptName EmployeeCount Male Female HR 12 5 7 etc... I am using linq-to-sql to retrieve data from my database (nb - have to use sproc as it is something I have inherited). I would like to call the above sproc and map into a department class: public class Department { public string DeptName {get; set;} public int EmployeeCount {get; set;} public int MaleCount {get; set;} public int FemaleCount {get; set;} } In VS2008, I can drag and drop my sproc onto the methods pane of the linq-to-sql designer. When I examine the designer.cs the return type for this sproc is defined as: ISingleResult<usp_GetDepartmentSummaryResult> What I would like to do is amend this somehow so that it returns a Department type so that I can pass the results of the sproc as a strongly typed view: <% foreach (var dept in Model) { %> <ul> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.DeptName %></li> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.EmployeeCount %></li> etc... Any ideas how to achieve this? NB - I have tried amending the designer.cs and dbml xml file directly but with limited success. I admit to being a little out of my depth when it comes to updating those files directly and I am not sure it is best practice? Would be good to get some diretion. Thanks much

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  • Requirements for connecting to Oracle with JDBC?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    I'm a newbie to Java-related web development, and I can't seem to get a simple program with JDBC working. I'm using off-the-shelf Oracle 10g XE and the Eclipse EE IDE. From the books and web pages I've checked so far, I've narrowed the problem down to either an incorrectly written database URL or a missing JAR file. I'm getting the following error: java.sql.SQLException: No suitable driver found for jdbc:oracle://127.0.0.1:8080 with the following code: import java.sql.*; public class DatabaseTestOne { public static void main(String[] args) { String url = "jdbc:oracle://127.0.0.1:8080"; String username = "HR"; String password = "samplepass"; String sql = "SELECT EMPLOYEE_ID FROM EMPLOYEES WHERE LAST_NAME='King'"; Connection connection; try { connection = DriverManager.getConnection(url, username, password); Statement statement = connection.createStatement(); System.out.println(statement.execute(sql)); connection.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { System.err.println(e); } } } What is the proper format for a database URL, anyways? They're mentioned a lot but I haven't been able to find a description. Thanks! EDIT (the answer): Based on duffymo's answer, I got ojdbc14.jar from http://www.oracle.com/technology/software/tech/java/sqlj_jdbc/htdocs/jdbc_10201.html and dropped it in the Eclipse project's Referenced Libraries. Then I changed the start of the code to ... try { Class.forName("oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver"); } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { System.err.println(e); } // jdbc:oracle:thin:@<hostname>:<port>:<sid> String url = "jdbc:oracle:thin:@GalacticAC:1521:xe"; ... and it worked.

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  • Undefined method `add' on a cucumber step that usually works.

    - by Josiah Kiehl
    I have a path defined: when /the admin home\s?page/ "/admin/" I have scenario that is passing: Scenario: Let admins see the admin homepage Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" And I am on the admin home page Then I should see "Hi there." And I have a scenario that is failing: Scenario: Review flagged photo Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" ...bunch of steps that create stuff in the database... And I am on the admin home page Then ... the rest of the steps The step that fails in the second one is "And I am on the admin home page" which passes just fine in the first scenario. Here's the error I get: And I am on the admin home page # features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:18 undefined method `add' for {}:Hash (NoMethodError) ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:13:in `index' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `each' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `index' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/benchmark.rb:308:in `realtime' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:19:in `/^(?:|I )am on (.+)$/' features/admin.feature:52:in `And I am on the admin home page' This is very odd... why would it be fine in the first case, and not in the second where the only difference are a bunch of steps that create records in the db? [edit] Here's the add stuff to database step: Given /^there is a "([^\"]*)" with the following:$/ do |model, table| model.constantize.create!(table.rows_hash) end

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  • First site going live real soon. Last minute questions

