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• asp.net on linux/mono broken? weird load then 404/resource error

  - by acidzombie24

  I am testing out my asp.net on mono's VM Ware Image using opensuse From the home page it says Trying out your own code You can test your own applications by connecting with the file manager on this machine to the machine hosting your application, and copying over the directory containing application and its associated files. To test your ASP.NET applications, copy your code to a new directory in /srv/www/htdocs , then visit the following url: http://localhost/directoryname/page.aspx Where directoryname is the directory where you deployed your application, and page.aspx is the initial page for your software, typically Default.aspx. Mirror: http://tortillaflatscafe.com/ I saw my app had errors. After i restarted the VM i can no longer run my app. Instead of getting error messages or anything i get this error instead. Server Error in '/myfoldername' Application The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /Default.aspx I tried /default.aspx, using sudo to set permissions to 777 recursively, restarting apache via terminal i could not get this error to go away. How do i fix this?

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• "requiresuniqueemail=true" implementation in asp.net site

  - by domineer

  Hi people I got a social networking site that is running live right now.The first time I launched my site I let requiresuniqueemail=false set-up on my web.config inorder for me to create dummy accounts for testing purposes and to start up the site you know.However the site is kind of stable right now w/ almost 5k members.So I would like to set-up the requiresuniqueemail to true so that users cannot reuse their existing email address and for me to make it sure that there will be unique email ad for each site user.I know the site got like 100 users with the same email address.My question is what could be the problem I'm going to face if I do this right now(requiresuniqueemail="true") and how to do this efficiently(without errors and if possible sitewide say in the global assax)?I tested and I already got an error if I logout an account.Like say a user try to click log-out this code runs: Dim d As DateTime = DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(-1 * Membership.UserIsOnlineTimeWindow) Dim theuser As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() theuser.LastActivityDate = d Membership.UpdateUser(theuser) If Not Cache(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") Is Nothing Then Cache.Remove(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") End If Then an exception occured on updateuser() function saying System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderException: The E-mail supplied is invalid. This is just one instance I know that I encountered a problem. Hoping to hear your ideas guys.....

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• ADO.NET: Can't connect to mdf database file

  - by Nabo

  I'm writing an application that uses a SQL Server 2005 database. In the connection string i'm specifying the mdf file like this: connstr = @"Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS; AttachDbFilename=" + fileLocation + "; Integrated Security=True; User Instance=True"; When i execute the code: public static void forceConnection() { try { conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.Message, "Erro", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } finally { if(conn != null) conn.Close(); } } I receive an exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) This code works on XP but not in Vista.. I tryed run Visual Studio in admin mode and moved the mdf file to "user data" folders but the error persists.. Any help? Thanks!

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• Importing Excel spreadsheet data into existing Access DB

  - by Keeb13r

  I've designed an Access 2003 DB with 3 tables: APPLICATIONS, SERVERS, and INSTALLATIONS. Records in the APPLICATIONS and SERVERS tables are uniquely identified by a synthetic primary key (in Access, an "auto number"). The INSTALLATIONS table is essentially a mapping table between APPLICATIONS and SERVERS: it's a list of records of which applications are installed on which servers. A record in the INSTALLATIONS table is also identified by a synthetic primary key, and it consists of an APPLICATION_ID and SERVER_ID for the records in their respective tables. I have an Excel 2003 spreadsheet I would like to import into this database, but it's proving difficult. The spreadsheet is made up of several tabs/worksheets, each one representing a server with its own listing of installed applications. I'm not sure how to proceed with an import - the "Get External Data -- Import" feature in Access has an import "In an Existing Table" option, but it's greyed out. I'm also unsure how I build the relationships between applications and servers for importing records into the INSTALLATIONS table. I had previously fooled around with adding some security to the Access DB file. I think I removed everything but perhaps I didn't and that's causing the problem? Some sample data from the Excel spreadsheet: SERVER101 * Adobe Reader 9 * BMC Remedy User 7.0 * HostExplorer 2008 * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft Office 2007 * Notepad++ SERVER102 * Adobe Reader 9 * DameWare Mini Remote Control * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 * Oracle 9.2 SERVER103 * AWDView * EXTRA! Personal Client 32-bit * Microsoft Office 2003 * Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5 SP1 * Snagit 9.1 * WinZip 12.1 The Access DB design is very simple: APPLICATION * APPLICATION_ID (autonumber) * APPLICATION_NAME (varchar) SERVER * SERVER_ID (autonumber) * SERVER_NAME (varchar) INSTALLATION * INSTALLATION_ID (autonumber) * APPLICATION_ID (number) * SERVER_ID (number)

