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  • Entity Framework 4 code-only reference column name

    - by Victor
    I created classes: public class Country { public long CountryId {get;set;} public string CountryName {get;set;} } public class Profile { public long ProfileId {get;set;} public string ProfileName {get;set;} public Country Country {get;set;} } and configuration for Profile: public class ProfileConfiguration : EntityConfiguration<Profile> { public IlluminatiCoreProfileConfiguration() { Relation(p => p.Country); } } Then I create context and run context.CreateDatabase(). New database contains table Profiles with column Country_CountryId. How can I write configuration for changing column name to "CountryId"? Thanks.

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  • Class library reference problem

    - by Anindya Chatterjee
    I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced I can not access any of the classes in it. Can anyone shed some light on it please. I know that if I change the namespace everything will be ok, but I want to create a seamless integration like .net framework itself with other project, so that one can refer the library and forget about its namespaces.

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  • Class library reference problem

    - by Anindya Chatterjee
    I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced in that project I can not access any of the classes in it. My question was mscorlib and System.dll share similar namespaces, but still classes from both the assembly is accessible, but why can't mine? If I put a public class under System.Collections.Generic namespace in my class library and refer that library in a project and use a statement like "using System.Collections.Generic", still why I can't access my class there? This was an experimentation I did, I know using System namespace is not encouraged in custom class library, but I want to know the reason behind why I can't access my class in this special case? Please someone shed some light on it. PS: Last time I asked similar question but put it wrongly, so people got misunderstood and I didn't get my answer. This time I am trying to put it correctly as far as I can. Sorry for the misunderstanding.

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  • How do I reference sqlite db column to use in update statement

    - by user244190
    I am trying to update a datetime column in an android sqlite db to use international date format (yyyy-mm-dd) instead of the current format (mm/dd/yyyy). I want to use the sqlite date() function to reformat the current value of the column. I thought it would be as simple as the following: update tblename set thedate = date(thedate) but the above does not work. How would i write the sql statement to accomplish this? thanks patrick

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  • Unable to pass variables from one view to another

    - by jerincbus
    I have a detail view that includes three UIButtons, each of which pushes a different view on to the stack. One of the buttons is connected to a MKMapView. When that button is pushed I need to send the latitude and longitude variables from the detail view to the map view. I'm trying to add the string declaration in the IBAction: - (IBAction)goToMapView { MapViewController *mapController = [[MapViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MapViewController" bundle:nil]; mapController.address = self.address; mapController.Title = self.Title; mapController.lat = self.lat; mapController.lng = self.lng; //Push the new view on the stack [[self navigationController] pushViewController:mapController animated:YES]; [mapController release]; mapController = nil; } But I get this when I try to build: 'error: incompatible types in assignment' for both lat and lng variables. So my questions are am I going about passing the variables from one view to another the right way? And does the MKMapView accept latitude and longitude as a string or a number?

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  • C# WPF Apllication class

    - by hans
    my applicationen consists of App.cs/App.xaml and some other files. Everything is compiled to an exe file. However, I want a 2. application, which should reference the first one. In this Application is a class derived from App. But when I call the the Run() function I get an very stragne error in a xaml code of the first application, saying that some image files could not be loaded. I had a similar architecture when i was using Windows Forms and it worked fine.

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  • How can I programmatically construct the object reference?

    - by Bryan
    Lets just say that I have three textboxes: TextBox1, TextBox2, TextBox3. Normally if I wanted to change the text for example I would put TextBox1.Text = "Whatever" and so on. For what I'm doing right now I would like to something like (TextBox & "i").Text. That obviously isn't the syntax I need to use I'm just using it as an example for what I need to do. So how can I do something like this? The main reason I'm doing this is to reduce code with a loop. Please keep in mind that I'm not actually changing the text of the textboxes I'm simply using that as an example to get the point across.

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  • Can an URL shortener pass parameters?

