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  • Could I return a FileStream as a generic interface to a file?

    - by Eric
    I'm writing a class interface that needs to return references to binary files. Typically I would provide a reference to a file as a file path. However, I'm considering storing some of the files (such as a small thumbnail) in a database directly rather then on a file system. In this case I don't want to add the extra step of reading the thumbnail out of the database onto the disc and then returning a path to the file for my program to read. I'd want to stream the image directly out of the database into my program and avoid writing anything to the disc unless the user explicit wants to save something. Would having my interface return a FileStreamor even a Imagemake sense? Then it would be up to the implementing class to determine if the source of the FileStream or Image is a file on a disc or binary data in a database. public interface MyInterface { string Thumbnail {get;} string Attachment {get;} } vs public interface MyInterface { Image Thumbnail {get;} FileStream Attachment {get;} }

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  • Is Domain Anaemia appropriate in a Service Oriented Architecture?

    - by Stimul8d
    I want to be clear on this. When I say domain anaemia, I mean intentional domain anaemia, not accidental. In a world where most of our business logic is hidden away behind a bunch of services, is a full domain model really necessary? This is the question I've had to ask myself recently since working on a project where the "domain" model is in reality a persistence model; none of the domain objects contain any methods and this is a very intentional decision. Initially, I shuddered when I saw a library full of what are essentially type-safe data containers but after some thought it struck me that this particular system doesn't do much but basic CRUD operations, so maybe in this case this is a good choice. My problem I guess is that my experience so far has been very much focussed on a rich domain model so it threw me a little. The remainder of the domain logic is hidden away in a group of helpers, facades and factories which live in a separate assembly. I'm keen to hear what people's thoughts are on this. Obviously, the considerations for reuse of these classes are much simpler but is really that great a benefit?

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  • In Python, how to make sure database connection will always close before leaving a code block?

    - by Cawas
    I want to prevent database connection being open as much as possible, because this code will run on an intensive used server and people here already told me database connections should always be closed as soon as possible. def do_something_that_needs_database (): dbConnection = MySQLdb.connect(host=args['database_host'], user=args['database_user'], passwd=args['database_pass'], db=args['database_tabl'], cursorclass=MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) dbCursor = dbConnection.cursor() dbCursor.execute('SELECT COUNT(*) total FROM table') row = dbCursor.fetchone() if row['total'] == 0: print 'error: table have no records' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', whatever_value) return None print 'table is ok' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', another_value) # a lot more of workflow done here dbConnection.close() # even more stuff would come below I believe that leaves a database connection open when there is no row on the table, tho I'm still really not sure how it works. Anyway, maybe that is bad design in the sense that I could open and close a DB connection after each small block of execute. And sure, I could just add a close right before the return in that case... But how could I always properly close the DB without having to worry if I have that return, or a raise, or continue, or whatever in the middle? I'm thinking in something like a code block, similar to using try, like in the following suggestion, which obviously doesn't work: def do_something_that_needs_database (): dbConnection = MySQLdb.connect(host=args['database_host'], user=args['database_user'], passwd=args['database_pass'], db=args['database_tabl'], cursorclass=MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) try: dbCursor = dbConnection.cursor() dbCursor.execute('SELECT COUNT(*) total FROM table') row = dbCursor.fetchone() if row['total'] == 0: print 'error: table have no records' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', whatever_value) return None print 'table is ok' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', another_value) # again, that same lot of line codes done here except ExitingCodeBlock: closeDb(dbConnection) # still, that "even more stuff" from before would come below I don't think there is anything similar to ExitingCodeBlock for an exception, tho I know there is the try else, but I hope Python already have a similar feature... Or maybe someone can suggest me a paradigm move and tell me this is awful and highly advise me to never do that. Maybe this is just something to not worry about and let MySQLdb handle it, or is it?

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  • How to create anroid to send to work in my place?