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• Zend Framework Form Element Validators - validate a field even if not required

  - by Jeremy Hicks

  Is there a way to get a validator to fire even if the form element isn't required? I have a form where I want to validate the contents of a texbox (make sure not empty) if the value of another form element, which is a couple of radio buttons, has a specific value selected. Right now I'm doing this by overriding the isValid() function of my form class and it works great. However, I'd like to move this to either its on validator or use the Callback validator. Here's what I have so far, but it never seems to get called unless I change the field to setRequired(true) which I don't want to do at all times, only if the value of the other form element is set to a specific value. // In my form class's init function $budget = new Zend_Form_Element_Radio('budget'); $budget->setLabel('Budget') ->setRequired(true) ->setMultiOptions($options); $budgetAmount = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('budget_amount'); $budgetAmount->setLabel('Budget Amount') ->setRequired(false) ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator(new App_Validate_BudgetAmount()); //Here is my custom validator (incomplete) but just testing to see if it even gets called. class App_Validate_BudgetAmount extends Zend_Validate_Abstract { const STRING_EMPTY = 'stringEmpty'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::STRING_EMPTY => 'please provide a budget amount' ); public function isValid($value) { echo 'validating...'; var_dump($value); return true; } }

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• Unusual heap size limitations in VS2003 C++

  - by Shane MacLaughlin

  I have a C++ app that uses large arrays of data, and have noticed while testing that it is running out of memory, while there is still plenty of memory available. I have reduced the code to a sample test case as follows; void MemTest() { size_t Size = 500*1024*1024; // 512mb if (Size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) TRACE("Invalid Size"); void * mem = malloc(Size); if (mem == NULL) TRACE("allocation failed"); } If I create a new MFC project, include this function, and run it from InitInstance, it works fine in debug mode (memory allocated as expected), yet fails in release mode (malloc returns NULL). Single stepping through release into the C run times, my function gets inlined I get the following // malloc.c void * __cdecl _malloc_base (size_t size) { void *res = _nh_malloc_base(size, _newmode); RTCCALLBACK(_RTC_Allocate_hook, (res, size, 0)); return res; } Calling _nh_malloc_base void * __cdecl _nh_malloc_base (size_t size, int nhFlag) { void * pvReturn; // validate size if (size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) return NULL; ' ' And (size _HEAP_MAXREQ) returns true and hence my memory doesn't get allocated. Putting a watch on size comes back with the exptected 512MB, which suggests the program is linking into a different run-time library with a much smaller _HEAP_MAXREQ. Grepping the VC++ folders for _HEAP_MAXREQ shows the expected 0xFFFFFFE0, so I can't figure out what is happening here. Anyone know of any CRT changes or versions that would cause this problem, or am I missing something way more obvious?

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• Rails 3, Devise and custom controller action

  - by Johnny Klassy

  routes.rb match 'agencies/stub' => 'agencies#stub', :via => :get resources :agencies Here's the rake routes dump agencies_stub GET /agencies/stub(.:format) {:controller=>"agencies", :action=>"stub"} agencies GET /agencies(.:format) {:action=>"index", :controller=>"agencies"} POST /agencies(.:format) {:action=>"create", :controller=>"agencies"} new_agency GET /agencies/new(.:format) {:action=>"new", :controller=>"agencies"} edit_agency GET /agencies/:id/edit(.:format) {:action=>"edit", :controller=>"agencies"} agency GET /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"show", :controller=>"agencies"} PUT /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"update", :controller=>"agencies"} DELETE /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"destroy", :controller=>"agencies"} Devise is setup to have all agenciesroutes only accessible as admin. The call I'm testing with is http://xyz:12345@localhost:3000/agencies/stub but it doesn't authenticate properly, ie, it doesn't recognize it as admin and throws me back to the Devise login page. The creds are a valid admin account. I'm baffled and have no idea why this is happening. Any insights will be much appreciated.

