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Is it possible to use 2 versions of jQuery on the same page?

- by Ben McCormack

NOTE: I know similar questions have already been asked here and here, but I'm looking for additional clarification as to how to make this work. I'm adding functionality to an existing web site that is already using an older version of the jQuery library (1.1.3.1). I've been writing my added functionality against the newest version of the jQuery library (1.4.2). I've tested the website using only the newer version of jQuery and it breaks functionality, so now I'm looking at using both versions on the same page. How is this possible? What do I need to do in my code to specify that I'm using one version of jQuery instead of another? For example, I'll put <script> tags for both versions of jQuery in the header of my page, but what do I need to do so that I know for sure in my calling code that I'm calling one version of the library or another? Maybe something like this: //Put some code here to specify a variable that will be using the newer //version of jquery: var $NEW = jQuery.theNewestVersion(); //Now when I use $NEW, I'll know it's the newest version and won't //conflict with the older version. $NEW('#personName').text('Ben'); //And when I use the original $ in code, or simply 'jquery', I'll know //it's the older version. $('#personName').doSomethingWithTheOlderVersion();

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jQuery plugin Tablesorter 2.0 behaves weird

- by gunther-von-goetzen-sanchez

I downloaded the jQuery plugin Tablesorter 2.0 from http://tablesorter.com/jquery.tablesorter.zip and modified the example-pager.html which is in tablesorter/docs directory I wrote additional Rollover effects: $(function() { $("table") .tablesorter({widthFixed: true, widgets: ['zebra']}) .tablesorterPager({container: $("#pager")}); /** Additional code */ $("tr").mouseover(function () { $(this).addClass('over'); }); $("tr").mouseout(function () { $(this).removeClass('over'); }); $("tr").click(function () { $(this).addClass('marked'); }); $("tr").dblclick(function () { $(this).removeClass('marked'); }); /** Additional code END */ }); And of course modified the themes/blue/style.css file: /* Additional code */ table.tablesorter tbody tr.odd td { background-color: #D1D1F0; } table.tablesorter tbody tr.even td { background-color: #EFDEDE; } table.tablesorter tbody tr.over td { background-color: #FBCA33; } table.tablesorter tbody tr.marked td { background-color: #FB4133; } /* Additional code END*/ All this works fine BUT when I go to further pages i.e. page 2 3 or 4 the effects are gone! I really appreciate your help

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Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

- by Bart

I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

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radio buttons and cookie settings

- by Cola

I don't know nothing about cookies and how to set them and i need some advice. I have this 2 radio buttons. For example if an option is changed from one to another, that option will remain even if the page is refreshed or changed on other pages where this radio buttons exist , and i need to make the cookie setting for this code. Can someone can give me an advice what code should i add to my php? thanks This is js code: $(document).ready(function() { $('radio[name=radio]').each(function() { $(this).click(function() { my_function(); }); }); }); my_function() { var value_checked = $("input[name='radio']:checked").val(); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'page.php', data: {'value_checked':value_checked}, }); } html code <form> <div id="radio"> <input type="radio" id="radio1" name="radio" checked="checked" /><label for="radio1">Choice 1</label> <input type="radio" id="radio2" name="radio" /><label for="radio2">Choice 2</label> </div> </form>

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Getting jQuery to return an ajax object

- by japancheese

Hello, The question title is a bit strange because I'm not exactly sure how to phrase the problem. The issue is that I have many links to which I want to bind a click event with an ajax call, and I'm just looking to refactor some duplicate code into a single area. The links I'm trying to bind an ajax call only have one thing that differentiates them, and that's an id from a previously declared object. So I have lots of code that looks like this: $("a.link").bind('click', function() { id = obj.id; $.ajax({ url: "/set/" + id, dataType: 'json', type: "POST" }) }); I was trying to refactor it into something like this: $("a.link").bind('click', ajax_link(obj.id)); function ajax_link(id) { $.ajax({ url: "/set/" + id, dataType: 'json', type: "POST" }) }); However, as you can imagine, this just actually makes the ajax call when the element is binded with the click event. Is there an easy way to refactor this code so I can extract out the common ajax code into its own function, and hopefully reduce the number of lines of jQuery in my current script?

