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• Getting Outlook calendar items based on subject

  - by EKS

  I'm trying to get a list of calendar objects from exchange and sorting them based on subject. The part of of getting the objects just based on date and sorting out via subject is in "code" is now working, but i want to do a sort on subject in the "sql" first, but im unable to make it work ( Currently getting error from exchange saying the query is wrong. The line I added is: + "AND lcase(\"urn:schemas:calendar:subject\") = 'onsite%' " What I want is the ability to catch all appointments that start with onsite, both in upper and lower case. strQuery = "<?xml version=\"1.0\"?>" + "<g:searchrequest xmlns:g=\"DAV:\">" + "<g:sql>SELECT \"urn:schemas:calendar:location\", \"urn:schemas:httpmail:subject\", " + "\"urn:schemas:calendar:dtstart\", \"urn:schemas:calendar:dtend\", " + "\"urn:schemas:calendar:busystatus\", \"urn:schemas:calendar:instancetype\" " + "FROM Scope('SHALLOW TRAVERSAL OF \"" + strCalendarURI + "\"') " + "WHERE NOT \"urn:schemas:calendar:instancetype\" = 1 " + "AND \"DAV:contentclass\" = 'urn:content-classes:appointment' " + "AND \"urn:schemas:calendar:dtstart\" > '2003/06/01 00:00:00' " //'" + DateString + "'" + "AND lcase(\"urn:schemas:calendar:subject\") = 'onsite' " + "ORDER BY \"urn:schemas:calendar:dtstart\" ASC" + "</g:sql></g:searchrequest>";

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• Hibernate collection mapping Problem

  - by Geln Yang

  Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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• XPath ordered priority attribute search

  - by user94000

  I want to write an XPath that can return some link elements on an HTML DOM. The syntax is wrong, but here is the gist of what I want: //web:link[@text='Login' THEN_TRY @href='login.php' THEN_TRY @index=0] THEN_TRY is a made-up operator, because I can't find what operator(s) to use. If many links exist on the page for the given set of [attribute=name] pairs, the link which matches the most left-most attribute(s) should be returned instead of any others. For example, consider a case where the above example XPath finds 3 links that match any of the given attributes: link A: text='Sign In', href='Login.php', index=0 link B: text='Login', href='Signin.php', index=15 link C: text='Login', href='Login.php', index=22 Link C ranks as the best match because it matches the First and Second attributes. Link B ranks second because it only matches the First attribute. Link A ranks last because it does not match the First attribute; it only matches the Second and Third attributes. The XPath should return the best match, Link C. If more than one link were tied for "best match", the XPath should return the first best link that it found on the page.

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• Prove correctness of unit test

  - by Timo Willemsen

  I'm creating a graph framework for learning purposes. I'm using a TDD approach, so I'm writing a lot of unit tests. However, I'm still figuring out how to prove the correctness of my unit tests For example, I have this class (not including the implementation, and I have simplified it) public class SimpleGraph(){ //Returns true on success public boolean addEdge(Vertex v1, Vertex v2) { ... } //Returns true on sucess public boolean addVertex(Vertex v1) { ... } } I also have created this unit tests @Test public void SimpleGraph_addVertex_noSelfLoopsAllowed(){ SimpleGraph g = new SimpleGraph(); Vertex v1 = new Vertex('Vertex 1'); actual = g.addVertex(v1); boolean expected = false; boolean actual = g.addEdge(v1,v1); Assert.assertEquals(expected,actual); } Okay, awesome it works. There is only one crux here, I have proved that the functions work for this case only. However, in my graph theory courses, all I'm doing is proving theorems mathematically (induction, contradiction etc. etc.). So I was wondering is there a way I can prove my unit tests mathematically for correctness? So is there a good practice for this. So we're testing the unit for correctness, instead of testing it for one certain outcome.

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• Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

  - by Ian

  Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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• FFT and IFFT on 3D matrix (Matlab)

  - by SteffenDM

  I have a movie with 70 grayscale frames in MATLAB. I have put them in a 3-D matrix, so the dimensions are X, Y and time. I want to determine the frequencies in the time dimension, so I have to calculate the FFT for every point in the 3rd dimension. This is not a problem but I have to return the images to the original form with ifft. In a normal situation this would be true: X = ifft(fft(X)), but this is not the case it seems in MATLAB when you work with multidimensional data. This is the code I use: for i = 1:length y(:, :, i) = [img1{i, level}]; %# take each picture from an cell array and put it end %# and put it in 3D array y2 = ifft(fft(y, NFFT,3), NFFT, 3); %# NFFT = 128, the 3 is the dimension in which i want %# to calculate the FFT and IFFT y is 480x640x70, so there are 70 images of 640x480 pixels. If I use only fft, y2 is 480x640x128 (this is normal because we want 128 points with NFFT). If I use fft and ifft, y2 is 480x640x128 pixels. This is not normal, the 128 should be 70 again. I tried to do it in just one dimension by using 2 for loops and this works fine. The for loops take to much time, though.