    - by ManniAT
    Hi, I use bit.ly to shorten my urls. My problem - paramters are not passed. Let me explain I use http://bit.ly/MYiPhoneApps which redirects (let's say) to http://iphone.pp-p.net/default.aspx Now when I try http://bit.ly/MYiPhoneApps?param=xx this param is not added to the resulting url. I know I could create an extra "short url" including a paramter - so http://bit.ly/WithParam would result in http://www.mysite.com/somepath/apage.aspx?Par1=yy and so forth. But what I want is to have a short URL directing to a page - and then I want to add a parameter to this shortened url - which shoul (of course) land at my page. Is this a shortcome of bit.ly (and others are maybe able to do it) - or does "parameter forwarding" not work with 301 redirections? Manfred

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  • Pass form data from block to a page view in Drupal

    - by abdesignuk
    I am using the location module and views module for a postcode search, which works fine in a page display using views. However I want the user to be able to enter their postcode into a block on the homepage and clicking submit my module sends them to the page created in views and the postcode is set as a session S_SESSION['postcode'] before sending to this page, next I want the location page to load but using the session to display the locations automatically. Any ideas I am using hook_form_submit() and inside that declaring the $form_state as a session and then using $form_state['redirect'] to sent to the views page path.

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  • changing src reference based upon https

    - by spody
    I'm adding a facebook comment widget to a website. I'm placing this widget in a file that is included on everypage. The navigation is relatively linked so it switches back and forth from http and https. But for some reason the comment widget only shows up if both the src linked file and webpage is secure or both the src linked file and webpage is NOT secure. The widget does not display of the src file is secure and the webpage is not secure. So... I've tried this but doesn't work. if (window.location.protocol == 'https:') script.setAttribute('src', 'https://ssl.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php'); } else { script.setAttribute('src', 'http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/connect.php/en_US') }

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  • Pass dynamic value in URL with CakePHP

    - by Renato Dinhani Conceição
    I have the following method that performs an Ajax request passing some dynamic value obtained from a select input. It works fine, but the dynamic value is passed as parameter in the URL, something like states/listCities/?big_string_of_serialized_parameter . $this->Js->event( 'change', $this->Js->request( array( #url 'controller' => 'states', 'action' => 'listCities'), array( # ajax options that generates the serialized parameter 'update' => '#DealerCityId', 'data' => '$("#DealerStateId").serialize()', 'dataExpression' => true ) ) ); I'm trying to do this in a more friendly URL way, something like states/listCities/2. It's possible in CakePHP to generate a friendly URL like this with dynamic value from a input or is only possible passing the dynamic values as parameters?

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  • Merging bibtex reference with MS Word?

    - by Akhil
    I have a paper submission in about 12 hours. I have written references in a separate .bib file in bibtex format. Now please tell how to merge the references with my paper written in MS word in the simplest/ easiest possible manner. I am looking for some automatic tool that does this. I have never used bibtex before. In fact I came to know about bibtex few hours ago only.

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  • DOMNode reference doesn't work anymore after appending it to another element twice

    - by Robbie Groenewoudt
    Hi, I'm using the a wrapper around the PHP5-class DOMDocument to generate my HTML. This makes it easy to modify the HTML by using the DOM. An example is creating element #1 and adding it to the element #2 and still be able to modify element #1 directly. A problem arises however with the following: Element #1 is added to element #2 Element #2 is added to element #3 Element #1 is modified but no changes are visible in the DOM of element #3 (which contains #1 and #2) A simplified sample code: <?php $doc1 = new DOMDocument(); $el1 = $doc1->createElement('h1', 'Hello'); $doc1->appendChild($el1); $doc2 = new DOMDocument(); $el2 = $doc2->createElement('h2', 'World'); $doc2->appendChild($el2); $doc3 = new DOMDocument(); $el3 = $doc3->createElement('h3', 'Today'); $doc3->appendChild($el3); // Import el1 into el2 $el1 = $doc2->importNode($el1, true); $el2->appendChild( $el1 ); $doc1 = $doc2; // Import el2 into el3 $el2 = $doc3->importNode($el2, true); //$el1 = $doc3->importNode($el1, true); Necessary? $el3->appendChild($el2); $doc2 = $doc3; // Modify el1 $el1->nodeValue = "Boo"; // This doesn't work? //$el2->nodeValue = "Boo"; // Changing element2 or 3 works... // Display result echo $doc3->saveHTML(); ?>` Any idea's on why modifying $el1 won't work? (While $el2 works fine) Or an easy way to set $el1 to the right element?