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How to use sessions in PDO?

- by Byakugan

I am still redoing and getting rid of old mysql_* commands in my code. I tried to transfer my session login form old code and this is what I got so far: public function login($user, $password) { if (!empty($user) && !empty($password)) { $password = $web->doHash($user, $password); // in this function is (return sha1(strtoupper($user).':'.strtoupper($password)) $stmt = $db_login->prepare("SELECT * FROM account WHERE username=:user AND pass_hash=:password"); $stmt->bindValue(':user', $user, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindValue(':password', $password, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); $rows = $stmt->rowCount(); if ($rows > 0) { $results_login = $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); $_SESSION['user_name'] = $results_login['username']; $_SESSION['user_id'] = $results_login['id']; return true; } else { return false; } } else { return false; } } After that I am using checks if user logged on site: public function isLogged() { return (!empty($_SESSION['user_id']) && !empty($_SESSION['user_name'])); } But it seems - this function returns always empty because $_SESSION does not exists in PDO? And of course logout is used in this form on my sites: public function logout() { unset($_SESSION['user_id']); unset($_SESSION['user_name']); } But I think PDO has different way of handling session? I did not find any so what is it can i somehow add $_SESSION in PDO withou changing code much? I am using variables $_SESSION['user_name'] and $_SESSION['user_id'] in all over my web project. Summary: 1) How to use sessions in PDO correctly? 2) What is difference between using $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); and $stmt->fetchAll(); Thank you.

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With regards to urllib AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'urlopen'

- by Matt

import re import string import shutil import os import os.path import time import datetime import math import urllib from array import array import random filehandle = urllib.urlopen('http://www.google.com/') #open webpage s = filehandle.read() #read print s #display #what i plan to do with it once i get the first part working #results = re.findall('[<td style="font-weight:bold;" nowrap>$][0-9][0-9][0-9][.][0-9][0-9][</td></tr></tfoot></table>]',s) #earnings = '$ ' #for money in results: #earnings = earnings + money[1]+money[2]+money[3]+'.'+money[5]+money[6] #print earnings #raw_input() this is the code that i have so far. now i have looked at all the other forums that give solutions such as the name of the script, which is parse_Money.py, and i have tried doing it with urllib.request.urlopen AND i have tried running it on python 2.5, 2.6, and 2.7. If anybody has any suggestions it would be really welcome, thanks everyone!! --Matt ---EDIT--- I also tried this code and it worked, so im thinking its some kind of syntax error, so if anybody with a sharp eye can point it out, i would be very appreciative. import shutil import os import os.path import time import datetime import math import urllib from array import array import random b = 3 #find URL URL = raw_input('Type the URL you would like to read from[Example: http://www.google.com/] :') while b == 3: #get file name file1 = raw_input('Enter a file name for the downloaded code:') filepath = file1 + '.txt' if os.path.isfile(filepath): print 'File already exists' b = 3 else: print 'Filename accepted' b = 4 file_path = filepath #open file FileWrite = open(file_path, 'a') #acces URL filehandle = urllib.urlopen(URL) #display souce code for lines in filehandle.readlines(): FileWrite.write(lines) print lines print 'The above has been saved in both a text and html file' #close files filehandle.close() FileWrite.close()

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Java Stop Server Thread

- by ikurtz

the following code is server code in my app: private int serverPort; private Thread serverThread = null; public void networkListen(int port){ serverPort = port; if (serverThread == null){ Runnable serverRunnable = new ServerRunnable(); serverThread = new Thread(serverRunnable); serverThread.start(); } else { } } public class ServerRunnable implements Runnable { public void run(){ try { //networkConnected = false; //netMessage = "Listening for Connection"; //networkMessage = new NetworkMessage(networkConnected, netMessage); //setChanged(); //notifyObservers(networkMessage); ServerSocket serverSocket = new ServerSocket(serverPort, backlog); commSocket = serverSocket.accept(); serverSocket.close(); serverSocket = null; //networkConnected = true; //netMessage = "Connected: " + commSocket.getInetAddress().getHostAddress() + ":" + //commSocket.getPort(); //networkMessage = new NetworkMessage(networkConnected, netMessage); //setChanged(); //notifyObservers(networkMessage); } catch (IOException e){ //networkConnected = false; //netMessage = "ServerRunnable Network Unavailable"; //System.out.println(e.getMessage()); //networkMessage = new NetworkMessage(networkConnected, netMessage); //setChanged(); //notifyObservers(networkMessage); } } } The code sort of works i.e. if im attempting a straight connection both ends communicate and update. The issue is while im listening for a connection if i want to quit listening then the server thread continues running and causes problems. i know i should not use .stop() on a thread so i was wondering what the solution would look like with this in mind? EDIT: commented out unneeded code.