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• .NET MissingMethodException occuring on one of thousands of end-user machines -- any insight?

  - by Yoooder

  This issue has me baffled, it's affecting a single user (to my knowledge) and hasn't been reproduced by us... The user is receiving a MissingMethodException, our trace file indicates it's occuring after we create a new instance of a component, when we're calling an Initialize/Setup method in preparation to have it do work (InitializeWorkerByArgument in the example) The Method specified by the error is an interface method, which a base class implements and classes derived from the base class can override as-needed The user has the latest release of our application All the provided code is shipped within a single assembly Here's a very distilled version of the component: class Widget : UserControl { public void DoSomething(string argument) { InitializeWorkerByArgument(argument); this.Worker.DoWork(); } private void InitializeWorkerByArgument(string argument) { switch (argument) { case "SomeArgument": this.Worker = new SomeWidgetWorker(); break; } // The issue I'm tracking down would have occured during "new SomeWidgetWorker()" // and would have resulted in a missing method exception stating that // method "DoWork" could not be found. this.Worker.DoWorkComplete += new EventHandler(Worker_DoWorkComplete); } private IWidgetWorker Worker { get; set; } void Worker_DoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("All done"); } } interface IWidgetWorker { void DoWork(); event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } abstract class BaseWorker : IWidgetWorker { virtual public void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } internal void RaiseDoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (DoWorkComplete != null) { DoWorkComplete(this, null); } } public event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } class SomeWidgetWorker : BaseWorker { public override void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } }

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• When is factory method better than simple factory and vice versa?

  - by Bruce

  Hi all Working my way through the Head First Design Patterns book. I believe I understand the simple factory and the factory method, but I'm having trouble seeing what advantages factory method brings over simple factory. If an object A uses a simple factory to create its B objects, then clients can create it like this: A a = new A(new BFactory()); whereas if an object uses a factory method, a client can create it like this: A a = new ConcreteA(); // ConcreteA contains a method for instantiating the same Bs that the BFactory above creates, with the method hardwired into the subclass of A, ConcreteA. So in the case of the simple factory, clients compose A with a B factory, whereas with the factory method, the client chooses the appropriate subclass for the types of B it wants. There really doesn't seem to be much to choose between them. Either you have to choose which BFactory you want to compose A with, or you have to choose the right subclass of A to give you the Bs. Under what circumstances is one better than the other? Thanks all!

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• What is the best practice for including third party jar files in a Java program?

  - by ZoFreX

  I have a program that needs several third-party libraries, and at the moment it is packaged like so: zerobot.jar (my file) libs/pircbot.jar libs/mysql-connector-java-5.1.10-bin.jar libs/c3p0-0.9.1.2.jar As far as I know the "best" way to handle third-party libs is to put them on the classpath in the manifest of my jar file, which will work cross-platform, won't slow down launch (which bundling them might) and doesn't run into legal issues (which repackaging might). The problem is for users who supply the third party libraries themselves (example use case, upgrading them to fix a bug). Two of the libraries have the version number in the file, which adds hassle. My current solution is that my program has a bootstrapping process which makes a new classloader and instantiates the program proper using it. This custom classloader adds all .jar files in lib/ to its classpath. My current way works fine, but I now have two custom classloaders in my application and a recent change to the code has caused issues that are difficult to debug, so if there is a better way I'd like to remove this complexity. It also seems like over-engineering for what I'm sure is a very common situation. So my question is, how should I be doing this?

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• What is the performance impact of CSS's universal selector?

  - by Bungle

  I'm trying to find some simple client-side performance tweaks in a page that receives millions of monthly pageviews. One concern that I have is the use of the CSS universal selector (*). As an example, consider a very simple HTML document like the following: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title>Example</title> <style type="text/css"> * { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </head> <body> <h1>This is a heading</h1> <p>This is a paragraph of text.</p> </body> </html> The universal selector will apply the above declaration to the body, h1 and p elements, since those are the only ones in the document. In general, would I see better performance from a rule such as: body, h1, p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } Or would this have exactly the same net effect? Essentially, what I'm asking is if these rules are effectively equivalent in this case, or if the universal selector has to perform more unnecessary work that I may not be aware of. I realize that the performance impact in this example may be very small, but I'm hoping to learn something that may lead to more significant performance improvements in real-world situations. Thanks for any help!

