Search Results

Search found 21802 results on 873 pages for 'erx vb next coder'.

Page 753/873 | < Previous Page | 749 750 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760  | Next Page >

  • Is Maven really flexible?

    - by Dima
    I understand how Maven works with .java files in src/java/main. But may it be used for a more general case? Let us put it more abstract: Suppose I already have some a.exe that read some (not necessarily only .java) sources from directories A1, A2, A3 and puts some files (maybe some are generated .java) to directories B1, B2. I also have some b.exe that currently reads files from B1, B2, B3 and generates something else. Some more similar steps. (A real life problem stands behind). I would like to right POM.xml file so that maven will do this work. Is that possible? I assume that a.exe and b.exe should be warped as maven plugings. Next, in Maven docs I see : <build> <sourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDirectory> <scriptSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/scripts</scriptSourceDirectory> <testSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/test/java</testSourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>${basedir}/target/classes</outputDirectory> <testOutputDirectory>${basedir}/target/test-classes</testOutputDirectory> ... </build> What bothers me is that "sourceDirectory" looks by itself as a hard coded name. Will Maven accept A1 and A2 tags instead?

    Read the article

  • iphone navigation

    - by Rona
    function handleClickEvent(event) { var linkFrom = $(event.target); if (typeof linkFrom.attr("href") == 'undefined') { linkFrom = $(event.target).parent(); } var targetPage = linkFrom.attr("href"); if (linkFrom.hasClass('submit')) { handleSubmitEvent(event); // if we want to stop processing: return false; } if (linkFrom.hasClass('backbutton')) { targetPage = historyStack.pop(); if (historyStack.length == 0) { lastPage = "index.html"; } } else { historyStack.push(lastPage); } lastPage = targetPage; $(event.target).css({ 'background-color': '#194fdb', 'color': '#ffffff' }); loadingWindowON(); // Add new unique div prevPageId = "page" + pageIdCounter; pageIdCounter = parseInt(pageIdCounter) + 1 nextPageId = "page" + pageIdCounter; nextPageDiv = "<div id='" + nextPageId + "' class='nextpage' /></div>"; $("body").append(nextPageDiv); if (linkFrom.attr("target") != "_blank") { event.preventDefault(); document.getElementById(nextPageId).addEventListener('webkitAnimationEnd', function () { // remove prev div element = document.getElementById(prevPageId); if (element) { element.parentNode.removeChild(element); } // set next div as current document.getElementById(nextPageId).className = 'currentpage'; }, false); document.getElementById(nextPageId).className += ' slideleftIn'; document.getElementById(prevPageId).className += ' slideleftOut'; loadContent(targetPage, nextPageId); } I use this javascript with a twitter app I had to do and when I click a button, instead of sliding the new page from the side it adds it to the existing page at the bottom. It works fine when i open it on my computer using google chrome but when I try to open it with my iphone it doesn't work. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Share variable across site ASP.NET

    - by Anders
    I have a class isSearching with a single boolean property in a 'functions' file in my webapp. On my search page, I have a variable oSearchHandler declared as a Public Shared variable. How can I access the contents of oSearchHandler on other pages in my webapp? Code with Session.... 'search.aspx Public Function oSearchString(ByVal oTextBoxName As String) As String For Each oKey As String In Request.Form.AllKeys If oKey.Contains(oTextBoxName) Then Session.Add("searching", True) Session.Add("search-term", Request.Form(oKey)) Return Request.Form(oKey) End If Next Return "" End Function 'theMaster.master <% If Session("searching") Then %><ul style="float: right;"> <li> <div class="gsSearch"> <asp:TextBox ID="searchbox" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </div> </li> <li> <div class="gsSearch"> <asp:Button ID="searchbutton" runat="server" Text="search" UseSubmitBehavior="true" PostBackUrl="search.aspx" CssClass="searchBtn" /> </div> </li> </ul> <% End If %> I think that the session will work just fine.