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Trouble Shoot JavaScript Function in IE

- by CreativeNotice

So this function works fine in geko and webkit browsers, but not IE7. I've busted my brain trying to spot the issue. Anything stick out for you? Basic premise is you pass in a data object (in this case a response from jQuery's $.getJSON) we check for a response code, set the notification's class, append a layer and show it to the user. Then reverse the process after a time limit. function userNotice(data){ // change class based on error code returned var myClass = ''; if(data.code == 200){ myClass='success'; } else if(data.code == 400){ myClass='error'; } else{ myClass='notice'; } // create message html, add to DOM, FadeIn var myNotice = '<div id="notice" class="ajaxMsg '+myClass+'">'+data.msg+'</div>'; $("body").append(myNotice); $("#notice").fadeIn('fast'); // fadeout and remove from DOM after delay var t = setTimeout(function(){ $("#notice").fadeOut('slow',function(){ $(this).remove(); }); },5000); }

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Upload An Excel File in Classic ASP On Windows 2003 x64 Using Office 2010 Drivers

- by alphadogg

So, we are migrating an old web app from a 32-bit server to a newer 64-bit server. The app is basically a Classic ASP app. The pool is set to run in 64-bit and cannot be set to 32-bit due to other components. However, this breaks the old usage of Jet drivers and subsequent parsing of Excel files. After some research, I downloaded the 64-bit version of the new 2010 Office System Driver Beta and installed it. Presumably, this allows one to open and read Excel and CSV files. Here's the snippet of code that errors out. Think I followed the lean guidelines on the download page: Set con = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") con.ConnectionString = "Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.14.0;Data Source=" & strPath & ";Extended Properties=""Excel 14.0;""" con.Open Any ideas why? UPDATE: My apologies. I did forget the important part, the error message: ADODB.Connection error '800a0e7a' Provider cannot be found. It may not be properly installed. /vendor/importZipList2.asp, line 56 I have installed, and uninstalled/reinstalled twice.

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Event OnClick for a button in a custom notification

- by Simone

I have a custom notification with a button. To set the notification and use the event OnClick on my button I've used this code: //Notification and intent of the notification Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.stat_notify_missed_call, "Custom Notification", System.currentTimeMillis()); Intent mainIntent = new Intent(getBaseContext(), NotificationActivity.class); PendingIntent pendingMainIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(getBaseContext(), 0, mainIntent , 0); notification.contentIntent = pendingMainIntent; //Remoteview and intent for my button RemoteViews notificationView = new RemoteViews(getBaseContext().getPackageName(), R.layout.remote_view_layout); Intent activityIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_CALL, Uri.parse("tel:190")); PendingIntent pendingLaunchIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(getBaseContext(), 0, activityIntent, PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT); notificationView.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button1, pendingLaunchIntent); notification.contentView = notificationView; notificationManager.notify(CUSTOM_NOTIFICATION_ID, notification); With this code I've a custom notification with my custom layout...but I can't click the button! every time I try to click the button I click the entire notification and so the script launch the "mainIntent" instead of "activityIntent". I have read in internet that this code doesn't work on all terminals. I have tried it on the emulator and on an HTC Magic but I have always the same problem: I can't click the button! My code is right? someone can help me? Thanks, Simone

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how to run XSL file using JavaScript / HTML file