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• Regarding some Update Stored procedure

  - by Serenity

  I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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• why does setting stderr=subprocess.STDOUT fix a subprocess.check_output call?

  - by ShankarG

  I have a python script running on a small server that is called in three different ways - from within another python script, by cron, or by gammu-smsd (an SMS daemon with the wonderful mobile utility [gammu]). The script is for maintenance and contained the following kludge to measure used space on the system (presumably this is possible from within Python, but this was quick and dirty): reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], shell=True)[0:-1] Oddly enough this line would only fail when the script was called by a shell script running from gammu-smsd. The line would fail with a CalledProcessError exception saying "returned exit status 2", even though the output attribute of the CalledProcessError object contained the correct output. The only command in the sequence of shell commands that would give such an error status would be awk, with status 2 indicating a fatal error. If the python script with this line was called by cron, by another python script, or from the command line, this line would work fine. I broke my head trying to fix the environment for the script, thinking this must be the problem. Finally though I put in stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, like so: reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, shell=True)[0:-1] This was a debug measure to help me figure out if some output was coming on stderr. But after this the script started working, even when called from gammu-smsd! Why might this be the case? I ask for future reference when using subprocess...

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• Implementing a c/c++ style union as a column in MySQL

  - by user81338

  Friends, I have a strange need and cannot think my way through the problem. The great and mighty Google is of little help due to keyword recycling (as you'll see). Can you help? What I want to do is store data of multiple types in a single column in MySQL. This is the database equivalent to a C union (and if you search for MySQL and Union, you obviously get a whole bunch of stuff on the UNION keyword in SQL). [Contrived and simplified case follows] So, let us say that we have people - who have names - and STORMTROOPERS - who have TK numbers. You cannot have BOTH a NAME and a TK number. You're either BOB SMITH -or- TK409. In C I could express this as a union, like so: union { char * name; int tkNo; } EmperialPersonnelRecord; This makes it so that I am either storing a pointer to a char array or an ID in the type EmperialPersonnelRecord, but not both. I am looking for a MySQL equivalent on a column. My column would store either an int, double, or varchar(255) (or whatever combination). But would only take up the space of the largest element. Is this possible? (of course anything is possible given enough time, money and will - I mean is it possible if I am poor, lazy and on a deadline... aka "out of the box")

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• Retrieve class name hierarchy as string

  - by Jeff Wain

  Our system complexity has risen to the point that we need to make permission names tied to the client from the database more specific. In the client, permissions are referenced from a static class since a lot of client functionality is dependent on the permissions each user has and the roles have a ton of variety. I've referenced this post as an example, but I'm looking for a more specific use case. Take for instance this reference, where PermissionAlpha would be a const string: return HasPermission(PermissionNames.PermissionAlpha); Which is great, except now that things are growing more complex the classes are being structured like this: public static class PermissionNames { public static class PermissionAlpha { public const string SubPermission; } } I'm trying to find an easy way to reference PermissionAlpha in this new setup that will act similar to the first declaration above. Would the only way to do this be to resort to pulling the value of the class name like in the example below? I'm trying to keep all the names in one place that can be reference anywhere in the application. public static class PermissionAlpha { public static string Name { get { return typeof(PermissionAlpha).Name; } } }

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• doubt in javascript name validation

  - by raja

  Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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• What are the elegant ways to do MixIns in Python?

  - by Slava Vishnyakov

  I need to find an elegant way to do 2 kinds of MixIns. First: class A(object): def method1(self): do_something() Now, a MixInClass should make method1 do this: do_other() - A.method1() - do_smth_else() - i.e. basically "wrap" the older function. I'm pretty sure there must exist a good solution to this. Second: class B(object): def method1(self): do_something() do_more() In this case, I want MixInClass2 to be able to inject itself between do_something() and do_more(), i.e.: do_something() - MixIn.method1 - do_more(). I understand that probably this would require modifying class B - that's ok, just looking for simplest ways to achieve this. These are pretty trivial problems and I actually solved them, but my solution is tainted. Fisrt one by using self._old_method1 = self.method1(); self.method1() = self._new_method1(); and writing _new_method1() that calls to _old_method1(). Problem: multiple MixIns will all rename to _old_method1 and it is inelegant. Second MixIn one was solved by creating a dummy method call_mixin(self): pass and injecting it between calls and defining self.call_mixin(). Again inelegant and will break on multiple MixIns.. Any ideas?