    - by aj-sin-dhal
    Hi I would like to create a life like android/robot to send to work in my place. Requirements 1) People should not be able to tell the difference between me and the android. My first attempt may not be perfect but I can tell people that its my twin that was dropped on its head while we were growing up. 2) Should have the same weight as me so it won't crush small children if it falls over. By small children I mean those above 7 years old. Those below 7 can easily be crushed by a normal human adult so it is not important to consider that special case. 3) Should run on linux. I have a tight budget and cannot afford to pay for any propreitary operating system. Will consider writing my own operating system if this is the best way to go. I am reading "The design of the unix operating system" by Maurice J. Bach currently. That should be useful. I also have an old copy of the dragon book. What other books should I read? I would like to finish this by monday if possible. I don't like working on mondays. I have made a start and have picked some clothes and shoes for my android worker. Any help will be appreciated. This is a serious question. AJ

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  • How can I modify the value of a string defined in a struct?

    - by Eric
    Hi, I have the following code in c++: #define TAM 4000 #define NUMPAGS 512 struct pagina { bitset<12> direccion; char operacion; char permiso; string *dato; int numero; }; void crearPagina(pagina* pag[], int pos, int dir) { pagina * paginas = (pagina*)malloc(sizeof(char) * TAM); paginas -> direccion = bitset<12> (dir); paginas -> operacion = 'n'; paginas -> permiso = 'n'; string **tempDato = &paginas -> dato; char *temp = " "; **tempDato = temp; paginas -> numero = 0; pag[pos] = paginas; } I want to modify the value of the variable called "string *dato" in the struct pagina but, everytime I want to assing a new value, the compiler throws a segmentation fault. In this case I'm using a pointer to string, but I have also tried with a string. In a few words I want to do the following: pagina - dato = "test"; Any idea? Thanks in advance!!!

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  • Where to add an overloaded operator for the tr1::array?

    - by phlipsy
    Since I need to add an operator& for the std::tr1::array<bool, N> I wrote the following lines template<std::size_t N> std::tr1::array<bool, N> operator& (const std::tr1::array<bool, N>& a, const std::tr1::array<bool, N>& b) { std::tr1::array<bool, N> result; std::transform(a.begin(), a.end(), b.begin(), result.begin(), std::logical_and<bool>()); return result; } Now I don't know in which namespace I've to put this function. I considered the std namespace as a restricted area. Only total specialization and overloaded function templates are allowed to be added by the user. Putting it into the global namespace isn't "allowed" either in order to prevent pollution of the global namespace and clashes with other declarations. And finally putting this function into the namespace of the project doesn't work since the compiler won't find it there. What had I best do? I don't want to write a new array class putted into the project namespace. Because in this case the compiler would find the right namespace via argument dependent name lookup. Or is this the only possible way because writing a new operator for existing classes means extending their interfaces and this isn't allowed either for standard classes?

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  • Is there unresizable space in latex? Pictures in good looking grid.

    - by drasto
    I've created latex macro to typeset guitar chords diagrams(using picture environment). Now I want to make diagrams of different appear in good looking grid when typeset one next to each other as the picture shows: The picture. (on the picture: Labeled "First" bad layout of diagrams, labeled "Second" correct layout when equal number of diagrams in line) I'm using \hspace to make some skips between diagrams, otherwise they would be too near to each other. As you can see in second case when latex arrange pictures in so that there is same number of them in each line it works. However if there is less pictures in the last line they become "shifted" to the right. I don't want this. I guess is because latex makes the space between diagrams in first line a little longer for the line to exactly fit the page width. How do I tell latex not to resize spaces created by \hspace ? Or is there any other way ? I guess I cannot use tables because I don't know how many diagrams will fit in one line... This is current state of code: \newcommand{\spaceForChord}{1.7cm} \newcommnad{\chordChart}[1]{% %calculate dimensions xdim and ydim according to setings \begin{picture}(xdim, ydim){% %draw the diagram inside defined area }% \hspace*{\spaceForChord}% \hspace*{-\xdim}% }% %end preambule and begin document \begin{document} First:\\* \\* \chordChart{...some arguments for to change diagram look...} \chordChart{...some arguments for to change diagram look...} \chordChart{...some arguments for to change diagram look...} \chordChart{...some arguments for to change diagram look...} \chordChart{...some arguments for to change diagram look...} %...above line is repeated 12 more times to produce result shown at the picture \end{document} Thanks for any help.