    Read the article

  • problem with jquery each and swich between 2 things

    - by moustafa
    first see this post i got this code $('.yesno').click(function(){ $('.yesno').each(function(i, v){ $(v).removeClass('selected'); }); $(this).addClass('selected'); return false; }); and html this <a href="#"> <span class="Yes yesno">Yes</span> </a> <a href="#"> <span class="No yesno">No</span> no the problem when i make more than one vote iam get very big problem see this <a href="#"> <span class="Yes yesno">Yes</span> </a> <a href="#"> <span class="No yesno">No</span> </a> <a href="#"> <span class="Yes yesno">Yes</span> </a> <a href="#"> <span class="No yesno">No</span> </a> </a> when click first yes its choose the first yes and hwen iam going to the next yes when click its because selected but the first yes because unselected i want make some thin make each yes and know is differant of others

    Read the article

  • Why is post() not updating the DOM after it returns? Wierd timing problem observed.

    - by Sephrial
    Hi all, I have the following code that is really bugging me, I'm thinking perhaps the post() function needs to be blocking. I am new to jQuery(latest version) and AJAX, but I'm using ColdFusion which returns some HTML in the data variable. var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; }); //alert(statusResult); if ('success' == statusResult) { alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); } When I uncomment out the first alert, it returns 'undefined' but then it goes into the if block and the next alert box it says 'success'. If I comment out that line it doesn't make it into the if statement at all. My guess is that I want to make this a blocking call or something because I want to insert the data on the page after the post. I also have a problem when I re-write the top code as follows: var dataResult; var statusResult; $.post('fh_result.cfm',$('#myform').serialize(),function(data,status){ dataResult = data; statusResult = status; alert(statusResult); $('#result').html(dataResult); }); //alert(statusResult); Now in this case, the alert says 'success' when I comment out the second alert box. When I uncomment it out, I get one alert that says success and the other that says undefined, but this time it updates the DOM with the result of the postback as desired. How can I do this without the alert box?

    Read the article

  • # how to split the column values using stored procedure

    - by user1444281
    I have two tables table 1 is SELECT * FROM dbo.TBL_WD_WEB_DECK WD_ID WD_TITLE ------------------ 1 2 and data in 2nd table is WS_ID WS_WEBPAGE_ID WS_SPONSORS_ID WS_STATUS ----------------------------------------------------- 1 1 1,2,3,4 Y I wrote the following stored procedure to insert the data into both the tables catching the identity of main table dbo.TBL_WD_WEB_DECK. WD_ID is related with WS_WEBPAGE_ID. I wrote the cursor in update action to split the WS_SPONSORS_ID column calling the split function in the cursor. But it is not working. The stored procedure is: ALTER procedure [dbo].[SP_Example_SPLIT] ( @action char(1), @wd_id int out, @wd_title varchar(50), @ws_webpage_id int, @ws_sponsors_id varchar(250), @ws_status char(1) ) as begin set nocount on IF (@action = 'A') BEGIN INSERT INTO dbo.TBL_WD_WEB_DECK(WD_TITLE)VALUES(@WD_TITLE) DECLARE @X INT SET @X = @@IDENTITY INSERT INTO dbo.TBL_WD_SPONSORS(WS_WEBPAGE_ID,WS_SPONSORS_ID,WS_STATUS) VALUES (@ws_webpage_id,@ws_sponsors_id,@ws_status) END ELSE IF (@action = 'U') BEGIN UPDATE dbo.TBL_WD_WEB_DECK SET WD_TITLE = @wd_title WHERE WD_ID = @WD_ID UPDATE dbo.TBL_WD_SPONSORS SET WS_STATUS = 'N' where WS_SPONSORS_ID not in (@ws_sponsors_id) and ws_webpage_id = @wd_id BEGIN /* Declaring Cursor to split the value in ws_sponsors_id column */ Declare @var int Declare splt cursor for /* used the split function and calling the parameter in that split function */ select * from iter_simple_intlist_to_tbl(@WS_SPONSORS_ID) OPEN splt FETCH NEXT FROM splt INTO @var WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS = 0) begin if not exists(select * from dbo.TBL_WD_SPONSORS where WS_WEBPAGE_ID = @wd_id and WS_SPONSORS_ID = @var) begin insert into dbo.TBL_WD_SPONSORS (WS_WEBPAGE_ID,WS_SPONSORS_ID) values(@wd_id,@var) end end CLOSE SPONSOR DEALLOCATE SPONSOR END END END The result I want is if I insert the data in WD_ID and IN WS_SPONSORS_ID column the data in the WS_SPONSORS_ID column should split and I need to compare it with WD_ID. The result I need is: WD_ID WD_TITLE --------------------- 1 TEST 2 TEST1 3 WS_ID WS_WEBPAGE_ID WS_SPONSORS_ID WS_STATUS -------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 1 Y 2 1 2 N 3 1 3 Y If I pass the string in WS_SPONSORS_ID as 1,2,3 it has to split like the above. Can you help?