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• How do I create an inheritable Semaphore in .NET?

  - by pauldoo

  I am trying to create a Win32 Semaphore object which is inheritable. This means that any child processes I launch may automatically have the right to act on the same Win32 object. My code currently looks as follows: Semaphore semaphore = new Semaphore(0, 10); Process process = Process.Start(pathToExecutable, arguments); But the semaphore object in this code cannot be used by the child process. The code I am writing is a port of come working C++. The old C++ code achieves this by the following: SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES security = {0}; security.nLength = sizeof(security); security.bInheritHandle = TRUE; HANDLE semaphore = CreateSemaphore(&security, 0, LONG_MAX, NULL); Then later when CreateProcess is called the bInheritHandles argument is set to TRUE. (In both the C# and C++ case I am using the same child process (which is C++). It takes the semaphore ID on command line, and uses the value directly in a call to ReleaseSemaphore.) I suspect I need to construct a special SemaphoreSecurity or ProcessStartInfo object, but I haven't figured it out yet.

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• Real time location tracking - windows program or browser based?

  - by mawg

  I want to track a few hundred, maybe a few thousand people in real time. Let's say that the hardware aspects are sorted out and I can get the data into a database. Now, I want to get it out and show it, in real-time. Weeeell ... "real-enough" time. Let's say that I want to draw a floorplan of a building and plot everyone every 1 to 5 seconds. (I might want to show only certain "kinds" of people at the click of a button; I will need datamining, etc, but let's stick with the worse case scenario). I am comfortable enough with PHP, though not this sort of thing. I personally would be happier with a windows app coded in Delphi, but the trend seems to be to make everything browser based. So, the question, I guess is whether a browser can handle this and whether there are compelling arguments for a windows-based or browser-based solution. If browser-based can handle this (displaying a few thousand data-points a second), and there are no overwhelming arguments for windows then I guess I will go for browser-based and learn a few new tricks. The obvious advantage being that I could also re-use a large part of my code for (vehicle) tracking on Google maps.

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• What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

  - by Bernhard

  Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

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• How to mock a String using mockito?

  - by Alceu Costa

  I need to simulate a test scenario in which I call the getBytes() method of a String object and I get an UnsupportedEncodingException. I have tried to achieve that using the following code: String nonEncodedString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); The problem is that when I run my test case I get a MockitoException that says that I can't mock a java.lang.String class. Is there a way to mock a String object using mockito or, alternatively, a way to make my String object throw an UnsupportedEncodingException when I call the getBytes method? Here are more details to illustrate the problem: This is the class that I want to test: public final class A{ public static String f(String str){ try{ return new String(str.getBytes("UTF-8")); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { // This is the catch block that I want to exercise. ... } } } This is my testing class (I'm using JUnit 4 and mockito): public class TestA { @Test(expected=UnsupportedEncodingException.class) public void test(){ String aString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); A.f(aString); } }

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• C# generics when T could be an array

  - by bufferz

  I am writing a C# wrapper for a 3rd party library that reads both single values and arrays from a hardware device, but always returns an object[] array even for one value. This requires repeated calls to object[0] when I'd like the end user to be able to use generics to receive either an array or single value. I want to use generics so the callee can use the wrapper in the following ways: MyWrapper<float> mw = new MyWrapper<float>( ... ); float value = mw.Value; //should return float; MyWrapper<float[]> mw = new MyWrapper<float[]>( ... ); float[] values = mw.Value; //should return float[]; In MyWrapper I have the Value property currently as the following: public T Value { get { if(_wrappedObject.Values.Length > 1) return (T)_wrappedObject.Value; //T could be float[]. this doesn't compile. else return (T)_wrappedObject.Values[0]; //T could be float. this compiles. } } I get a compile error in the first case: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T' If I change MyWrapper.Value to T[] I receive: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T[]' Any ideas of how to achieve my goal? Thanks!