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  • Two pass JSP page rendering

    - by dotsid
    Suppose an example. I have following interface: public interface DataSource<T> { Future<T> fetch(); } This datasource can do asynchronous data fetching. And we have following tag for using datasource in JSP: <html> <d:fetch from="${orderDS}" var="orders"> <c:foreach in="${orders}" var="order"> <div class="order"> <c:out value="${order.title}" /> </div> </c:foreach> </d:fetch> </html> So, what I want? I want JSP rendering engine to call my custom tag (FetchTag in this example) twice. On first call FetchTag will do DataSource.fetch() call and save Future locally as a object field. On second call FetchTag do Future.get() call and will be blocked until data becomes available. Is there any way to do such a thing?

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  • receive and pass values with XML, AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    My example imports XML and has an object rotating on stage. The rotating object is called enemy corresponds to ENEMY in the XML. How do I set the rotation variable to receive values from XML? REASON It seems more difficult to set up variables using external data. I want to understand it better. here's a link http://videodnd.weebly.com/ rotation.fla //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("enemy.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(myXML.ROGUE.*); trace(myXML); //TEXT var text:TextField = new TextField(); text.text = myXML.ENEMY.*; addChild(text); } //ROTATION function enterFrameHandler(event:Event):void { //==>CODE I WANT TO CHANGE<== enemy.rotationY += 10; //enemy.rotationY = myXML.ENEMY.*; } addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, enterFrameHandler); enemy.xml ENEMY is set to -100, use what you like <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <BADGUYS> <ENEMY TITLE="sticky">-100</ENEMY> <ROGUE TITLE="slimy">-1000</ROGUE> </BADGUYS>

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  • How to pass or display mySQL data based on subscription or billing

    - by spm
    I want to build a PHP based site where, the user can view data based on the types of data they've paid for. Allow me to use something simple for an example. Let's say historical data for basketball was not readily available but could be purchased. Simple information such as the Winner, Loser, Final score and date are all stored in a mySQL table. What would be involved so that, when the user logs in, they can only see the historical data they have paid for. My theories so far about the architecture: I imagined a mySQL table storing True or False values for all historical game data they have paid for. Based on this, a 'data chart' object enables the user to view all data within their mySQL row which has a value of 'true.' Follow ups: Assuming I am correct, what methods are popular or practical for this type of service.

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  • Canonical pattern reference in Actors programming model.

    - by Bubba88
    Hello! Is there a source, which I could use to learn some of the most used and popular practices regarding Actor-/Agent-oriented programming. My primary concern is about parallelism and distribution limited to the mentioned scheme - Actors, message passing. Should I begin with Erlang documentation or maybe there is any kind of book that describes the most important building blocks when programming Actor-oriented? Thank you! (Most useful examples would be in Scala or F#)

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  • What to pass parameters to start an workflow through WCF

    - by Rubens Farias
    It's possible to define some start values to an workflow using WorkflowInstance.CreateWorkflow, like this: using(WorkflowRuntime runtime = new WorkflowRuntime()) { Dictionary<string, object> parameters = new Dictionary<string, object>(); parameters.Add("First", "something"); parameters.Add("Second", 42); WorkflowInstance instance = runtime.CreateWorkflow(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow), parameters); instance.Start(); waitHandle.WaitOne(); } This way, a MyStateMachineWorkflow instance is created and First and Second public properties gets that dictionary values. But I'm using WCF; so far, I managed to create a Start method which accepts that two arguments and I set that required fields by using bind on my ReceiveActivity: using (WorkflowServiceHost host = new WorkflowServiceHost(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow))) { host.Open(); ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow> factory = new ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow>("MyStateMachineWorkflow"); IMyStateMachineWorkflow proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); // set this values through binding on my ReceiveActivity proxy.Start("something", 42); } While this works, that create an anomaly: that method should be called only and exactly once. How can I start an workflow instance through WCF passing those arguments? On my tests, I just actually interact with my workflow through wire after I call that proxy method. Is there other way?