    Read the article

  • Initializing an object to all zeroes

    - by dash-tom-bang
    Oftentimes data structures' valid initialization is to set all members to zero. Even when programming in C++, one may need to interface with an external API for which this is the case. Is there any practical difference between: some_struct s; memset(s, 0, sizeof(s)); and simply some_struct s = { 0 }; Do folks find themselves using both, with a method for choosing which is more appropriate for a given application? For myself, as mostly a C++ programmer who doesn't use memset much, I'm never certain of the function signature so I find the second example is just easier to use in addition to being less typing, more compact, and maybe even more obvious since it says "this object is initialized to zero" right in the declaration rather than waiting for the next line of code and seeing, "oh, this object is zero initialized." When creating classes and structs in C++ I tend to use initialization lists; I'm curious about folks thoughts on the two "C style" initializations above rather than a comparison against what is available in C++ since I suspect many of us interface with C libraries even if we code mostly in C++ ourselves.

    Read the article

  • Getting a `free()` error when deallocating with `delete` in the backtrace

    - by wonko
    I got the following error from gdb: *** glibc detected *** /.root0/autohome/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/debug/Ipopt/examples/ex3/ex3: free(): invalid next size (fast): 0x0000000120052b60 *** Here's the backtrace: #0 0x000000555626b264 in raise () from /lib/libc.so.6 #1 0x000000555626cc6c in abort () from /lib/libc.so.6 #2 0x00000055562a7b9c in __libc_message () from /lib/libc.so.6 #3 0x00000055562aeabc in malloc_printerr () from /lib/libc.so.6 #4 0x00000055562b036c in free () from /lib/libc.so.6 #5 0x000000555561ddd0 in Ipopt::TNLPAdapter::~TNLPAdapter () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #6 0x00000055556a9910 in Ipopt::GradientScaling::~GradientScaling () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #7 0x00000055557241b8 in Ipopt::OrigIpoptNLP::~OrigIpoptNLP () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #8 0x00000055556ae7f0 in Ipopt::IpoptAlgorithm::~IpoptAlgorithm () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #9 0x0000005555602278 in Ipopt::IpoptApplication::~IpoptApplication () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #10 0x0000005555614428 in FreeIpoptProblem () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #11 0x0000000120001610 in main () at ex3.c:169` And here's the code for Ipopt::TNLPAdapter::~TNLPAdapter () TNLPAdapter::~TNLPAdapter() { delete [] full_x_; delete [] full_lambda_; delete [] full_g_; delete [] jac_g_; delete [] c_rhs_; delete [] jac_idx_map_; delete [] h_idx_map_; delete [] x_fixed_map_; delete [] findiff_jac_ia_; delete [] findiff_jac_ja_; delete [] findiff_jac_postriplet_; delete [] findiff_x_l_; delete [] findiff_x_u_; } My question is : why does free() throw an error when ~TNLPAdapter() uses delete[]? Also, I would like to step through ~TNLPAdapter() so I can see which deallocation causes the error. I believe the error occurs in the external library (IPOPT) but I have compiled it with debug flags on ; is this sufficient?

    Read the article

  • Syncing objects between two devices with different system times

    - by Mike Weller
    Hi there. I'm syncing objects between two devices. Objects have a lastModified property. If both devices have modified an object, then during the next sync the version of the object with the most recent lastModified is chosen on both devices. So we don't do fine-grained merging, only 'most recent version' merging. The problem is this. When one device receives a list of changed objects it can't reliably compare the lastModified of received objects to its own because the system times on the two devices may be different. I considered having each device send its current date/time during the sync. Then each calculates the difference between the remote time and the local time to compare the dates properly. But if there is lag between sending a date and the remote device receiving it, this causes incorrect comparisons with objects that were modified at the same time (or very close together in time). i.e. both devices think the remote object is newer and they end up with different objects. I hope I have explained this clearly enough. There must be a common solution to this kind of problem but my brain isn't coming up with anything. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • Huge burst of memory in c# service, what could be the cause?