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• MSVC 2003 doesn't see any definitions from a nested include file

  - by ezpresso

  I have a piece of code with COM class declaration as follows: #include "PathTypes.h" MIDL_INTERFACE("552C7555-0555-4444-BA86-56CF39AAFFFF") IPathCalc : public IUnknown { virtual HRESULT STDMETHODCALLTYPE GetLocation( /* [retval][out] */ GeoLocation* pLoc) = 0; virtual HRESULT STDMETHODCALLTYPE SetLocation( /* [in] */ GeoLocation* pLoc) = 0; ... }; Below is the contents of PathTypes.h file: #if !defined(PATHCALC_TYPES_INCLUDED) #define PATHCALC_TYPES_INCLUDED #include "libastro/AstronomyStructs.h" #endif And the libastro/AstronomyStructs.h from an external cross-platform library: #ifndef _ASTRONOMY_STRUCTS_INCLUDED #define _ASTRONOMY_STRUCTS_INCLUDED typedef struct { double lattitude; double longitude; } GeoLocation; ... #endif /* _ASTRONOMY_STRUCTS_INCLUDED */ When I'm trying to build this code with g++ everything goes well. That's not the case with MSVC 2003 which returns error C2061: syntax error : identifier 'GeoLocation'. Seems like MSVC doesn't "see" the definitions from the libastro/AstronomyStructs.h file. When I replace #include "PathTypes.h" with #include "libastro/AstronomyStructs.h" the code compiles without errors. How to make MSVC 2003 to actually "see" the definitions from the nested include files?

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• Plist data OK in iPhone simulator but disappears after installation onto device

  - by user183804

  I am testing an application on a first-generation iPod running OS 3.1.3 with a tableview populated from a plist. The application works well on the simulator. Initially after installation onto the iPod for testing, the tableview was blank (scrollable lines present, but empty rows). After searching this site, I found one issue to be a case-sensitive problem in the name of the plist file ("Data.plist in resources; "data.plist" in code). When the problem persisted, I again found on this site the advice to "Clean all Targets" prior to installation. I now have found that after performing a "Clean all Targets" operation twice, quitting XCode in between operations, the problem resolves, and the tableview appears properly populated after installation. I am wondering whether this issue signifies a corrupted plist file, prior to making the application available on the App store. Re-creating the plist file from scratch and then testing it likely would take several hours of work, so I do not want to do so unless absolutely necessary. Thanks in advance for any help.

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• Android: SurfaceView and Z-Level Question

  - by JimBadger

  I have a FrameLayout containint first a SurfaceView, and second a RelativeLayout which in turn contians various Buttons and TextViews. Upon the canvas of the SurfaceView I am drawing numerous Bitmaps, and, via Touch and Motion Events am allowing the user to drag them around. These Bitmaps, when dragged around pass underneath the Buttons etc that are inside the RelativeLayout. Now, it's my (possibly mistaken) understanding that the "Z-level" of the SurfaceView, or whatever it has that passes for it, is entirely unrelated to the actual Z-level of the rest of the Layout. Is this the case? If so, how may I get around it, so that dragged Bitmaps are drawn ontop of other Views? Or what other way can I implement a full-screen canvas and yet not have my buttons etc act like the controls of an overlay. I guess what I actually need is an underlay, where touch events can still be picked up by the Buttons etc underneath. But I don't know how to achieve this, as, when redrawing my Canvas, I have to also redraw the background. Can I swap the order of the RelativeLayout and the SurfaceView inside the FrameLayout, and then make the background of the Canvas transparent? If so how? Will touch events still "fall through" to the buttons underneath? Thanks for bearing with me, I know I'm a bit of a waffler.

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• Spring MVC: How to get the remaining path after the controller path?

  - by Willis Blackburn

  I've spent over an hour trying to find the answer to this question, which seems like it should reflect a common use case, but I can't figure it out! Basically I am writing a file-serving controller using Spring MVC. The URLs are of the format http://www.bighost.com/serve/the/path/to/the/file.jpg, in which the part after "/serve" is the path to the requested file, which may have an arbitrary number of path segments. I have a controller like this: @Controller class ServerController { @RequestMapping(value = "/serve/???") public void serve(???) { } } What I am trying to figure out is: What do I use in place of "???" to make this work? I have two theories about how this should work. The first theory is that I could replace the first "???" in the RequestMapping with a path variable placeholder that has some special syntax meaning "capture to the end of the path." If a regular placeholder looks like "{path}" then maybe I could use "{path:**}" or "{path:/}" or something like that. Then I could use a @PathVariable annotation to refer to the path variable in the second "???". The other theory is that I could replace the first "???" with "**" (match anything) and that Spring would give me an API to obtain the remainder of the path (the part matching the "**"). But I can't find such an API. Thanks for any help you can provide!

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