Search Results

Search found 22900 results on 916 pages for 'pascal case'.

Page 781/916 | < Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >

• mysql query trying to search by alias involving CASES and aggregate functions UGH!

  - by dqhendricks

  I have two tables left joined. The query is grouped by the left table's ID column. The right table has a date column called close_date. The problem is, if there are any right table records that have not been closed (thus having a close_date of 0000-00-00), then I do not want any of the left table records to be shown, and if there are NO right table records with a close_date of 0000-00-00, I would like only the right table record with the MAX close date to be returned. So for simplicity sake, let's say the tables look like this: Table1 id 1 2 Table2 table1_id | close_date 1 | 0000-00-00 1 | 2010-01-01 2 | 2010-01-01 2 | 2010-01-02 I would like the query to only return this: Table1.id | Table2.close_date 2 | 2010-01-02 I tried to come up with an answer using aliased CASES and aggregate functions, but I could not search by the result, and I was attempting not to make a 3 mile long query to solve the problem. I looked through a few of the related posts on here, but none seem to meet the criteria of this particular case. Any pushes in the right direction would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• int array doesnt get char values

  - by user1780004

  I am absolutely brand new at programming and im not sure how to explain what im doing here. The whole purpose of this piece is to enter values and then print them out in the same order. Now I wanna quit from entering values when pressing 'q' and so I have to scanf for chars but when I assign them back to the int array the values are not the same. Hope that makes any sense to you but in any case heres my code: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #define SIZE 5000 define flush fflush(stdin) main() { int input[SIZE] = {0},i = 0; int counter = 0; char inputs, quit; do { system("cls"); printf("Input number ('q' to quit and display numbers entered): "); flush; scanf("%c",&inputs); flush; if (inputs == 'q') quit = 'q'; else { input[i] = inputs; counter++; i++; } } while (i < SIZE && quit != 'q'); for(i = 0; i < counter; i++){ printf("%i.%i\n", i + 1, input[i]); } system("pause"); } Ive been trying to do this on my own btw and also researched some information online regarding chars but couldnt find anything that would help me. Thanks a lot in advance.

  Read the article

• The sign of zero with float2

  - by JackOLantern

  Consider the following code performing operations on complex numbers with C/C++'s float: float real_part = log(3.f); float imag_part = 0.f; float real_part2 = (imag_part)*(imag_part)-(real_part*real_part); float imag_part2 = (imag_part)*(real_part)+(real_part*imag_part); The result will be real_part2= -1.20695 imag_part2= 0 angle= 3.14159 where angle is the phase of the complex number and, in this case, is pi. Now consider the following code: float real_part = log(3.f); float imag_part = 0.f; float real_part2 = (-imag_part)*(-imag_part)-(real_part)*(real_part); float imag_part2 = (-imag_part)*(real_part)+(real_part)*(-imag_part); The result will be real_part2= -1.20695 imag_part2= 0 angle= -3.14159 The imaginary part of the result is -0 which makes the phase of the result be -pi. Although still accomplishing with the principal argument of a complex number and with the signed property of floating point's 0, this changes is a problem when one is defining functions of complex numbers. For example, if one is defining sqrt of a complex number by the de Moivre formula, this will change the sign of the imaginary part of the result to a wrong value. How to deal with this effect?

  Read the article

• Intelligent Merge of two Arrays (3-way-kindof)

  - by simon.oberhammer

  I have to Arrays, each represents a list of Stories. Two users can concurrently modify the order, add or remove Stories, and I want those changes merged. An example should make this clearer Orignial 1,2,3,4,5 UserA (mine) 3,1,2,4,5 (moved story 3 to start) UserB (theirs) 1,2,3,5,4 (moved story 5 forward) The result of the above should be Merge (result) 3,1,2,5,4 In case of conflicts, UserA should always win. I came pretty far with this simple approach. First i deleted whatever mine says i should deleted (that part of the code is not shown, it's trivial), then I iterate of mine, inserting and moving from theirs what is needed (mstories = mine, tstories = theirs): var offset = 0; for (var idx=0;idx<mstories.length;idx++) { var storyId = mstories[idx]; // new story in theirs if (mstories.indexOf(tstories[idx]) == -1) { mstories.splice(idx+1, 0, tstories[idx]); idx--; continue; } // new story in mine? if (tstories.indexOf(storyId) == -1) { tstories.splice(idx+offset, 0, storyId); offset += 1; // story moved } else if (tstories.indexOf(storyId) != idx + offset) { tstories.splice(tstories.indexOf(storyId), 1); tstories.splice(idx+offset, 0, storyId); } } It's close, but it gets confused when too many Stories are moved to the front / back with Stories in between, which the other User touched. I have an extended version which does checks on the original and is smarter - holding 2 offsets, etc - , but I feel like this is a problem that must have a) a name b) a perfect solution and i don't want to re-invent it.