    - by Daniel
    I'm working on a c# service application and i have this problem where out of no where and for no obvious reason, the memory for the process will climb from 150mb to almost 2gb in about 5 seconds and then back to 150mb. But nothing in our system should be using any where near that amount of memory (so its probably a bug somewhere). It might be a tight while true loop somewhere but the cpu usage at the time was very low so i thought i'd look for other ideas. Now the weirder thing is when i compile the service for 64bit, the same massive burst will occur except it exceeded 10gb of ram (paging most of it) and it just caused lots of problems with the computer and everything running on it. After a while it shuts down but it looks like windows is still willing to give it more memory. Would you have any ideas or tools that i can use in order to find this? Yes it has lots of logging however nothing in the logs stand out as to why this is happening. I can run the service in a console app mode, so my next test was going to be running it in visual studio debugger and see if i can find anything. It only happens occasionally but usually about 10-20 minutes after startup. On 32bit mode it cleans up and continues on like normally. 64bit mode it crashes after a while and uses stupid amounts of memory. But i'm really stumped as to why this is happening!!!

    Read the article

  • float** allocation limit + serialized struct problem. Need advice!

    - by jmgunn
    basically im getting an allocation limit error/warning when i create a float** array. the function i am calling to fill the float** retrieves data from a struct loaded from a file. The function works fine when i use one object but when i load 2 objects into memory i get the limit error. I am pretty sure this is to do with byte alignment or a similar thing because my struct is saved with a float** member which i am sure you are not susposed to do !?! Please confirm this! The next question i have now is how to save/serialize the float** member of this struct? I cant really afford to put an upper bound on the array ie "float [10000][3]" because i need/want to use this structure as a base for many other types of objects that may have well under the upper bound. Stroking my chin here! Any help/advice will recieve my highest gratitude. BTW these said struct objects will be used in a game/graphics package, the float** is a float[3] array for storing vertices in a model. Much thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • 'For' Loop Within a 'For' Loop and Then Another?

    - by BenjaminFranklin
    This has confused me quite a bit, but it's also really interesting! I want to loop through a grid of 9 elements in an array, multiply them all by 1/9. Then, I want to find the sum of those 9 elements and replace each individual element's with the value calculated as the sum. After I've done this, I want to move on to the next nine elements. To clarify, I want all 9 elements to be changed to myVal, in the code below. So far I've got the loop within a loop bit, but I don't know how to then go back and replace each of the values with the sum of all of them combined. Here's my code:- previousx = 0; previousy= 0; for (int x = previousx; x < previousx+4; x++) { for(int y = previousy; y < previousy+4; y++) { y = y*(1/9); yVal += y; } } Any advice would, of course, be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Saving information in the IO System

    - by djTeller
    Hi Kernel Gurus, I need to write a kernel module that simulate a "multicaster" Using the /proc file system. Basically it need to support the following scenarios: 1) allow one write access to the /proc file and many read accesses to the /proc file. 2) The module should have a buffer of the contents last successful write. Each write should be matched by a read from all reader. Consider scenario 2, a writer wrote something and there are two readers (A and B), A read the content of the buffer, and then A tried to read again, in this case it should go into a wait_queue and wait for the next message, it should not get the same buffer again. I need to keep a map of all the pid's that already read the current buffer, and in case they try to read again and the buffer was not changed, they should be blocked until there is a new buffer. I'm trying to figure it there is a way i can save that info without a map. I heard there are some redundant fields inside the I/O system the I can use to flag a process if it already read the current buffer. Can someone give me a tip where should i look for that field ? how can i save info on the current process without keeping a "map" of pid's and buffers ? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to increase my "advanced" knowledge of PHP further? (quickly)

    - by Kerry
    I have been working with PHP for years and gotten a very good grasp of the language, created many advanced and not-so-advanced systems that are working very well. The problem I'm running into is that I only learn when I find a need for something that I haven't learned before. This causes me to look up solutions and other code that handles the problem, and so I will learn about a new function or structure that I hadn't seen before. It is in this way that I have learned many of my better techniques (such as studying classes put out by Amazon, Google or other major companies). The main problem with this is the concept of not being able to learn something if you don't know it exists. For instance, it took me several months of programming to learn about the empty() function, and I simply would check the string length using strlen() to check for empty values. I'm now getting into building bigger and bigger systems, and I've started to read blogs like highscalability.com and been researching MySQL replication and server data for scaling. I know that structure of your code is very important to make full systems work. After reading a recent blog about reddit's structure, it made me question if there is some standard or "accepted systems" out there. I have looked into frameworks (I've used Kohana, which I regretted, but decided that PHP frameworks were not for me) and I prefer my own library of functions rather than having a framework. My current structure is a mix between WordPress, Kohana and my own knowledge. The ways I can see as being potentially beneficial are: Read blogs Read tutorials Work with someone else Read a book What would be the best way(s) to "get to the next level" the level of being a very good system developer?