- by B. Kumar

i want to run xsl file using javascript function. I wrote a javascrpt function which is working well with Firefox and Crom but it is not working on Internet Explorer function loadXMLDoc(dname) { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else { xhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xhttp.open("GET",dname,false); xhttp.send(""); return xhttp.responseXML; } function displayResult() { xml=loadXMLDoc("NewXml.xml"); xsl=loadXMLDoc("NewFile.xsl"); // code for IE if (window.ActiveXObject) { ex=xml.transformNode(xsl); document.getElementById("example").innerHTML=ex; } // code for Mozilla, Firefox, Opera, etc. else if (document.implementation && document.implementation.createDocument) { xsltProcessor=new XSLTProcessor(); xsltProcessor.importStylesheet(xsl); resultDocument = xsltProcessor.transformToFragment(xml,document); document.getElementById("example").appendChild(resultDocument); } } Please help my by modifying this code or by another code so that i can work with Internet Explorer. Thanks

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Using variables inside macros in SQL

- by Tim

Hello I'm wanting to use variables inside my macro SQL on Teradata. I thought I could do something like the following: REPLACE MACRO DbName.MyMacro ( MacroNm VARCHAR(50) ) AS ( /* Variable to store last time the macro was run */ DECLARE V_LAST_RUN_DATE TIMESTAMP; /* Get last run date and store in V_LAST_RUN_DATE */ SELECT LastDate INTO V_LAST_RUN_DATE FROM DbName.RunLog WHERE MacroNm = :MacroNm; /* Update the last run date to now and save the old date in history */ EXECUTE MACRO DbName.RunLogUpdater( :MacroNm ,V_LAST_RUN_DATE ,CURRENT_TIMESTAMP ); ); However, that didn't work, so I thought of this instead: REPLACE MACRO DbName.MyMacro ( MacroNm VARCHAR(50) ) AS ( /* Variable to store last time the macro was run */ CREATE VOLATILE TABLE MacroVars AS ( SELECT LastDate AS V_LAST_RUN_DATE FROM DbName.RunLog WHERE MacroNm = :MacroNm; ) WITH DATA ON COMMIT PRESERVE ROWS; /* Update the last run date to now and save the old date in history */ EXECUTE MACRO DbName.RunLogUpdater( :MacroNm ,SELECT V_LAST_RUN_DATE FROM MacroVars ,CURRENT_TIMESTAMP ); ); I can do what I'm looking for with a Stored Procedure, however I want to avoid for performance. Do you have any ideas about this? Is there anything else I can try? Cheers Tim

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How to get rid of the GUI access from shared library.

- by Inso Reiges

Hello, In my project i have a shared library with cross-platform code that provides a very convenient abstraction for a number of its clients. To be more specific, this library provides data access to encrypted files generated by main application on a number of platforms. There is a great deal of complicated code there that implements cryptographic protocols and as such is very error-prone and should be shared as much as possible across clients and platforms. However parsing all this encrypted stuff requires asking user for a number of different secrets ones in a while. The secret can be either a password, a number of shared passwords or a public key file and this list is a hot target for extension in the future. I can't really ask the user for any of those secrets beforehand from main application, because i really don't know what i need to ask for until i start working with the encrypted data directly in the library code. So i will have to create dialogs and call them from the library code. However i really see this as a bad idea, because (among other things) there is a possibility of a windows service using it and services can't have GUI access. The question is, are there any known ways or patterns to get rid of the GUI calls that are suitable for my case? Thank you.

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calling .ajax() from an eventHandler c# asp.ent

- by ibininja

Good day...! In the code behind (upload.aspx) I have an event that returns the number of bytes being streamed; and as I debug it, it works fine. I wanted to reflect the numbers returned from the eventHandler on a progress bar and this is where I got lost. I tried using jQuery's .ajax() function. this is how I implemented it: In the EventHandler in my code behind I added this code to call the .ajax() function: Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "UpdateProgress", "<script type='text/javascript'>updateProgress();</script>"); My plan is whenever the eventHandler function changes the values of bytes being streamed it calls the javascript function "updateProgress()" The .ajax() function "UpdateProgress()" is as: function updateProgress() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "upload.aspx/GetData", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", async: true, success: function (msg) { $("#progressbar").progressbar("option", "value", msg.d); } }); } I made sure that the function GetData() is [System.Web.Services.WebMethod] and that it is static as well. so the workflow of what I am trying to implement is as: - Click On Upload button - The Behind code starts executing and EventHandler triggers - The EventHandler calls .ajax() function - The .ajax() function retrieves the bytes being streamed and updates progress bar. When I ran the code; all runs well except that the .ajax() is only executed when upload is finished (and progress bar also updates only when finished upload); even though I call .ajax() function every time in the eventHandler function as reflected above... What am I doing wrong? Am I thinking of this right? is there anything else I should add maybe an updatePanel or something? thank you

