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  • Dynamic memory inside a struct

    - by Maximilien
    Hello, I'm editing a piece of code, that is part of a big project, that uses "const's" to initialize a bunch of arrays. Because I want to parametrize these const's I have to adapt the code to use "malloc" in order to allocate the memory. Unfortunately there is a problem with structs: I'm not able to allocate dynamic memory in the struct itself. Doing it outside would cause to much modification of the original code. Here's a small example: int globalx,globaly; struct bigStruct{ struct subStruct{ double info1; double info2; bool valid; }; double data; //subStruct bar[globalx][globaly]; subStruct ** bar=(subStruct**)malloc(globalx*sizeof(subStruct*)); for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) bar[i]=(*subStruct)malloc(globaly*sizeof(subStruct)); }; int main(){ globalx=2; globaly=3; bigStruct foo; for(int i=0;i<globalx;i++) for(int j=0;j<globaly;j++){ foo.bar[i][j].info1=i+j; foo.bar[i][j].info2=i*j; foo.bar[i][j].valid=(i==j); } return 0; } Note: in the program code I'm editing globalx and globaly were const's in a specified namespace. Now I removed the "const" so they can act as parameters that are set exactly once. Summarized: How can I properly allocate memory for the substruct inside the struct? Thank you very much! Max

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  • Backdoor in OpenBSD how is it that no developer saw it ? And what about other Linux ? [closed]

    - by user310291
    It had been revealed that there have been backdoor implanted in OpenBSD http://www.infoworld.com/d/developer-world/software-security-honesty-the-best-policy-285 OpenBSD is opensource, how is it that nobody in the community developper could see it in the source code ? So how can one trust all the other "opensource" Linux Of course OpenBSD is only a case, the point is not about OpenBSD, it is about opensource in general. my question is not about Openbsd per se it's about source code os inspection especially c/c++ since most are written in these languages. Also once the source is compiled how one can be sure that it really reflects the source code ? If a law requires that a backdoor being implanted and obliges to deny that kind of action under the guise of security, how can you be sure that the system has not been corrupted by some tools ? As said there is there is a "nondisclosure agreement" My guess is that 99.99% of developpers in the world are just incapable of understanding os source code and won't even bother to look at it. And above all nobody wonders about why the gov wants such massive backdoor, and that of course they will pressure medias to deny.

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  • How to manage multiple python versions ?

    - by Gyom
    short version: how can I get rid of the multiple-versions-of-python nightmare ? long version: over the years, I've used several versions of python, and what is worse, several extensions to python (e.g. pygame, pylab, wxPython...). Each time it was on a different setup, with different OSes, sometimes different architectures (like my old PowerPC mac). Nowadays I'm using a mac (OSX 10.6 on x86-64) and it's a dependency nightmare each time I want to revive script older than a few months. Python itself already comes in three different flavours in /usr/bin (2.5, 2.6, 3.1), but I had to install 2.4 from macports for pygame, something else (cannot remember what) forced me to install all three others from macports as well, so at the end of the day I'm the happy owner of seven (!) instances of python on my system. But that's not the problem, the problem is, none of them has the right (i.e. same set of) libraries installed, some of them are 32bits, some 64bits, and now I'm pretty much lost. For example right now I'm trying to run a three-year-old script (not written by me) which used to use matplotlib/numpy to draw a real-time plot within a rectangle of a wxwidgets window. But I'm failing miserably: py26-wxpython from macports won't install, stock python has wxwidgets included but also has some conflict between 32 bits and 64 bits, and it doesn't have numpy... what a mess ! Obviously, I'm doing things the wrong way. How do you usally cope with all that chaos ?e

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  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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  • Destructors not called when native (C++) exception propagates to CLR component