    Read the article

  • Sort MySQL query result by a alphanumeric field

    - by Jason Shultz
    I'm querying a table in a db using php. one of the fields is a column called "rank" and has data like the following: none 1-bronze 2-silver 3-gold ... 10-ambassador 11-president I want to be able to sort the results based on that "rank" column. any results where the field is "none" get excluded, so those don't factor in. As you can already guess, right now the results are coming back like this: 1-bronze 10-ambassador 11-president 2-silver 3-gold Of course, I would like for it to be sorted so it is like the following: 1-bronze 2-silver 3-gold ... 10-ambassador 11-president Right now the query is being returned as an object. I've tried different sort options like natsort, sort, array_multisort but haven't got it to work the way I'm sure it can. I would prefer keeping the results in an object form if possible. I'm passing the data on to a view in the next step. although, it's perfectly acceptable to pass the object to the view and then do the work there. so it's not an issue after all. :) thank you for your help. i'm hoping I'm making sense.

    Read the article

  • Is this Leftist Tree piece of code from Wikipedia correct?

    - by they changed my name
    Link public Node merge(Node x, Node y) { if(x == null) return y; if(y == null) return x; // if this was a max height biased leftist tree, then the // next line would be: if(x.element < y.element) if(x.element.compareTo(y.element) > 0) { // x.element > y.element Node temp = x; x = y; y = temp; } x.rightChild = merge(x.rightChild, y); if(x.leftChild == null) { // left child doesn't exist, so move right child to the left side x.leftChild = x.rightChild; x.rightChild = null; x.s = 1; } else { // left child does exist, so compare s-values if(x.leftChild.s < x.rightChild.s) { Node temp = x.leftChild; x.leftChild = x.rightChild; x.rightChild = temp; } // since we know the right child has the lower s-value, we can just // add one to its s-value x.s = x.rightChild.s + 1; } return x; } What makes me ask this question is: if(x.element.compareTo(y.element) > 0) { // x.element > y.element Node temp = x; x = y; y = temp; } Isn't that just not gonna work, since the references are only switched inside the method?

    Read the article

  • How do I get a thumbnail or saveable path from UIImagePickerController to use for a UIImageView?

    - by viperacr99
    Could somebody please explain or show some sample code of how I can use get a thumbnail to be put into a UIImageView after the user selects a photo with UIImagePickerController? Let's say I want to set a thumbnail as the image of a table view cell. When the user presses the cell, the image picker is shown and the user selects an image that is already on their device. I also want to save the path to that thumbnail so that the next time the view is displayed, the proper thumbnail can be shown. I am able to display an image picker and my delegate get's the chosen image correctly, but I want the path to the thumbnail, and I want to load the thumbnail using that path (i.e. I want to save the path). I've searched for hours today and haven't figured this out. Perhaps I'm not understanding ALAsset, or maybe it is something else, but I can't find any examples that are helping me. I have never used the image picker or ALAsset before now, so I'm completely new at this.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to create a running integer id on the AppEngine data storage?

    - by Freed
    For various reasons, I need a unique running integer id for my entities stored on the Google AppEngine. The automatically generated key sort of has this behaviour, but it doesn't start from 1 (or 0) and doesn't guarantee that the generated integer part will come from a continuous sequence. What would be the best way to efficiently implement this on AppEngine? Is there any support from the storage system? To add to the complexity, I might need to do this over entities from different entity groups, meaning I can't just get the highest id right now and save an entity with the next id in a transaction. Might memcache be the way to go..? Edit: I havn't yet implemented this, but to clarify on the memcache idea. I know memcache is unreliable, but in practice it probably won't lose data "too often" to hurt performance. Basically, I would have a memcache entry for the last used id, update it (somehow atomically) whenever I create a new entity and use that id. In the case of memcache not having a value for this entry, I'd get the highest id so far by doing a query on my entities sorted by the id and update memcache (unless someone else had already done so). The only problem I can see with this right now would be atomicity of the operation as a whole if the save of my new entity was also part of a transaction. Thoughts..?