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How to use a int2 database-field as a boolean in Java using JPA/Hibernate

- by mg

Hello... I write an application based on an already existing database (postgreSQL) using JPA and Hibernate. There is a int2-column (activeYN) in a table, which is used as a boolean (0 = false (inactive), not 0 = true (active)). In the Java application i want to use this attribute as a boolean. So i defined the attribute like this: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private boolean active; @Column(name="activeYN") public boolean isActive() { return this.active; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } But there ist an exception because Hibernate expects an boolean database-field and not an int2. Can i do this mapping i any way while using a boolean in java?? I have a possible solution for this, but i don't really like it: My "hacky"-solution is the following: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private short active_USED_BY_JPA; //short because i need int2 /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. Use the method isActive() */ @Column(name="activeYN") public short getActive_USED_BY_JPA() { return this.active_USED_BY_JPA; } /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. * Use the method setActive(boolean active) */ public void setActive_USED_BY_JPA(short active) { this.active_USED_BY_JPA = active; } @Transient //jpa will ignore transient marked methods public boolean isActive() { return getActive_USED_BY_JPA() != 0; } @Transient public void setActive(boolean active) { this.setActive_USED_BY_JPA = active ? -1 : 0; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } Are there any other solutions for this problem? The "hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto"-value in the hibernate configuration is set to "validate". (sorry, my english is not the best, i hope you understand it anyway)..

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Use external datasource with NUnit's TestCaseAttribute

- by Hamman359

Is it possible to get the values for a TestCaseAttribute from an external data source such as an Excel Spreadsheet, CSV file or Database? i.e. Have a .csv file with 1 row of data per test case and pass that data to NUnit one at a time. Here's the specific situation that I'd like to use this for. I'm currently merging some features from one system into another. This is pretty much just a copy and paste process from the old system into the new one. Unfortunately, the code being moved not only does not have any tests, but is not written in a testable manner (i.e. tightly coupled with the database and other code.) Taking the time to make the code testable isn't really possible since its a big mess, i'm on a tight schedule and the entire feature is scheduled to be re-written from the ground up in the next 6-9 months. However, since I don't like the idea of not having any tests around the code, I'm going to create some simple Selenium tests using WebDriver to test the page through the UI. While this is not ideal, it's better than nothing. The page in question has about 10 input values and about 20 values that I need to assert against after the calculations are completed, with about 30 valid combinations of values that I'd like to test. I already have the data in a spreadsheet so it'd be nice to simply be able to pull that out rather than having to re-type it all in Visual Studio.

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share the same cookie between two website using PHP cURL extension

- by powerboy

I want to get the contents of some emails in my gmail account. I would like to use the PHP cURL extension to do this. I followed these steps in my first try: In the PHP code, output the contents of https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth. In the browser, the user input username and password to login. In the PHP code, save cookies in a file named cookie.txt. In the PHP code, send request to https://mail.google.com/ along with cookies retrieved from cookie.txt and output the contents. The following code does not work: $login_url = 'https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth'; $gmail_url = 'https://mail.google.com/'; $cookie_file = dirname(__FILE__) . '/cookie.txt'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookie_file); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $login_url); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $gmail_url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookie_file); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_close($ch);

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How to read/write high-resolution (24-bit, 8 channel) .wav files in Java?