  Read the article

• Render different view depending on the type of the data

  - by Miau

  Hi there So lets suppose we have an action in a controller that looks a bit like this: public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); ... //create new view model based on the data here return View(viewModel); } What I m trying to figure out is the best way to render a diferent view based on the type fo the data. the "_someService.GetData method returns an data that knows its out type (ie not only you can do typeof(data) but also you can do data.DataType and you ll get an enum value so I could achieve what I m trying to do doing something kinda like this public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); //I m mapping fields to the viewModel here var viewModel = GetViewModel(data); swtich(data.DataType) case DataType.TypeOne: return View("TypeOne", viewModel); break; ... } But this does not seem to be the nicest way, (I dont event know if it would work) Is this the way to go? Should I use some sort of RenderPartial Aproach? after all , waht will change in the view is mostly the order of the data (ie the rest of the view would be quite similar) Cheers

  Read the article

• Getting a stream back from a .Net remoting service that is accessible with IP v4 and v6

  - by jon.ediger

  My company has an existing .Net Remoting service that listens on a port, fronting interfaces used by external systems. This all works great with IP v4 based communications. However, this service now needs to support both IP v4 communications and IP v6 communications. I have found info that the system.runtime.remoting section of the app.config should include two channels as follows: <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp6" port="9000" bindTo="[::]" /> <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp4" port="9000" bindTo="0.0.0.0" /> The above config file changes to the System.Runtime.Remoting config section will get the remoting service responding to non-stream functions on both ip v4 and ip v6. The issue comes only when attempting to get a stream back, used to upload or download large files. In this case, instead of getting a usable stream back, the following ArgumentException is thrown instead: IPv4 address 0.0.0.0 and IPv6 address ::0 are unspecified addresses that cannot be used as a target address. Parameter name: hostNameOrAddress Is there a way to modify the app.config (in the system.runtime.remoting section, or another section) so that the service will return a stream mapped to a real ip so the client can actually upload/download files while maintaining the ability to use both IP v4 and IP v6?

  Read the article

• NULL pointer comparison fails

  - by Ilya

  Hello, I'm initializing in a class a pointer to be NULL. Afterwards I check if it is NULL in the same class. But it's not always 0x0. Sometimes it's 0x8 or 0xfeffffff or 0x3f800000 or 0x80 or other strange stuff. In most case the pointer is 0x0 but sometimes it gets altered somehow. I'm sure that I'm not changing it anywhere in my code. Is there a way it gets changed by "itself"? Here's my code: MeshObject::MeshObject() { mesh.vertexColors = NULL; } MeshObject::MeshObject(const MeshObject &_copyFromMe) { SimpleLog("vertexColors pointer: %p", _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors); if (_copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors != NULL) { SimpleLog("vertexColors"); this->mesh.vertexColors = new tColor4i[_copyFromMe.mesh.vertexCount]; memcpy(this->mesh.vertexColors, _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors, _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexCount * sizeof(tColor4i) ); } } My application crashes, because vertexColors wasn't initialized and is being copied. However it is NULL and shouldn't be copied. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Multithreading: Read from / write to a pipe

  - by Tero Jokinen

  I write some data to a pipe - possibly lots of data and at random intervals. How to read the data from the pipe? Is this ok: in the main thread (current process) create two more threads (2, 3) the second thread writes sometimes to the pipe (and flush-es the pipe?) the 3rd thread has infinite loop which reads the pipe (and then sleeps for some time) Is this so far correct? Now, there are a few thing I don't understand: do I have to lock (mutex?) the pipe on write? IIRC, when writing to pipe and its buffer gets full, the write end will block until I read the already written data, right? How to check for read data in the pipe, not too often, not too rarely? So that the second thread wont block? Is there something like select for pipes? It is possible to set the pipe to unbuffered more or I have to flush it regularly - which one is better? Should I create one more thread, just for flushing the pipe after write? Because flush blocks as well, when the buffer is full, right? I just don't want the 1st and 2nd thread to block.... [Edit] Sorry, I thought the question is platform agnostic but just in case: I'm looking at this from Win32 perspective, possibly MinGW C...

  Read the article

• Consecutive absences in MySQL

  - by pepersview

  Hi, I have 2 tables in my db: students and absences. In students: id_student, s_name; and in absences: id_student, date, day(the day of the week as number-it's not so important); I would like to get the students that were absent for more than 2 days consecutive and the dates. At the moment I have the next query: /*To control when the days are in the same week*/ SELECT id_student, date, dayname(date),date_add(date, INTERVAL 1 DAY) AS a, dayname(date_add(date, INTERVAL 1 DAY)) AS an, date_add(date, INTERVAL 2 DAY) AS b, dayname(date_add(date, INTERVAL 2 DAY)) AS bn FROM absences AS a WHERE id_student IN (SELECT id_student FROM absences WHERE id_student = a.id_student AND date = date_add(a.date, INTERVAL 1 DAY) ) AND id_student IN (SELECT id_student FROM absences WHERE id_student = a.id_student AND date = date_add(a.date,INTERVAL 2 DAY) ) UNION /*To control when the days jump to the next week*/ SELECT id_student, date, dayname(date),date_add(date, INTERVAL 3 DAY) AS a, dayname(date_add(date, INTERVAL 3 DAY)) AS an, date_add(date, INTERVAL 4 DAY) AS b, dayname(date_add(date, INTERVAL 4 DAY)) AS bn FROM absences AS a WHERE id_student IN (SELECT id_student FROM absences WHERE id_student = a.id_student AND date = date_add(a.date, INTERVAL 3 DAY) ) AND id_student IN (SELECT id_student FROM absences WHERE id_student = a.id_student AND date = date_add(a.date,INTERVAL 4 DAY) ) /* To avoid the case (Monday-Thursday-Friday) to be consider as consecutive days*/ AND WEEKDAY(date) !=0 Thanks