    - by Phil Nash
    We have a large body of native C++ code, compliled into DLLs. Then we have a couple of dlls containing C++/CLI proxy code to wrap the C++ interfaces. On top of that we have C# code calling into the C++/CLI wrappers. Standard stuff, so far. But we have a lot of cases where native C++ exceptions are allowed to propagate to the .Net world and we rely on .Net's ability to wrap these as System.Exception objects and for the most part this works fine. However we have been finding that destructors of objects in scope at the point of the throw are not being invoked when the exception propagates! After some research we found that this is a fairly well known issue. However the solutions/ workarounds seem less consistent. We did find that if the native code is compiled with /EHa instead of /EHsc the issue disappears (at least in our test case it did). However we would much prefer to use /EHsc as we translate SEH exceptions to C++ exceptions ourselves and we would rather allow the compiler more scope for optimisation. Are there any other workarounds for this issue - other than wrapping every call across the native-managed boundary in a (native) try-catch-throw (in addition to the C++/CLI layer)?

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  • Reducing Time Complexity in Java

    - by Koeneuze
    Right, this is from an older exam which i'm using to prepare my own exam in january. We are given the following method: public static void Oorspronkelijk() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; int max = -1; char let = '*'; for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { int tel = 1; for (int j=i+1;j<bs.length();j++) { if (bs.charAt(j) == bs.charAt(i)) tel++; } if (tel > max) { max = tel; let = bs.charAt(i); } } System.out.println(max + " keer " + let); } The questions are: what is the output? - Since the code is just an algorithm to determine the most occuring character, the output is "6 keer " (6 times space) What is the time complexity of this code? Fairly sure it's O(n²), unless someone thinks otherwise? Can you reduce the time complexity, and if so, how? Well, you can. I've received some help already and managed to get the following code: public static void Nieuw() { String bs = "Dit is een boodschap aan de wereld"; HashMap<Character, Integer> letters = new HashMap<Character, Integer>(); char max = bs.charAt(0); for (int i=0;i<bs.length();i++) { char let = bs.charAt(i); if(!letters.containsKey(let)) { letters.put(let,0); } int tel = letters.get(let)+1; letters.put(let,tel); if(letters.get(max)<tel) { max = let; } } System.out.println(letters.get(max) + " keer " + max); } However, I'm uncertain of the time complexity of this new code: Is it O(n) because you only use one for-loop, or does the fact we require the use of the HashMap's get methods make it O(n log n) ? And if someone knows an even better way of reducing the time complexity, please do tell! :)

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  • Rails routing problem

    - by Steve
    I am new to Rails routing and I currently have a problem and hope someone can explain it to me. I am using Rails 2.3.5 Firstly, let me describe my working-fine code: I have a text example, which has a controller (cars_controller) with an update action (along with some other actions). The update action needs the :id parameter. The edit.html.erb has a form: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' } % ... # rest of the form content. In the configuration/routes.rb, I have a self-defined routing rule for update: map.connect 'car/update/:id', :controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' This works fine. Secondly, I change the code. All I change is the self-defined routing rule to map.connect 'car/:action/:id, :controller = 'cars' To me, this rule covers the self-written routing rule. Of course, this rule is also used by other actions such as edit. But the edit.html.erb doesn't work. It complains that update action misses the :id parameter. I have to change the form_for helper to: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update', :id = @car }% ... # @car is the instance passed to edit view. I know that if missing the :id parameter, update action will complain. What I don't understand is why my first code works (with my self-defined routing rule) but my second code fails. It seems to me that I didn't provide :id parameter in my self-defined routing rule. Anyone has an idea?

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  • Django + Virtualenv: manage.py commands fail with ImportError of project name.