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  • C#: How to gracefully pass multiple conditions to Equals()

    - by Roy
    I'm new to C#, and I'm trying to write a program that selects file types from a FileInfo list. So far I have something along the lines of: List<FileInfo> files = new List<FileInfo>(); IEnumerable<FileInfo> result = files.Where(f=>f.Extension.Equals(".jpg", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)|| f.Extension.Equals(".gif", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase) ); etc Obviously I'm not happy with this solution, but I don't know how to do this otherwise in a single call. What's the better way to go about it?

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  • ASP.NET SqlDataSource update and create FK reference

    - by William
    The short version: I have a grid view bound to a data source which has a SelectCommand with a left join in it because the FK can be null. On Update I want to create a record in the FK table if the FK is null and then update the parent table with the new records ID. Is this possible to do with just SqlDataSources? The detailed version: I have two tables: Company and Address. The column Company.AddressId can be null. On my ascx page I am using a SqlDataSource to select a left join of company and address and a GridView to display the results. By having my UpdateCommand and DeleteCommand of the SqlDataSource execute two statements separated by a semi-colon I am able to use the GridView's Edit and Delete functionality to update both table simultaneously. The problem I have is when the Company.AddressId is null. What I need to have happen is have the data source create a record in the Address table and then update the Company table with the new Address.ID then proceed with the update as usual. I would like to do this with just data sources if possible for consistency/simplicity sake. Is it possible to have my data source do this, or perhaps add a second data source to the page to handle some of this? Once I have that working I can probably figure out how to make it work with the InsertCommand as well but if you are on a roll and have an answer for how to make that fly as well feel free to provide it. Thanks.

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  • How can I programmically construct the object reference?

    - by Bryan
    Lets just say that I have three textboxes: TextBox1, TextBox2, TextBox3. Normally if I wanted to change the text for example I would put TextBox1.Text = "Whatever" and so on. For what I'm doing right now I would like to something like (TextBox & "i").Text. That obviously isn't the syntax I need to use I'm just using it as an example for what I need to do. So how can I do something like this? The main reason I'm doing this is to reduce code with a loop. Please keep in mind that I'm not actually changing the text of the textboxes I'm simply using that as an example to get the point across.

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  • if a JAR is placed on app servers's classpath how do we reference it from JSP

    - by Omnipresent
    On our application we are getting an error saying: PWC6117: File "/struts-tags" not found code in the file thats giving error is: <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags" %> This file is in struts2-core.jar which is placed on the classpath of the app server (Sun 9.1). The code will work fine and not complain when the jar is actually in WEB-INF/lib of the application, compared to being on classpath of the appserver. But we can not change that. it has to be on appservers classpath. But how should we change our code so that this error goes away? I can create mapping in my web.xml so that tag uri's are change. but what should taglib-location be changed to? so that it references to app servers classpath? <taglib> <taglib-uri>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-uri> <taglib-location>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-location> </taglib>

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  • detecting object-reference duplication across JavaScript files

    - by AnC
    I have a number of files with contents like this: function hello() { ... element1.text = foo.locale.lorem; element2.text = foo.locale.ipsum; ... elementn.text = foo.locale.whatever; ... } function world() { ... var label = bar.options.baz.blah; var toggle = bar.options.baz.use_toggle; ... } This could be written more efficiently, and also be more readable, by creating a shortcut to the locale object: function hello() { var loc = foo.locale; ... element1.text = loc.lorem; element2.text = loc.ipsum; ... elementn.text = loc.whatever; ... } function world() { var options = bar.options.baz; ... var label = options.blah; var toggle = options.use_toggle; ... } Is there a simple way to detect occurrences of such duplication for any arbitrary object (it's not always as simple as "locale", or foo.something)? Basically, I wanna know where lengthy object references appear two or more times within a function. Thanks!

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  • pass by pointer is not working

    - by user323422
    #include"iostream" class CMessage { public:int a; CMessage(){} ~CMessage(){} }; void Testing(CMessage *f_pMessage)//l_pMessage is output parameter { f_pMessage = new CMessage(); f_pMessage->a = 1; } int main() { CMessage *l_pMessage =NULL; Testing(l_pMessage); std::cout<<l_pMessage->a;//getting l_pMessage = NULL; return 0; } when i called testing then inside testing f_pMessage is getting intialize but as ssoon as i after excuting testing function it should be store in l_Pmessage but it is showing NULL.confussed.....

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