    - by user156814
    I am really close to finishing up on a project that I've been working on. I have done websites before, but never on my own and never a site that involved user generated data. I have been reading up on things that should be considered before you go live and I have some questions. 1) Staging... (Deploying updates without affecting users). I'm not really sure what this would entail, since I'm sure that any type of update would affect users in some way. Does this mean some type of temporary downtime for every update? can somebody please explain this and a solution to this as well. 2) Limits... I'm using the Kohana framework and I'm using the Auth module for logging users in. I was wondering if this already has some type of limit (on login attempts) built in, and if not, what would be the best way to implement this. (save attempts in database, cookie, etc.). If this is not whats meant by limits, can somebody elaborate. 3) Caching... Like I said, this is my first site built around user content. Considering that, should I cache it? 4) Back Ups... How often should I backup my (MySQL) database, and how should I back it up (MySQL export?). The site is currently up, yet not finished, if anybody wants to look at it and see if something pops out to you that should be looked at/fixed. Clashing Thoughts. If there is anything else I overlooked, thats not already in the list linked to above, please let me know. Thanks.

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  • ClassCleanup in MSTest is static, but the build server uses nunit to run the unit tests. How can i a

    - by Kettenbach
    Hi All, MSTest has a [ClassCleanup()] attribute, which needs to be static as far as I can tell. I like to run through after my unit tests have run,and clean up my database. This all works great, however when I go to our build server and use our Nant build script, it seems like the unit tests are run with NUnit. NUnit doesn't seem to like the cleanup method to be static. It therefore ignores my tests in that class. What can I do to remedy this? I prefer to not use [TestCleanUp()] as that is run after each test. Does anyone have any suggestions? I know [TestCleanup()] aids in decoupling, but I really prefer the [ClassCleanup()] in this situation. Here is some example code. ////Use ClassCleanup to run code after all tests have run [ClassCleanup()] public static void MyFacadeTestCleanup() { UpdateCleanup(); } private static void UpdateCleanup() { DbCommand dbCommand; Database db; try { db = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(TestConstants.DB_NAME); int rowsAffected; dbCommand = db.GetSqlStringCommand("DELETE FROM tblA WHERE biID=@biID"); db.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "biID", DbType.Int64, biToDelete); rowsAffected = db.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); Debug.WriteLineIf(rowsAffected == TestConstants.ONE_ROW, string.Format("biId '{0}' was successfully deleted.", biToDelete)); } catch (SqlException ex) { } finally { dbCommand = null; db = null; biDelete = 0; } } Thanks for any pointers and yes i realize I'm not catching anything. I need to get passed this hurdle first. Cheers, ~ck in San Diego

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  • Where should I put contextual data related to an Object that is not really a property of the object?

    - by RenderIn
    I have a Car class. It has three properties: id, color and model. In a particular query I want to return all the cars and their properties, and I also want to return a true/false field called "searcherKnowsOwner" which is a field I calculate in my database query based on whether or not the individual conducting the search knows the owner. I have a database function that takes the ID of the searcher and the ID of the car and returns a boolean. My car class looks like this (pseudocode): class Car{ int id; Color color; Model model; } I have a screen where I want to display all the cars, but I also want to display a flag next to each car if the person viewing the page knows the owner of that car. Should I add a field to the Car class, a boolean searcherKnowsOwner? It's not a property of the car, but is actually a property of the user conducting the search. But this seems like the most efficient place to put this information.

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  • does sfWidgetFormSelect provide a string or an int of the selected item?

    - by han
    Hey guys, I'm having an annoying problem. I'm trying to find out what fields of a form were changed, and then insert that into a table. I managed to var_dump in doUpdateObjectas shown in the following public function doUpdateObject($values) { parent::doUpdateObject($values); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(false)); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(true)); } And it seems like $this-getObject()-getModified seems to work in giving me both before and after values by setting it to either true or false. The problem that I'm facing right now is that, some how, sfWidgetFormSelect seems to be saving one of my fields as a string. before saving, that exact same field was an int. (I got this idea by var_dump both before and after). Here is what the results on both var dumps showed: array(1) {["annoying_field"]=> int(3)} array(1) {["annoying_field"]=>string(1)"3"} This seems to cause doctrine to think that this is a modification and thus gives a false positive. In my base form, I have under $this->getWidgets() 'annoying_field' => new sfWidgetFormInputText(), under $this->setValidators 'annoying_field' => new sfValidatorInteger(array('required' => false)), and lastly in my configured Form.class.php I have reconfigured the file as such: $this->widgetSchema['annoying_field'] = new sfWidgetFormSelect(array('choices' => $statuses)); statuses is an array containing values like {""a", "b", "c", "d"} and I just want the index of the status to be stored in the database. And also how can I insert the changes into another database table? let's say my Log table? Any ideas and advice as to why this is happen is appreciated, I've been trying to figure it out and browsing google for various keywords with no avail. Thanks! Edit: ok so I created another field, integer in my schema just for testing. I created an entry, saved it, and edited it. this time the same thing happened!