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  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

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  • How to draw mutiple rectangles using c#

    - by Nivas
    I have drawn and saved the Rectangle on the image i loaded in the picture box. How i like to draw multiple rectangles for that i tried array in the rectangle but it gives error ("Object reference not set to an instance of an object." (Null reference Exception was unhandled). enter code here private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (mybitmap == null) { mybitmap = new Bitmap(sz.Width, sz.Height); } rect = new Rectangle(e.X, e.Y, 0, 0); this.Invalidate(); } private void pictureBox1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { rect = new Rectangle(rect.Left, rect.Top, e.X - rect.Left, e.Y - rect.Top); pictureBox1.Invalidate(); break; } } } } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { button1.Visible = true; button2.Visible = true; if (mybitmap == null) { return; } using (g = Graphics.FromImage(mybitmap)) { using (Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Red, 2)) { //g.Clear(Color.Transparent); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); label1.Top = rect.Top; label1.Left = rect.Left; label1.Width = rect.Width; label1.Height = rect.Height; if (label1.TextAlign == ContentAlignment.TopLeft) { e.Graphics.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); } } } } } How can i do this.....

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  • Passing C++ object to C++ code through Python?

    - by cornail
    Hi all, I have written some physics simulation code in C++ and parsing the input text files is a bottleneck of it. As one of the input parameters, the user has to specify a math function which will be evaluated many times at run-time. The C++ code has some pre-defined function classes for this (they are actually quite complex on the math side) and some limited parsing capability but I am not satisfied with this construction at all. What I need is that both the algorithm and the function evaluation remain speedy, so it is advantageous to keep them both as compiled code (and preferrably, the math functions as C++ function objects). However I thought of glueing the whole simulation together with Python: the user could specify the input parameters in a Python script, while also implementing storage, visualization of the results (matplotlib) and GUI, too, in Python. I know that most of the time, exposing C++ classes can be done, e.g. with SWIG but I still have a question concerning the parsing of the user defined math function in Python: Is it possible to somehow to construct a C++ function object in Python and pass it to the C++ algorithm? E.g. when I call f = WrappedCPPGaussianFunctionClass(sigma=0.5) WrappedCPPAlgorithm(f) in Python, it would return a pointer to a C++ object which would then be passed to a C++ routine requiring such a pointer, or something similar... (don't ask me about memory management in this case, though :S) The point is that no callback should be made to Python code in the algorithm. Later I would like to extend this example to also do some simple expression parsing on the Python side, such as sum or product of functions, and return some compound, parse-tree like C++ object but let's stay at the basics for now. Sorry for the long post and thx for the suggestions in advance.

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  • Rails: creating a model in the new action

    - by Joseph Silvashy
    I have an interesting situation, well it's probably not that unique at all, but I'm not totally sure how to tackle it. I have a model, in this case a recipe and the user navigates to the new path /recipes/new however the situation is that I need to be able to have the user upload images and make associations to that model in the new action, but the model doesn't have an ID yet. So I assume I need to rethink my controller, but I don't want to have redirects and whatnot, how can accomplish this? Here is the basic controller, barebones obviously: ... def new # I should be creating the model first, so it has an ID @recipe = Recipe.new end def create @recipe = Recipe.new(params[:recipe]) if @recipe.save redirect_to @recipe else render 'new' end end ... update Perhaps I can have a column thats like state which could have values like new/incomplete/complete or what-have-you. I'm mostly trying to figure out what would also be most efficient for the DB. It would be nice if I could still have a url that said '/new', instead of it be the edit path with the id, for usability sake, but I'm not sure this can be simply accomplished in the new action of my controller. Thoughts?