    Read the article

  • SQLite3 database doesn't actually insert data - iPhone

    - by user334934
    I'm trying to add a new entry into my database, but it's not working. There are no errors thrown, and the code that is supposed to be executed after the insertion runs, meaning there are no errors with the query. But still, nothing is added to the database. I've tried both prepared statements and the simpler sqlite3_exec and it's the same result. I know my database is being loaded because the info for the tableview (and subsequent tableviews) are loaded from the database. The connection isn't the problem. Also, the log of the sqlite3_last_insert_rowid(db) returns the correct number for the next row. But still, the information is not saved. Here's my code: db = [Database openDatabase]; NSString *query = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"INSERT INTO lists (name) VALUES('%@')", newField.text]; NSLog(@"Query: %@",query); sqlite3_stmt *statement; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(db, [query UTF8String], -1, &statement, nil) == SQLITE_OK) { if(sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_DONE){ NSLog(@"You created a new list!"); int newListId = sqlite3_last_insert_rowid(db); MyList *newList = [[MyList alloc] initWithName:newField.text idNumber:[NSNumber numberWithInt:newListId]]; [self.listArray addObject:newList]; [newList release]; [self.tableView reloadData]; sqlite3_finalize(statement); } else { NSAssert1(0, @"Error while inserting data. '%s'", sqlite3_errmsg(db)); } } [Database closeDatabase:db]; Again, no errors have been thrown. The prepare and step statements return SQLITE_OK and SQLITE_DONE respectively, yet nothing happens. Any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How to make Finder 'Open With' work for my application (XCode, OS X)?

    - by Adion
    I have created an application that is capable of playing audio files. This in itself works fine, and so does drag&drop from finder to my application. What I would like as well, is that people can use my application from Finder using the Open With menu (or even allow them to set my application as default for a certain file type) After a lot of searching, I found that I should configure a document type in XCode (Editing information property lists) I successfully added such a type named 'Music File', with UTI 'public.mp3' When I now right-click an MP3 file, my application is listed in the 'Open With' menu. Trying to use it, my app opens, but I get a warning message saying "The document could not be opened. App cannot open files in the 'Music File' format" It doesn't appear to be passed through the command line as is the case in Windows. My application does support drag&drop from Finder, and this is working fine too. I don't really know where to look next, so it would be great if anyone could point me in the right direction. My application isn't using NSDocument, so the 'Class' field doesn't apply for me I think (and according to the docs this field isn't required, but it doesn't say how to handle it without a Class)

    Read the article

  • Need help with java map and javabean

    - by techoverflow
    Hi folks, I have a nested map: Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> areaPrices = new HashMap<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>>(); and this map is populated using the code: while(oResult.next()) { Integer areaCode = new Integer(oResult.getString("AREA_CODE")); Map<Integer, Double> zonePrices = areaPrices.get(areaCode); if(zonePrices==null) { zonePrices = new HashMap<Integer, Double>(); areaPrices.put(areaCode, zonePrices); } Integer zoneCode = new Integer(oResult.getString("ZONE_CODE")); Double value = new Double(oResult.getString("ZONE_VALUE")); zonePrices.put(zoneCode, value); myBean.setZoneValues(areaPrices); } I want to use the value of this Map in another method of the same class. For that I have a bean. How do I populate it on the bean, so that I can get the ZONE_VALUE in this other method In my bean I added one new field as: private Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> zoneValues; with getter and setter as: public Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> getZoneValues() { return zoneValues; } public void setZoneValues(Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> areaPrices) { this.zoneValues = areaPrices; } What I am looking for to do in the other method is something like this: Double value = myBean.get(areaCode).get(zoneCode); How do I make it happen :(