    - by Bartek
    This is blowing my mind because it's probably an easy solution, but I can't figure out what could be causing this. So I have a new dev box and am setting everything up. I installed virtualenv, created a new environment for my project under ~/.virtualenvs/projectname Then, I cloned my project from github into my projects directory. Nothing fancy here. There are no .pyc files sitting around so it's a clean slate of code. Then, I activated my virtualenv and installed Django via pip. All looks good so far. Then, I run python manage.py syncdb within my project dir. This is where I get confused: ImportError: No module named projectname So I figured I may have had some references of projectname within my code. So I grep (ack, actually) through my code base and I find nothing of the sorts. So now I'm at a loss, given this environment why am I getting an ImportError on a module named projectname that isn't referenced anywhere in my code? I look forward to a solution .. thanks guys!

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  • Orphan IBM JVM process

    - by Nicholas Key
    Hi people, I have this issue about orphan IBM JVM process being created in the process tree: For example: C:\Program Files\IBM\WebSphere\AppServer\bin>wsadmin -lang jython -f "C:\Hello.py" Hello.py has the simple implementation: import time i = 0 while (1): i = i + 1 print "Hello World " + str(i) time.sleep(3.0) My machine has such JVM information: C:\Program Files\WebSphere\java\bin>java -verbose:sizes -version -Xmca32K RAM class segment increment -Xmco128K ROM class segment increment -Xmns0K initial new space size -Xmnx0K maximum new space size -Xms4M initial memory size -Xmos4M initial old space size -Xmox1624995K maximum old space size -Xmx1624995K memory maximum -Xmr16K remembered set size -Xlp4K large page size available large page sizes: 4K 4M -Xmso256K operating system thread stack size -Xiss2K java thread stack initial size -Xssi16K java thread stack increment -Xss256K java thread stack maximum size java version "1.6.0" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build pwi3260sr6ifix-20091015_01(SR6+152211+155930+156106)) IBM J9 VM (build 2.4, JRE 1.6.0 IBM J9 2.4 Windows Server 2003 x86-32 jvmwi3260sr6-20091001_43491 (JIT enabled, AOT enabled) J9VM - 20091001_043491 JIT - r9_20090902_1330ifx1 GC - 20090817_AA) JCL - 20091006_01 While the program is running, I tried to kill it and subsequently I found an orphan IBM JVM process in the process tree. Is there a way to fix this issue? Why is there an orphan process in the first place? Is there something wrong with my code? I really don't believe that my simplistic code is wrongly implemented. Any suggestions?

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  • how to enable iFrame designMode in a local webpage without using the localhost server?

    - by vjk2005
    The code... <html> <body> <iframe id="editableFrame"></iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> editableFrame.document.designMode="on"; </script> </body> </html> gets the iFrame editable only when run off a server(http://...)(online or from localhost). How do I get this working by simply opening it up as a local html file(file:///...) in the browser? Some browser specific notes: 1. Firefox needs slightly different code to enable designMode but the problem still remains. 2. IE8 gets me the behavior I want with this code, but it pops up a warning about enabling ActiveX controls which the user must accept before getting the iFrame editable. 3. Opera 10.5 is the only browser that has the behavior I want... iFrames are editable without needing to run the code off a server.

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  • Cleaning up a sparsebundle with a script

    - by nickg
    I'm using time machine to backup some servers to a sparse disk image bundle and I'd like to have a script to clean up the old back ups and re-size the image once space has been freed up. I'm fairly certain the data is protected because if I delete the old backups by right clicking, I have to enter a password to be able to delete them. To allow my script to be able to delete them, I've been running it as root. For some reason, it just won't run and every file it tries to delete I get rm: /file/: Operation not permitted Here is what I have as my script: #!/bin/bash for server in servername; do /usr/bin/hdiutil attach -mountpoint /path/to/mountpoint /path/to/sparsebundle/$server.sparsebundle/; /bin/sleep 10; /usr/bin/find /path/to/mountpoint -type d -mtime +7 -exec /bin/rm -rf {} \; /usr/bin/hdiutil unmount /path/to/mountpoint; /bin/sleep 10; /usr/bin/hdiutil compact /path/to/sparsebundle/$server.sparsebundle/; done exit; One of the problems I thought was causing this was it needed to have a mountpoint specified since the default mount was to /Volumes/Time\ Machine\ Backups/ that's why I created a mountpoint. I also thought that it was trying to delete the files to quickly after mounting and it wasn't actually mounted yet, that's why I added the sleep. I've also tried using the -delete option for find instead of -exec, but it didn't make any difference. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated because I'm out of ideas as to why this won't work.