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  • Should we EVER use dp values for width/height?

    - by sandalone
    I've come across a project done by some other team which I have to fix. They used dp values for images' width/height. When I tried to adopt the layout for some tablets and/or mobiles, I've faced a lot of troubles. For example, the image of 40x40 dp has top padding of 15dp. When such image is loaded by some new mobile screen, the image is not where is was supposed to be - it's either shifted or distorted or of the wrong size. Now I need to propose a redesign of the whole app and I need some advise from the more experienced community. Should I abandon such layout policy (described abobe) and do like this: make the image with the size of 40x40 px position the image for the mdpi screen set its height/width to wrap_content do like this for other images after I finish layout for mdpi, resize each image for ldpi, hdpi and xhdpi screens in case of a special mobile/tablet, make a special set of images + xml files Is there a way when you would advise to use the explicit size of some images? Do you advise setting the size of images in xml layout or setting size via photoshop or similar graphics tools and then resize images for other screen sizes or screen densities?

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  • ASP.NET: how can I compile in DEBUG mode?

    - by Budda
    AFAIK, usual ASP.NET web site/web application switched on into DEBUG mode when web/app-config setting "compilation" has debug="false". But I don't clearly understand how it works. Let's consider example: I have <compilation debug="true" />. I've added the following line into "Page_Load" method: System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("Page_Load"); When I launched web-site in 'debug' mode (using F5 button) It put me 'Page_Load' into output window. Everything is ok so far. When I change application compilation mode into non-debug: Will it recompile everything for 'non-debug' mode? Is this enough to go into "production" environment with this change only? I guess, it should be enough for web-site that doesn't use other project. Otherwise, I would better switch whole configuration into "Release" mode. In this case EACH project will be recompiled in "Release" mode. Am I right? Could you please point me if something is wrong here? Thanks a lot!

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  • C++ and Dependency Injection in unit testing

    - by lhumongous
    Suppose I have a C++ class like so: class A { public: A() { } void SetNewB( const B& _b ) { m_B = _b; } private: B m_B; } In order to unit test something like this, I would have to break A's dependency on B. Since class A holds onto an actual object and not a pointer, I would have to refactor this code to take a pointer. Additionally, I would need to create a parent interface class for B so I can pass in my own fake of B when I test SetNewB. In this case, doesn't unit testing with dependency injection further complicate the existing code? If I make B a pointer, I'm now introducing heap allocation, and some piece of code is now responsible for cleaning it up (unless I use ref counted pointers). Additionally, if B is a rather trivial class with only a couple of member variables and functions, why introduce a whole new interface for it instead of just testing with an instance of B? I suppose you could make the argument that it would be easier to refactor A by using an interface. But are there some cases where two classes might need to be tightly coupled?

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  • Visual Studio internal project references not always working

    - by Chris
    I am using Visual Studio and a solution with 10 or so projects in (mostly VB, some C#) which have various dependencies set up. Usually when I compile the solution it works fine. Occasionally when I do it I get a build error saying that one of the projects referenced is the wrong version (I think always the same one, possibly may be two that can cause problems). In this case going to the solution explorer and right clicking on the mentioned project and saying "rebuild" followed by another full build makes it work fine. I assume there is something set up wrong somewhere but I didn't set up the solution myself initially and a quick look through doesn't show anything immediately wrong. It feels like there is some kind of race condition, that VS is internally setting the version number of the project it needs before that project has been rebuilt and thus gets it wrong or something like that but I'm sure VS should handle all this sort of thing properly. Can anybody please suggest places that I could check for whether this has been correctly set up... And I should finally note that since I don't have reliable repro of this I may not be able to respond to questions too quickly. For example the obvious one of "Could you give the exact error message" will have to wait since I didn't think to copy it this morning, it was only after I cleared it up with the above steps that I thought to post here. Similarly any solutions may take a while to confirm.