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• jquery callback functions failing to finish execution

  - by calumbrodie

  I'm testing a jquery app i've written and have come across some unexpected behaviour $('button.clickme').live('click',function(){ //do x (takes 2 seconds) //do y (takes 4 seconds) //do z (takes 0.5 seconds) }) The event can be triggered by a number of buttons. What I'm finding is that when I click each button slowly (allowing 10 seconds between clicks) - my callback function executes correctly (actions x, y & z complete). However If I rapidly click buttons on my page it appears that the function sometimes only completes up to step x or y before terminating. My question: Is it the case that if this function is fired by a clicking second DOM element, while the first callback function is completing - will jQuery terminate the first callback and start over again? Do I have to write my callback function explicitly outside the event handler and then call it?? function doStuff() { //do x //do y //do z ( } $('button.clickme).live('click',doStuff()) If this is the case can someone explain why this is happening or give me a link to some advice on best practice on closures etc - I'd like to know the BEST way to write jQuery to improve performance etc. Thanks

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• Porting a web application to work in IE7

  - by Bears will eat you

  I'm developing a web application that uses lots of Javascript and CSS, both of my own creation and through third-party libraries. These include jQuery and Google Maps & Visualization JS APIs. I've been testing everything in Firefox 3. Things are peachy until it turns out the main target of this webapp is (cue sad trombone) IE7. I'm looking for caveats, advice, libraries, or other references to help make this transition as easy as possible (not that it's actually going to be easy). I've already tried IE7.js though it hasn't yet shown itself to be the silver bullet I was hoping for. I'm sure that it works as advertised, I think it's just not as all-encompassing as I'd like (example: colors like #4684EE and #DC3912, which are correctly rendered in FF3, are rendered as black in IE7, with or without IE7.js). Are there other libraries out there to help bring IE7 (more) in line with FF3? A corollary question: what debugger would you recommend for IE7? I'm currently using Firebug Lite, but it runs painfully slowly. Is there anything out there with similar features that I might have missed?

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• Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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• connecting to secure database on private network from website host

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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• iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

  - by RPM1984

  Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

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• Issues with simulating cell selection in Excel using PostMessage

  - by DD

  Hi all, So far I've tried drag/drop motion in many applications including Visualization software (moving time slider left/right), Photoshop-Paint (drawing) etc. I need some more testing before I make sure that my system works and it failed in Excel. I'm using the code below to send the input: m.x = 215; m.y = 200 + 36 + 9 * ( currentTime - 1 ); childH = findChild( w->getHandle(), m ); PostMessage( childH, WM_MOUSEMOVE, 0, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); PostMessage( childH, WM_LBUTTONDOWN, MK_LBUTTON, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); m.x = 215; m.y = 200 + 36 + 9 * ( currentTime ); childH = findChild( w->getHandle(), m ); PostMessage( childH, WM_MOUSEMOVE, MK_LBUTTON, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); PostMessage( childH, WM_LBUTTONUP, 0, MAKELPARAM( m.x, m.y ) ); I can click anywhere in Excel and select the cell, or activate buttons/menus anything. I can even drag a plot around (with the code above) but it doesn't work for clicking and dragging the mouse to select multiple cells. It just doesn't do anything. I can't use SendInput because the window doesn't have the focus and is in background. Thanks!

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• how to programatically compare permissions of login/user in sql server 2005

  - by titanium

  There's a login/user in SQL Server who is having a problem importing accounts in production server. I don't have an idea what method he is doing this. According to the one importing, this import is working fine in development server. But when he did the same import in production it is giving him errors. Below are the errors he is getting for each accounts. 2009-06-05 18:01:05.8254 ERROR [engine-1038] Task [1038:00001 - Members]: Step 1.0 [<Insert step description>]: Task.RunStep(): StoreRow has failed 2009-06-05 18:01:05.9035 ERROR [engine-1038] Task [1038:00001 - Members]: Step 1.0 [<Insert step description>]: Task.RunStep(): StoreRow exception: Exception caught while storing Data. [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]'ACCOUNT1' is not a valid login or you do not have permission. Please note that 'ACCOUNT1' is not the real account name. I just changed it for security reason. Using SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS), I viewed/checked the permissions of the user/login who is performing the import from development server and production for comparison. I found no difference. My question is: Is there a way to programmatically query permissions in server and database level of a particular login/user so I can compare/contrast for any differences?

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• How can I accelerate the generation of the an MD5 Checksum within vb.net?