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  • When should I be cautious using data binding in .NET?

    - by Ben McCormack
    I just started working on a small team of .NET programmers about a month ago and recently got in a discussion with our team lead regarding why we don't use databinding at all in our code. Every time we work with a data grid, we iterate through a data table and populate the grid row by row; the code usually looks something like this: Dim dt as DataTable = FuncLib.GetData("spGetTheData ...") Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Length - 1 '(not sure why we do not use a for each here)' gridRow = grid.Rows.Add() gridRow(constantProductID).Value = dt("ProductID").Value gridRow(constantProductDesc).Value = dt("ProductDescription").Value Next '(I am probably missing something in the code, but that is basically it)' Our team lead was saying that he got burned using data binding when working with Sheridan Grid controls, VB6, and ADO recordsets back in the nineties. He's not sure what the exact problem was, but he remembers that binding didn't work as expected and caused him some major problems. Since then, they haven't trusted data binding and load the data for all their controls by hand. The reason the conversation even came up was because I found data binding to be very simple and really liked separating the data presentation (in this case, the data grid) from the in-memory data source (in this case, the data table). "Loading" the data row by row into the grid seemed to break this distinction. I also observed that with the advent of XAML in WPF and Silverlight, data-binding seems like a must-have in order to be able to cleanly wire up a designer's XAML code with your data. When should I be cautious of using data-binding in .NET?

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  • how avoids deadlock condition

    - by rima
    Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

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  • Processing XML form input in ASP

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I'm maintaining a legacy application which consists of some ASP.Net pages with c# code behinds and some asp pages. I need to change the way the application accepts it's input from reading a set of parameters from some form fields to reading in one form field which contains contains some XML and parsing to get the parameters out. I've written a C# class that takes an The NameValueCollection from the C# HttpRequest's Form Element. Like so NameValueCollection form = Request.Form; Dictionary<string, string> fieldDictionary = RequestDataExtractor.BuildFieldDictionary(form); The code in the class looks for a particular parameter and if it's there processes the XML and outputs a Dictionary, if its not there it just cycles through the Form parameters and puts them all into the dictionary (Allowing the old method to still work) How would I do this in ASP? Can I use my same class, or a modified version of it? or do I have to write some new code to get this working? If I have to write ASP code Whats the best way to process the XML in ASP? Sorry if this seems like a stupid question but I know next to nothing about ASP and VB.

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  • Separating Javascript functions

    - by msharma
    I am wondering how javascripts get included in a jsp - can we put any code which the jsp will recognize and not just javascript code only in the .js file? I have some common javascript code which needs to get executed on different pages, so I decided to place it in its own separate .js file and include it on all jsps which call that function. The js function now refers to a key from a properties file and some other non-javascript code: function openPrivacyStmntWindow(){ var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> newwindow=window.open(url,'Terms','height=600,width=800,left=300,top=100,scrollbars=1'); newwindow.focus(); return false; } This function worked just fine when it was included in the jsp itself. Now that I have separated it into its own file it doesnt, do I need to include the properties bundle in this file. The value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" is referring to a bundle called "urls" which has a key called "url_privacyStatement" Also in Line 1 var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> the <h:outputText escape="false" ... /> will it cause any issues? Thanks.