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  • Can this line of code really throw an IndexOutOfRange exception?

    - by Jonathan M
    I am getting an IndexOutOfRange exception on the following line of code: var searchLastCriteria = (SearchCriteria)Session.GetSafely(WebConstants.KeyNames.SEARCH_LAST_CRITERIA); I'll explain the above here: SearchCriteria is an Enum with only two values Session is the HttpSessionState GetSafely is an extension method that looks like this: public static object GetSafely(this HttpSessionState source, string key) { try { return source[key]; } catch (Exception exc) { log.Info(exc); return null; } } WebConstants.KeyNames.SEARCH_LAST_CRITERIA is simply a constant I've tried everything to replicate this error, but I cannot reproduce it. I am beginning to think the stack trace is wrong. I thought perhaps the exception was actually coming from the GetSafely call, but it is swallowing the exceptions, so that can't be the case, and even if it was, it should show up in the stack trace. Is there anything in the line of code above that could possible throw an IndexOutOfRange exception? I know the line will throw an NullReferenceException if GetSafely returns null, and it will also throw an InvalidCastException if it returns anything that cannot be cast to SearchCriteria, but an IndexOutOfRange exception? I'm scratching my head here. Here is the stack trace: $LOG--> 2010-06-11 07:01:33,814 [ERROR] SERVERA (14) Web.Global - Index was outside the bounds of the array. System.Web.HttpUnhandledException: Exception of type 'System.Web.HttpUnhandledException' was thrown. ---> System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at IterateSearchResult(Boolean next) in C:\Projects\Web\UserControls\AccountHeader.ascx.cs:line 242 at nextAccountLink_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Projects\Web\UserControls\AccountHeader.ascx.cs:line 232

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  • "date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC')" not the same time as "now() at time zone 'UTC'" in po

    - by sirlark
    I'm writing a web based front end to a database (PHP/Postgresql) in which I need to store various dates/times. The times are meant to be always be entered on the client side in the local time, and displayed in the local time too. For storage purposes, I store all dates/times as integers (UNIX timestamps) and normalised to UTC. One particular field has a restriction that the timestamp filled in is not allowed to be in the future, so I tried this with a database constraint... CONSTRAINT not_future CHECK (timestamp-300 <= date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC')) The -300 is to give 5 minutes leeway in case of slightly desynchronised times between browser and server. The problem is, this constraint always fails when submitting the current time. I've done testing, and found the following. In PostgreSQL client: SELECT now() -- returns correct local time SELECT date_part('epoch', now()) -- returns a unix timestamp at UTC (tested by feeding the value into the date function in PHP correcting for its compensation to my time zone) SELECT date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC') -- returns a unix timestamp at two time zone offsets west, e.g. I am at GMT+2, I get a GMT-2 timestamp. I've figured out obviously that dropping the "at time zone 'UTC'" will solve my problem, but my question is if 'epoch' is meant to return a unix timestamp which AFAIK is always meant to be in UTC, why would the 'epoch' of a time already in UTC be corrected? Is this a bug, or I am I missing something about the defined/normal behaviour here.

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  • Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

    - by ajkochanowicz
    Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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  • Interval arithmetic to correctly deal with end of month - Oracle SQL

    - by user2003974
    I need a function which will do interval arithmetic, dealing "correctly" with the different number of days in a month. For my version of "correctly" - see below! First try select to_date('31-May-2014') + interval '1' months from dual This returns an error, because there is no 31st June. I understand that this behaviour is expected due to the ANSI standard. Second try select add_months(to_date('31-May-2014'),1) from dual This correctly (in my use case) returns 30th June 2014, which is great. BUT select add_months(to_date('28-Feb-2014'),1) from dual returns 31st March 2014, when I want 28th March 2014. Background This has to do with legal deadlines. The deadlines are expressed in law as a number of months (say, 3) from a base date. If the base date is last day of the month and three months later the month is longer, then the deadline does NOT extend to the end of the longer month (as per the add_months function). However, if the base date is last day of the month and three months later the month is shorter, then the deadline expires on the last day of the shorter month. Question Is there a function that does what I need? I have intervals (year to month) stored in a table, so preferably the function would look like: add_interval_correctly(basedate DATE, intervaltoadd INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH)

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  • Is there an alias for 'this' in TypeScript?