  - by Richard

  I'm working with some very large files residing on P2 (Panasonic) cards. Part of the process we employ is to first generate a checksum of the file we are going to copy, then copy the file, then run a checksum on the file to confirm that it copied OK. The problem is, is that files are large (70 GB+) and take a long time to complete. It's an issue since we will eventually be dealing with thousands of these files. I would like to find a faster way to generate the checksum other than using the System.Security.Cryptography.MD5CryptoServiceProvider I don't care if this means using a specialized hardware card, provided it works and is not to ungodly expensive. I would prefer to have a method of encoding that provided some feedback as to how far the process has gone along so I can display it like I do now. The application is written in vb.net. I would prefer to be able to use it as component, library, reference within my application, but I'm willing to call an outside application if there is enough improvement in the speed of generating the checksum. Needless to say, the checksum must be consistent and correct. :-) Thank you in advance for your time and efforts, Richard

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• What could possibly be causing this NPE in onCreate?

  - by Adam Johns

  I am getting an NPE in onCreate of the following file (MySubActivity): public class MySubActivity extends MySuperActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); myTextView.setText(getResources().getString(R.string.myString)); } } MySuperActivity: public class MySuperActivity extends Activity { protected TextView myTextView; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.my_layout); myTextView = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.myTextViewid); } } The strange thing is that I have never seen this crash while testing the app. The page works fine when I test it. However I got a crash report from Google notifying me of the crash. I cannot reproduce it, and I have no idea under what scenario this crash could happen. Seeing as how it works for me, the resource ids and string names etc. must be correct. The only thing that came across my mind was that maybe the user had their phone set to a different language, so it couldn't properly pull the resources. However, there are default resources for all of them, and I tested changing the language of my emulator and it didn't crash. Any ideas?

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• How would I combine these two codes, PHP and HTML?

  - by user1887109

  This is what I have currently: <html> <body oncontextmenu="return false;" bgcolor="5385ab"> <p align=center><a href="test.php"><img src="image.png"/></a></p> </body> </html> I need the <body> part and to combine this PHP geo-redirect code with "test.php" also including the "image.png" Here is the PHP code: <?php require_once("geoip.inc"); $gi = geoip_open("/var/lib/GeoIP/GeoIP.dat",GEOIP_STANDARD); $country_code = geoip_country_code_by_addr($gi, $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']); geoip_close($gi); if($country_code == 'FR') { header('Location: http://www.test.php'); } else { header('Location: http://www.yahoo.com/'); } ?> I'm not familiar with PHP so I have no idea how to even go about testing these two together. Hope you can help! Thank you.

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• Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

  - by DBase486

  Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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• Wordpress inserting comments via wp_insert_comment()

  - by Cyber Junkie

  Hello all happy holidays! :) I'm trying to insert comments in my wordpress blog via the wp_insert_comment() function. It's for a plugin I'm trying to make. I have this code in my header for testing. It works every time I refresh the page. $agent = $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT']; $data = array( 'comment_post_ID' => 256, 'comment_author' => 'Dave', 'comment_author_email' => '[email protected]', 'comment_author_url' => 'http://www.someiste.com', 'comment_content' => 'Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet...', 'comment_author_IP' => '127.3.1.1', 'comment_agent' => $agent, 'comment_date' => date('Y-m-d H:i:s'), 'comment_date_gmt' => date('Y-m-d H:i:s'), 'comment_approved' => 1, ); $comment_id = wp_insert_comment($data); It successfully inserts comments into the database. The problem: Comments don't show via the Disqus comment system. I compared table rows and I noticed that user_agent differs. Normal comments use for example, Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv... and Disqus comments use Disqus/1.1(2.61):119598902 numbers are different for each comment. Does anyone know how to insert comments with wp_insert_comment() when Disqus is enabled?

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• Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

  - by Randy

  Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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• Bookmarklet, js injection and popup issue

  - by Neewok

  I'm currently writing a bookmarklet that loads and executes a remote js file by appending a new <script> tag in the current window, like so : javascript:(function() { if(typeof __bml_main != "undefined") return __bml_main.init(); var s= document.createElement('script'); s.type= 'text/javascript'; s.src= 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/media/bookmarklet.js'; void(document.body.appendChild(s)); })(); My bookmarklet needs to perform some dom manipulations in order to extract data from the page being viewed, and then to open a new popup to list them. The thing is : if I want to bypass pop-up blockers, I can't open my new window from the injected script. I need to open it right from the beginning in the bookmarklet code, and to access it later when needed. I've tried to do somehting like this : javascript:var my_popup = window.open('http://127.0.0.1:8000/resources/manage/new/', 'newResourcePopup',config='height=200,width=400,toolbar=no,menubar=no,scrollbars=no,resizable=no,location=no,directories=no,status=no'); (function() { // script injection (...) })(); but if I then try to access my_popup from my remotely loaded script, most browsers will throw a security warning and won't let me access the Window object. This is understandable since the script is not from the same domain than the displayed page, but I'm kind of stuck... A solution would be to use a div overlay, but I'd really prefer to open a window in this case. Any hints ?