    Read the article

  • generate k distinct number less then n

    - by davit-datuashvili
    hi i have following question task is this generate k distinct positive numbers less then n without duplication my method is following first create array size of k where we should write these numbers int a[]=new int[k]; //now i am going to cretae another array where i check if (at given number position is 1 then generate number again else put this number in a array and continue cycle i put here a piece of code and explanations int a[]=new int[k]; int t[]=new int[n+1]; Random r=new Random(); for (int i==0;i<t.length;i++){ t[i]=0;//initialize it to zero } int m=0;//initialize it also for (int i=0;i<a.length;i++){ m=r.nextInt(n);//random element between 0 and n if (t[m]==1){ //i have problem with this i want in case of duplication element occurs repeats this steps afain until there will be different number else{ t[m]=1; x[i]=m; } } so i fill concret my problem if t[m]==1 it means that this element occurs already so i want to generate new number but problem is that number of generated numbers will not be k beacuse if i==0 and occurs duplicate element and we write continue then it will switch at i==1 i need like goto for repeat step or for (int i=0;i<x.length;i++){ loop: m=r.nextInt(n); if ( x[m]==1){ continue loop; } else{ x[m]=1; a[i]=m; continue;//continue next step at i=1 and so on } } i need this code in java please help

    Read the article

  • recvfrom() return values in Stop-and-Wait UDP?

    - by mavErick
    I am trying to implement a Stop-and-Wait UDP client-server socket program in C. As known, there are basically three possible scenarios for Stop-and-Wait flow control. i.e., After transmitting a packet, the sender receives a correct ACK and thus starts transmitting the next packet; the sender receives an incorrect ACK and thus retransmits this packet; the sender receives no ACK within a TIMEOUT and thus retransmits this packet. My idea is to differentiate these three scenarios with the return value of recvfrom() on the sender side. For scenario 1&2: recvfrom() just returns the length of the received ACK. Since in my implementation the incorrect ACK is of the same length of the correct one, so I will have to go deeper and check the contents of the ACK. It's not a big deal. I know how to do. Problems come when I am trying to recognize scenario 3 where no ACK is received. What confuses me is that my recvfrom() is within a while loop, so the recvfrom() will be called constantly. What will it return when the receiver is not actually sending the sender ACK? Is it 0 or 1?

    Read the article

  • Help with java threads or executors: Executing several MySQL selects, inserts and updates simmultane

    - by Martin
    Hi. I'm writing an application to analyse a MySQL database, and I need to execute several DMLs simmultaneously; for example: // In ResultSet rsA: Select * from A; rsA.beforeFirst(); while (rsA.next()) { id = rsA.getInt("id"); // Retrieve data from table B: Select * from B where B.Id=" + id; // Crunch some numbers using the data from B // Close resultset B } I'm declaring an array of data objects, each with its own Connection to the database, which in turn calls several methods for the data analysis. The problem is all threads use the same connection, thus all tasks throw exceptios: "Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction" I believe there is a way to write the code in such a way that any given object has its own connection and executes the required tasks independent from any other object. For example: DataObject dataObject[0] = new DataObject(id[0]); DataObject dataObject[1] = new DataObject(id[1]); DataObject dataObject[2] = new DataObject(id[2]); ... DataObject dataObject[N] = new DataObject(id[N]); // The 'DataObject' class has its own connection to the database, // so each instance of the object should use its own connection. // It also has a "run" method, which contains all the tasks required. Executor ex = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); for(i=0;i<=N;i++) { ex.execute(dataObject[i]); } // Here where the problem is: Each instance creates a new connection, // but every DML from any of the objects is cluttered in just one connection // (in MySQL command line, "SHOW PROCESSLIST;" throws every connection, and all but // one are idle). Can you point me in the right direction? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Why is the operation address incremented by two?

    - by Gavin Jones
    I am looking at a Javascript emulator of a NES to try and understand how it works. On this line: addr = this.load(opaddr+2); The opcode is incremented by two. However, the documentation (see appendix E) I'm reading says: Zero page addressing uses a single operand which serves as a pointer to an address in zero page ($0000-$00FF) where the data to be operated on can be found. By using zero page addressing, only one byte is needed for the operand, so the instruction is shorter and, therefore, faster to execute than with addressing modes which take two operands. An example of a zero page instruction is AND $12. So if the operand's argument is only one byte, shouldn't it appear directly after it, and be + 1 instead of + 2? Why +2? This is how I think it works, which may be incorrect. Suppose our memory looks like: ------------------------- | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | <- index ------------------------- | a | b | c | d | e | f | <- memory ------------------------- ^ \ PC and our PC is 0, pointing to a. For this cycle, we say that the opcode: var pc= 0; //for example's sake var opcode= memory[pc]; //a So shouldn't the first operand be the next slot, i.e. b? var first_operand = memory[pc + 1]; //b

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 749 750 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760  | Next Page >