    - by Todd
    I've attempted to write a class in TypeScript that has a method defined which acts as an event handler callback to a jQuery event. class Editor { textarea: JQuery; constructor(public id: string) { this.textarea = $(id); this.textarea.focusin(onFocusIn); } onFocusIn(e: JQueryEventObject) { var height = this.textarea.css('height'); // <-- This is not good. } } Within the onFocusIn event handler, TypeScript sees 'this' as being the 'this' of the class. However, jQuery overrides the this reference and sets it to the DOM object associated with the event. One alternative is to define a lambda within the constructor as the event handler, in which case TypeScript creates a sort of closure with a hidden _this alias. class Editor { textarea: JQuery; constructor(public id: string) { this.textarea = $(id); this.textarea.focusin((e) => { var height = this.textarea.css('height'); // <-- This is good. }); } } My question is, is there another way to access the this reference within the method-based event handler using TypeScript, to overcome this jQuery behavior?

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  • GLSL point inside box test

    - by wcochran
    Below is a GLSL fragment shader that outputs a texel if the given texture coord is inside a box, otherwise a color is output. This just feels silly and the there must be a way to do this without branching? uniform sampler2D texUnit; varying vec4 color; varying vec2 texCoord; void main() { vec4 texel = texture2D(texUnit, texCoord); if (any(lessThan(texCoord, vec2(0.0, 0.0))) || any(greaterThan(texCoord, vec2(1.0, 1.0)))) gl_FragColor = color; else gl_FragColor = texel; } Below is a version without branching, but it still feels clumsy. What is the best practice for "texture coord clamping"? uniform sampler2D texUnit; varying vec4 color; varying vec4 labelColor; varying vec2 texCoord; void main() { vec4 texel = texture2D(texUnit, texCoord); bool outside = any(lessThan(texCoord, vec2(0.0, 0.0))) || any(greaterThan(texCoord, vec2(1.0, 1.0))); gl_FragColor = mix(texel*labelColor, color, vec4(outside,outside,outside,outside)); } I am clamping texels to the region with the label is -- the texture s & t coordinates will be between 0 and 1 in this case. Otherwise, I use a brown color where the label ain't. Note that I could also construct a branching version of the code that does not perform a texture lookup when it doesn't need to. Would this be faster than a non-branching version that always performed a texture lookup? Maybe time for some tests...

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  • Performance of stored proc when updating columns selectively based on parameters?

    - by kprobst
    I'm trying to figure out if this is relatively well-performing T-SQL (this is SQL Server 2008). I need to create a stored procedure that updates a table. The proc accepts as many parameters as there are columns in the table, and with the exception of the PK column, they all default to NULL. The body of the procedure looks like this: CREATE PROCEDURE proc_repo_update @object_id bigint ,@object_name varchar(50) = NULL ,@object_type char(2) = NULL ,@object_weight int = NULL ,@owner_id int = NULL -- ...etc AS BEGIN update object_repo set object_name = ISNULL(@object_name, object_name) ,object_type = ISNULL(@object_type, object_type) ,object_weight = ISNULL(@object_weight, object_weight) ,owner_id = ISNULL(@owner_id, owner_id) -- ...etc where object_id = @object_id return @@ROWCOUNT END So basically: Update a column only if its corresponding parameter was provided, and leave the rest alone. This works well enough, but as the ISNULL call will return the value of the column if the received parameter was null, will SQL Server optimize this somehow? This might be a performance bottleneck on the application where the table might be updated heavily (insertion will be uncommon so the performance there is not a problem). So I'm trying to figure out what's the best way to do this. Is there a way to condition the column expressions with something like CASE WHEN or something? The table will be indexed up the wazoo as well for read performance. Is this the best approach? My alternative at this point is to create the UPDATE expression in code (e.g. inline SQL) and execute it against the server. This would solve my doubts about performance, but I'd rather leave this in a stored proc if possible.