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• Masonry js won't bunch images vertically

  - by user1449737

  The images are being aligned horizontally correctly but they are all spaced out vertically.. Take a look here http://brstudios.co.uk/testing to see what I mean properly.. My mark up is as followed (simplified): <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://masonry.desandro.com/jquery.masonry.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://raw.github.com/desandro/imagesloaded/master/jquery.imagesloaded.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var $container = $('.portfolio-container'); $container.imagesLoaded(function(){ $container.masonry({ itemSelector : '.break', columnWidth : 429 }); }); </script> <style type="text/css"> .break { float: left; width: 429px; margin: 10px 20px; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="portfolio-container"> <?php do { ?> <div class="break"> // Contents taken from MySQL // </div> <?php } while ($row_displayPosts = mysql_fetch_assoc($displayPosts)); ?> </div> </body> </html> I think part of it is working but as you can see by the link provided it isn't moving the elements together vertically. Does anyone have any pointers?

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• For business people to manage, keep binary images in MySQL or just the urls?

  - by Michael Mao

  Hello everyone: I am working on a task to enable image uploading and auto-scaling(from full sized to thumbnail) by jQuery & PHP. I can naturally come up with two approaches : First, store both images as binary objects directly into MySQL; Second, store only urls to the images and keep the images somewhere on server. The images are for everyone to view, so there are no security restrictions, as far as I know. Personally I don't have any preference, however, at the end of the day, it is the business people that are going to manage the images as part of the system(CRUD). So I am wondering which seems to be a bit better for them? Of course I am building a easy-to-use, visualize web interface for the staff to control the process, but I am not sure if that is enough. Lessons told me that if I don't think for the future and seek the most flexible approach, the I will probably screw myself sooner or later. PS. The following link is what I've found so far, which is pretty cool, no flash involved :) Andrew Valum's ajax image upload jQuery plugin

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• htmlspecialchars() - How and when to use and avoid multiple use

  - by naescent

  Hi, I'm building a PHP intranet for my boss. A simple customer, order, quote system. It will be denied access from the Internet and only used by 3 people. I'm not so concerned with security as I am with validation. Javascript is disables on all machines. The problem I have is this: Employee enters valid data into a form containing any of the following :;[]"' etc. Form $_POSTS this data to a validationAndProcessing.php page, and determines whether the employee entered data or not in to the fields. If they didn't they are redirected back to the data input page and the field they missed out is highlighted in red. htmlspecialchars() is applied to all data being re-populated to the form from what they entered earlier. Form is then resubmitted to validationAndProcessing.php page, if successful data is entered into the database and employee is taken to display data page. My question is this: If an employee repeatedly enters no data in step 1, they will keep moving between step 1 and 4 each time having htmlspecialchars() applied to the data. So that:- & becomes:- &amp; becomes:- &amp;amp; becomes:- &amp;amp;amp; etc.. How can I stop htmlspecialchars() being applied multiple times to data that is already cleaned? Thanks, Adam

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• Accessing a struct collection property from within another collection

  - by paddyb

  I have a struct that I need to store in a collection. The struct has a property that returns a Dictionary. public struct Item { private IDictionary<string, string> values; public IDictionary<string, string> Values { get { return this.values ?? (this.values = new Dictionary<string, string>()); } } } public class ItemCollection : Collection<Item> {} When testing I've found that if I add the item to the collection and then try to access the dictionary the structs values property is never updated. var collection = new ItemCollection { new Item() }; // pre-loaded with an item collection[0].Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // KeyNotFoundException here However if I load up the item first and then add it to a collection the values field is maintained. var collection = new ItemCollection(); var item = new Item(); item.Values.Add("myKey", "myValue"); collection.Add(item); Trace.WriteLine(collection[0].Values["myKey"]); // ok I've already decided that a struct is the wrong option for this type, and when using a class the issue doesn't occur, but I'm curious what's different between the two methods. Can anybody explain what's happening?

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