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  • CLI include paths to run zend framework via cron

    - by summerg
    I wrote a command line utility using Zend Framework to do some nightly reporting. It uses a ton of the same functionality the accompanying site. It works great when I run it by hand, but when I run it on cron I have include path issues. Seems like it should be easily fixed with set_include_path, but maybe I'm missing something? My directory structure looks like this: /var/www/clientname/ application Globals.php commandline commandline_bootstrap.php public_html public_bootstrap.php library Zend In public_bootstrap.php I use set_include_path without a problem, relative to the current directory: set_include_path('../library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path()); If I understand correctly, in commandline_bootstrap.php I need to put in the absolute path, so cron knows where everything is. My file starts like this: error_reporting(E_ALL); set_include_path('/var/www/clientname/library' . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path()); require_once "../application/Globals.php"; But when I run it via cron I get the following error: PHP Fatal error: require_once(): Failed opening required '../application/Globals.php' (include_path='/var/www/clientname/library/') in /var/www/clientname/commandline/zfcli.php on line 11 I think PHP is accepting my new path, because when I run it command line and dump the phpinfo I can see: include_path = /var/www/clientname/library/:.:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php = .:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php I admit the syntax here looks a little strange, but I can’t figure out how to fix it. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks summer

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  • Can I add a condition to CakePHP's update statement?

    - by Don Kirkby
    Since there doesn't seem to be any support for optimistic locking in CakePHP, I'm taking a stab at building a behaviour that implements it. After a little research into behaviours, I think I could run a query in the beforeSave event to check that the version field hasn't changed. However, I'd rather implement the check by changing the update statement's WHERE clause from WHERE id = ? to WHERE id = ? and version = ? This way I don't have to worry about other requests changing the database record between the time I read the version and the time I execute the update. It also means I can do one database call instead of two. I can see that the DboSource.update() method supports conditions, but Model.save() never passes any conditions to it. It seems like I have a couple of options: Do the check in beforeSave() and live with the fact that it's not bulletproof. Hack my local copy of CakePHP to check for a conditions key in the options array of Model.save() and pass it along to the DboSource.update() method. Right now, I'm leaning in favour of the second option, but that means I can't share my behaviour with other users unless they apply my hack to their framework. Have I missed an easier option?

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  • Occasional weird Glassfish errors, resolved by a restart?

    - by Pooria
    I'm developing a web app using netbeans with GlassFishv3. Every once in a while when I add a new feature in my app, glassfish starts nagging with stupid errors, after a lot of time wasting and panicking, i restart glassfish and run my application again, then suddenly the errors all go away and my site starts acting correctly. (or in case I have made a real mistake, i receive a reasonable & descriptive error from GF.) [Edit: the rest of the question was revealed to have been my own mistake.] But the problems don't end there. Recently, i added the ability to write comments in a (JSF) page, after the user submits their comment, i add it to the database and redirect to the same page, so that hopefully the page refreshes with the new comment, but it wont! The underlying Mysql database shows that the new comment has been added, but the page just wont show the new comment! I've tried everything (e.g. deleting browser cache, using different browsers) but only after restarting GF is when the page shows the new comment! Do you have any idea what the problem could be? Could this be a Glassfish bug? What i am using: JSF2, EJB3.1, JPA, MySql

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