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  • Pick up relevant information from a string using regular expression C#3.0

    - by Newbie
    Hi, I have a situation. I have been given some file name which can be like <filename>YYYYMMDD<fileextension> some valid file names that will satisfy the above pattern are as under xxx20100326.xls, xxx2v20100326.csv, x_20100326.xls, xy2z_abc_20100326_xyz.csv, abc.xyz.20100326.doc, ab2.v.20100326.doc, abc.v.20100326_xyz.xls In what ever be the above defined case, I need to pick up the dates only. So for all the cases, the output will be 20100326. I am trying to achieve the same but no luck. Here is what I have done so far string testdata = "x2v20100326.csv"; string strYYYY = @"\d{4}"; string strMM = @"(1[0-2]|0[1-9])"; string strDD = @"(3[0-1]|[1-2][0-9]|0[1-9])"; string regExPattern = @"\A" + strYYYY + strMM + strDD + @"\Z"; Regex regex = new Regex(regExPattern); Match match = regex.Match(testdata); if (match.Success) { string result = match.Groups[0].Value; } I am using c#3.0 and dotnet framework 3.5 Please help. It is very urgent Thanks in advance.

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  • Meteor: how to update DOM via Javascript without a page refresh?

    - by strack
    UPDATE: It looks like this script may be the catalyst I'm looking for. Will test it and answer/close this question if so. I'm sure I'll find the answer to this eventually, but I'm putting it out there now, in case someone else knows it right off... I am using RaphaelJS to manipulate the DOM (adds a bunch of SVG tags to an identified DIV), and I want to re-render those specific DOM parts, if there's an update to the MongoDB collection. As an example: -Let's say that I have a collection called PiePieces. -When the page is first rendered/ called, let's pretend that the number of pieces in the collection is 4. -I programmatically add a pie piece using console: PiePieces.insert({...}) -I want the page to update like it would for a standard handlebars binding situation, but the problem is, the new entry needs to go through the Raphael script, which performs direct DOM manipulation. So, the logic would go something like this: MongoDB collection update event - Client function call to manipulate DOM - DOM modified/ page updated without a refresh. I've tried implementing this by reading values from the DOM itself, and I can get the updated DOM, but the entire page refreshes and/or I have to manually refresh the page, OR the DOM tree isn't completed yet, and so it's blank until I refresh. Can you point me in the right direction, maybe with a small code snippet/example? (if something similar already exists, just tell me where and I'll go digging) Thanks in advance! (I am LOVING Meteor so far...)

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  • How to access frame (not iframe) contents from jQuery.

    - by kazanaki
    Hello I have 2 frames in one page like this (home.html) <frameset rows="50%, 50%"> <frame id="treeContent" src="treeContent.html" /> <frame id="treeStatus" src="treeStatus.html" /> </frameset> and then in one frame (treeStatus.html) I have something like <body style="margin: 0px"> <div id="statusText">Status bar for Tree</div> </body> I want from the top window to manipulate the div located in the child frame via jquery (e.g show and hide). I have seen several questions like this and they suggest the following $(document).ready(function(){ $('#treeStatus').contents().find("statusText").hide(); }); I do not know if this works with iframes but in my case where I have simple frames it does not seem to work. The code is placed inside home.html Here is some output from firebug console >>> $('#treeStatus') [frame#treeStatus] >>> $('#treeStatus').contents() [] >>> $('#treeStatus').children() [] So how do I access frame elements from the top frame? Am I missing something here?

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