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  • Legitimate uses of the Function constructor

    - by Marcel Korpel
    As repeatedly said, it is considered bad practice to use the Function constructor (also see the ECMAScript Language Specification, 5th edition, § 15.3.2.1): new Function ([arg1[, arg2[, … argN]],] functionBody) (where all arguments are strings containing argument names and the last (or only) string contains the function body). To recapitulate, it is said to be slow, as explained by the Opera team: Each time […] the Function constructor is called on a string representing source code, the script engine must start the machinery that converts the source code to executable code. This is usually expensive for performance – easily a hundred times more expensive than a simple function call, for example. (Mark ‘Tarquin’ Wilton-Jones) Though it's not that bad, according to this post on MDC (I didn't test this myself using the current version of Firefox, though). Crockford adds that [t]he quoting conventions of the language make it very difficult to correctly express a function body as a string. In the string form, early error checking cannot be done. […] And it is wasteful of memory because each function requires its own independent implementation. Another difference is that a function defined by a Function constructor does not inherit any scope other than the global scope (which all functions inherit). (MDC) Apart from this, you have to be attentive to avoid injection of malicious code, when you create a new Function using dynamic contents. Lots of disadvantages and it is intelligible that ECMAScript 5 discourages the use of the Function constructor by throwing an exception when using it in strict mode (§ 13.1). That said, T.J. Crowder says in an answer that [t]here's almost never any need for the similar […] new Function(...), either, again except for some advanced edge cases. So, now I am wondering: what are these “advanced edge cases”? Are there legitimate uses of the Function constructor?

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  • Using ember-resource with couchdb - how can i save my documents?

    - by Thomas Herrmann
    I am implementing an application using ember.js and couchdb. I choose ember-resource as database access layer because it nicely supports nested JSON documents. Since couchdb uses the attribute _rev for optimistic locking in every document, this attribute has to be updated in my application after saving the data to the couchdb. My idea to implement this is to reload the data right after saving to the database and get the new _rev back with the rest of the document. Here is my code for this: // Since we use CouchDB, we have to make sure that we invalidate and re-fetch // every document right after saving it. CouchDB uses an optimistic locking // scheme based on the attribute "_rev" in the documents, so we reload it in // order to have the correct _rev value. didSave: function() { this._super.apply(this, arguments); this.forceReload(); }, // reload resource after save is done, expire to make reload really do something forceReload: function() { this.expire(); // Everything OK up to this location Ember.run.next(this, function() { this.fetch() // Sub-Document is reset here, and *not* refetched! .fail(function(error) { App.displayError(error); }) .done(function() { App.log("App.Resource.forceReload fetch done, got revision " + self.get('_rev')); }); }); } This works for most cases, but if i have a nested model, the sub-model is replaced with the old version of the data just before the fetch is executed! Interestingly enough, the correct (updated) data is stored in the database and the wrong (old) data is in the memory model after the fetch, although the _rev attribut is correct (as well as all attributes of the main object). Here is a part of my object definition: App.TaskDefinition = App.Resource.define({ url: App.dbPrefix + 'courseware', schema: { id: String, _rev: String, type: String, name: String, comment: String, task: { type: 'App.Task', nested: true } } }); App.Task = App.Resource.define({ schema: { id: String, title: String, description: String, startImmediate: Boolean, holdOnComment: Boolean, ..... // other attributes and sub-objects } }); Any ideas where the problem might be? Thank's a lot for any suggestion! Kind regards, Thomas

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  • phpUnit - mock php extended exception object

    - by awongh
    I'm testing some legacy code that extends the default php exception object. This code prints out a custom HTML error message. I would like to mock this exception object in such a way that when the tested code generates an exception it will just echo the basic message instead of giving me the whole HTML message. I cannot figure out a way to do this. It seems like you can test for explicit exceptions, but you can't change in a general way the behavior of an exception, and you also can't mock up an object that extends a default php functionality. ( can't think of another example of this beyond exceptions... but it would seem to be the case ) I guess the problem is, where would you attach the mocked object?? It seems like you can't interfere with 'throw new' and this is the place that the object method is called.... Or if you could somehow use the existing phpunit exception functionality to change the exception behavior the way you want, in a general way for all your code... but this seems like it would be hacky and bad....