- by dB'

I'm trying to write a Java application that manipulates high resolution .wav files. I'm having trouble importing the audio data, i.e. converting the .wav file into an array of doubles. When I use a standard approach an exception is thrown. AudioFileFormat as = AudioSystem.getAudioFileFormat(new File("orig.wav")); --> javax.sound.sampled.UnsupportedAudioFileException: file is not a supported file type Here's the file format info according to soxi: dB$ soxi orig.wav soxi WARN wav: wave header missing FmtExt chunk Input File : 'orig.wav' Channels : 8 Sample Rate : 96000 Precision : 24-bit Duration : 00:00:03.16 = 303526 samples ~ 237.13 CDDA sectors File Size : 9.71M Bit Rate : 24.6M Sample Encoding: 32-bit Floating Point PCM Can anyone suggest the simplest method for getting this audio into Java? I've tried using a few techniques. As stated above, I've experimented with the Java AudioSystem (on both Mac and Windows). I've also tried using Andrew Greensted's WavFile class, but this also fails (WavFileException: Compression Code 3 not supported). One workaround is to convert the audio to 16 bits using sox (with the -b 16 flag), but this is suboptimal since it increases the noise floor. Incidentally, I've noticed that the file CAN be read by libsndfile. Is my best bet to write a jni wrapper around libsndfile, or can you suggest something quicker? Note that I don't need to play the audio, I just need to analyze it, manipulate it, and then write it out to a new .wav file. * UPDATE * I solved this problem by modifying Andrew Greensted's WavFile class. His original version only read files encoded as integer values ("format code 1"); my files were encoded as floats ("format code 3"), and that's what was causing the problem. I'll post the modified version of Greensted's code when I get a chance. In the meantime, if anyone wants it, send me a message.

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Reading email address from contacts fails with weird memory issue

- by CapsicumDreams

Hi all, I'm stumped. I'm trying to get a list of all the email address a person has. I'm using the ABPeoplePickerNavigationController to select the person, which all seems fine. I'm setting my ABRecordRef personDealingWith; from the person argument to - (BOOL)peoplePickerNavigationController:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:(ABRecordRef)person property:(ABPropertyID)property identifier:(ABMultiValueIdentifier)identifier { and everything seems fine up till this point. The first time the following code executes, all is well. When subsequently run, I can get issues. First, the code: // following line seems to make the difference (issue 1) // NSLog(@"%d", ABMultiValueGetCount(ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty))); // construct array of emails ABMultiValueRef multi = ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty); CFIndex emailCount = ABMultiValueGetCount(multi); if (emailCount 0) { // collect all emails in array for (CFIndex i = 0; i < emailCount; i++) { CFStringRef emailRef = ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(multi, i); [emailArray addObject:(NSString *)emailRef]; CFRelease(emailRef); } } // following line also matters (issue 2) CFRelease(multi); If compiled as written, the are no errors or static analysis problems. This crashes with a *** -[Not A Type retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x4e9dc60 error. But wait, there's more! I can fix it in either of two ways. Firstly, I can uncomment the NSLog at the top of the function. I get a leak from the NSLog's ABRecordCopyValue every time through, but the code seems to run fine. Also, I can comment out the CFRelease(multi); at the end, which does exactly the same thing. Static compilation errors, but running code. So without a leak, this function crashes. To prevent a crash, I need to haemorrhage memory. Neither is a great solution. Can anyone point out what's going on?

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MSBuild Working with ItemGroup and EXEC Command

- by obautista

I created the ItemGroup shown in the code snippet. I need to iterate through this ItemGroup and run the EXEC command - also shown in the code snippet. I cannot seem to get it to work. The code returns the error shown below (note - the Message is written 2 times, which is correct), but the EXEC Command is not running correctly. The value is not being set; therefore the EXEC is not executing at all. I need the EXEC to execute twice or by however sections I define in the ItemGroup. ERROR: Encrypting WebServer appSettings section Encrypting WebServer connectionStrings section C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_regiis.exe -pef "" "\gaw\UI" -prov "RSACustomProvider" Encrypting configuration section... The configuration section '' was not found. CODE SNIPPET: appSettings connectionStrings <Exec Command="$(AspNetRegIis) -pef "%(SectionsToEncrypt.Section)" "$(DropLocation)\$(BuildNumber)\%(ConfigurationToBuild.FlavorToBuild)\$(AnythingPastFlavorToBuild)" -prov "$(WebSiteRSACustomProviderName)""/>

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CreateDelegate with unknown types

- by Giorgi

Hello, I am trying to create Delegate for reading/writing properties of unknown type of class at runtime. I have a generic class Main<T> and a method which looks like this: Delegate.CreateDelegate(typeof(Func<T, object>), get) where get is a MethodInfo of the property that should be read. The problem is that when the property returns int (I guess this happens for value types) the above code throws ArgumentException because the method cannot be bound. In case of string it works well. To solve the problem I changed the code so that corresponding Delegate type is generated by using MakeGenericType. So now the code is: Type func = typeof(Func<,>); Type generic = func.MakeGenericType(typeof(T), get.ReturnType); var result = Delegate.CreateDelegate(generic, get) The problem now is that the created delegate instance of generic so I have to use DynamicInvoke which would be as slow as using pure reflection to read the field. So my question is why is that the first snippet of code fails with value types. According to MSDN it should work as it says that The return type of a delegate is compatible with the return type of a method if the return type of the method is more restrictive than the return type of the delegate and how to execute the delegate in the second snippet so that it is faster than reflection. Thanks.

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C# Execute Method (with Parameters) with ThreadPool

- by washtik

We have the following piece of code (idea for this code was found on this website) which will spawn new threads for the method "Do_SomeWork()". This enables us to run the method multiple times asynchronously. The code is: var numThreads = 20; var toProcess = numThreads; var resetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); for (var i = 0; i < numThreads; i++) { new Thread(delegate() { Do_SomeWork(Parameter1, Parameter2, Parameter3); if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref toProcess) == 0) resetEvent.Set(); }).Start(); } resetEvent.WaitOne(); However we would like to make use of ThreadPool rather than create our own new threads which can be detrimental to performance. The question is how can we modify the above code to make use of ThreadPool keeping in mind that the method "Do_SomeWork" takes multiple parameters and also has a return type (i.e. method is not void). Also, this is C# 2.0.

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datepicker value is blank when disabled, jquery

- by Mithil Deshmukh

Hi. I'm fairly new to jQuery. I have a Jquery datepicker in a user control. I have added a "disable" property to the datepicker. Whenever I save the page(having this usercontrol) the datepicker with disable set to true is empty. All other datepickers save fine. Here is my code. ASPX < USERCONTROL:DATEPICKER id="dpBirthDate" startyear="1980" runat="server" Disable=true ASCX < input type="text" size="8" runat="server" id="txtDate" name="txtDate" onblur="ValidateForm(this.id);" / ASCX Code Behind Public Property Disable() As Boolean Get Return (txtDate.Disabled = True) End Get Set(ByVal bValue As Boolean) If (bValue = True) Then txtDate.Attributes.Add("Disabled", "True") Else txtDate.Attributes.Remove("Disabled") End If End Set End Property My Jquery $(document).ready(function() { $("input[id$=txtDate]").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("BASE_DIRECTORY")%>/Images/el-calendar.gif', buttonImageOnly: true }); $("input[id$=txtDate]").mask("99/99/9999", { placeholder: " " }); //Disable datepicker if "disable=true" $("input[id$=txtDate]").each(function() { if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "True") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("disable"); } else if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "False") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("enable"); } }); }); I am sorry, I am not sure how to format the code here. I apologies for the cluttered code. Can anybody tell me why the datepicker value is empty when it is disabled but works fine otherwise? Thanks is advance.

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Noob question about a statement in a Java program

- by happysoul

I am beginner to java and was trying out this code puzzle from the book head first java which I solved as follows and got the output correct :D class DrumKit { boolean topHat=true; boolean snare=true; void playSnare() { System.out.println("bang bang ba-bang"); } void playTopHat() { System.out.println("ding ding da-ding"); } } public class DrumKitTestDriver { public static void main(String[] args) { DrumKit d =new DrumKit(); if(d.snare==true) { d.playSnare(); } d.playTopHat(); } } Output is :: bang bang ba-bang ding ding da-ding Now the problem is that in that code puzzle one code snippet is left that I did not include..it's as follows d.snare=false; Even though I did not write it , I got the output like the book. I am wondering why is there need for us to set it's value as false even when we know the code is gonna run without it too !?? I am wondering what the coder had in mind ..I mean what could be the possible future use and motive behind doing this ? I am sorry if it's a dumb question. I just wanna know why or why not to include that particular statement ? It's not like there's a loop or something that we need to come out of. Why is that statement there ?

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