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  • Shell script task status monitoring

    - by Bikram Agarwal
    I'm running an ANT task in background and checking in 60 second intervals whether that task is complete or not. If it is not, every 60 seconds, a message should be displayed on screen - "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started", where $slept is 60, 120, 180 n so on. There's a limit of 1200 seconds, after which the script will show the log via 'ant log' command and ask the user whether to continue. If the user chooses to continue, 300 seconds are added to the time limit and the process repeats. The code that I am using for this task is - ant deploy & limit=1200 deploy_check() { while [ ${slept:-0} -le $limit ]; do sleep 60 && slept=`expr ${slept:-0} + 60` if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process is still running. $slept seconds since deploy started." else wait $! && echo "Application ${New_App_Name} deployed successfully" || echo "Deployment of ${New_App_Name} failed" break fi done } deploy_check if [ $$ = "`ps -o ppid= -p $!`" ]; then echo "Deploy process did not finish in $slept seconds. Here's the log." ant log echo "Do you want to kill the process? Press Ctrl+C to kill. Press Enter to continue." read log limit=`expr ${limit} + 300` deploy_check fi Now, the problem is - this code is not working. This looks like a perfectly good code and yet, this is not working. Can anyone point out what is wrong with this code, please.

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  • Switching from form_for to remote_form_for problems with submit changes in Rails

    - by Matthias Günther
    Hi there, another day with Rails and today I want to use Ajax. linkt_remote_link for changing a text was pretty easy so I thought it would also be easy to switch my form_for loop just to an ajax request form with remote_form_for, but the problem with the remote_form_for is that it doesn't save my changes? Here the code that worked: <% form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> Here the code which don't save me the changes and submit them: <% remote_form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post" onsubmit="$.ajax({data:$.param($(this).serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/adminbill/update/58'}); return false;"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> I don't know if I have to consider something special when using remote_form_for (see remote_form_for)

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  • firefox lead dot in cookie issue

    - by Jon
    Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

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  • How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

    - by Holli
    One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

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  • Returning a CSS element

    - by TMP
    Is there a way to return a CSS element? I was using Adobe Edge and adding some of my own code in their code tab, but in order to create boundaries I would need to keep track of margin-top or margin-left. The following code works to move the element "woo" but I'm not sure how to call the elements to add something like "|| sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left"0px"}) to the move left code. //Move RIGHT if (e.which == 39) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left":"+=10px"}); } //Move UP else if (e.which == 38) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-top":"-=10px"}); } //Move Left else if (e.which == 37) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-left":"-=10px"}); } //Move DOWN else if (e.which == 40) { sym.$("woo").css({"margin-top":"+=10px"}); } EDIT: I changed the Left if statement to the following: else if (e.which == 37 && ($("woo").css("margin-left")>0)) { It seems to be working to some extent except for now it won't move left at all! I tried doing <0 too in case I was screwing up a sign but it won't let me move the element left either.

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  • ASP.NET MVC jQuery autocomplete with url.action helper in a script included in a page.

    - by Boob
    I have been building my first ASP.NET MVC web app. I have been using the jQuery autocomplete widget in a number of places like this: <head> $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); </head> The thing is I have this jQuery code in a number of different places through my web app. So i thought I would create a seperate javascript script (script.js) where I could put this code and then just include it in the master page. Then i can put all these repeated pieces of code in that script and just call them where I need too. So I did this. My code is shown below: In the site.js script I put this function: function doAutoComplete() { $("#model").autocomplete({ source: '<%= Url.Action("Model", "AutoComplete") %>' }); } On the page I have: <head> <script src="../../Scripts/site.js" type="text/javascript"></script> doAutoComplete(); </head> But when I do this I get an Invalid Argument exception and the autocomplete doesnt work. What am I doing wrong? Any ideas?Do i need to pass something to the doAutoComplete function?

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