  Read the article

• Entity Framework Decorator Pattern

  - by Anthony Compton

  In my line of business we have Products. These products can be modified by a user by adding Modifications to them. Modifications can do things such as alter the price and alter properties of the Product. This, to me, seems to fit the Decorator pattern perfectly. Now, envision a database in which Products exist in one table and Modifications exist in another table and the database is hooked up to my app through the Entity Framework. How would I go about getting the Product objects and the Modification objects to implement the same interface so that I could use them interchangeably? For instance, the kind of things I would like to be able to do: Given a Modification object, call .GetNumThings(), which would then return the number of things in the original object, plus or minus the number of things added by the modification. This question may be stemming from a pretty serious lack of exposure to the nitty-gritty of EF (all of my experience so far has been pretty straight-forward LOB Silverlight apps), and if that's the case, please feel free to tell me to RTFM. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Make conversion to a native type explicit in C++

  - by Tal Pressman

  I'm trying to write a class that implements 64-bit ints for a compiler that doesn't support long long, to be used in existing code. Basically, I should be able to have a typedef somewhere that selects whether I want to use long long or my class, and everything else should compile and work. So, I obviously need conversion constructors from int, long, etc., and the respective conversion operators (casts) to those types. This seems to cause errors with arithmetic operators. With native types, the compiler "knows" that when operator*(int, char) is called, it should promote the char to int and call operator*(int, int) (rather than casting the int to char, for example). In my case it gets confused between the various built-in operators and the ones I created. It seems to me like if I could flag the conversion operators as explicit somehow, that it would solve the issue, but as far as I can tell the explicit keyword is only for constructors (and I can't make constructors for built-in types). So is there any way of marking the casts as explicit? Or am I barking up the wrong tree here and there's another way of solving this? Or maybe I'm just doing something else wrong...

  Read the article

• Preview of code-only WPF controls in VS2010 - how?

  - by Christian

  Hi, I hope I am able to illustrate the problem using a lot of images. First of all, I was no real fan of XAML (Silverlight issues, crashes in Preview, and so on...) Now, with VS2010 the situation has become better. There are still a lot of things I like better in code, but I also want a preview in my VS. So, take a look at the following control: It is really simple, a todo details list. The first screenshot shows the code of the control, pretty straighforward: There is no XAML, so obviously no preview. Of course, I could encapsulate it in another control, like shown in the next screenshot: But, in that case I have an additional file I do not want or need. So I had the idea to move the init stuff inside the contructor of a XAML control. For simplicity, I used simple elements. But they do not show up in the preview... Finally, I know I could use the controls in other parts of my app when creating UIs. But I am using layout manager, PRISM and a lot of other stuff, so I just want an easy preview of some specific control I created (without having to have a XAML wrapper file for each control) Thanks for help, and sorry for the post structure, but I though with images it is better to understand... Chris

  Read the article

• Replace field value(s) in a String

  - by xybrek

  Using Google Guava is there String utility to easily replace string field inside like this: String query = mydb..sp_mySP ${userId}, ${groupId}, ${someOtherField} Where I can do something like this: StringUtil.setString(query) .setField("userId", "123") .setField("groupId", "456") .setField("someOtherField", "12-12-12"); Then the resulting String would be: mydb..sp_mySP 123, 456, 12-12-12 Of course, setting the String field patter like ${<field>} before the operation... Anyway, this is my approach: public class StringUtil { public class FieldModifier { private String s; public FieldModifier(String s){ this.s = s; } public FieldModifier setField(String fieldName, Object fieldValue){ String value = String.valueOf(fieldValue); s = modifyField(s, fieldName, value); return new FieldModifier(s); } private String modifyField(String s, String fieldName, String fieldValue){ String modified = ""; return modified; } } public FieldModifier parse(String s){ FieldModifier fm = new FieldModifier(s); return fm; } } So in this case, I just need to put the actual code in the modifyField function that will modify the string in a straightforward way. Also if there's a way so the parse function be static so I can just do StringUtil.parse(...) without doing new StringUtil().parse(...) which really doesn't look good.

  Read the article

• Best way to not update empty posts

  - by user1533106

  Hello, Im using codeigniter, and the page in case just update infos about an user. If the user go to the page and edit values and that posts come as "" or empty (samething) then no update it let the query pass it, i got a logic but its a bit ugly and ill take alot of time. $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; if($nome != ""){ $nome = "'nome' =>" . $this->input->post('nome') . "'"; }else{ $nome = ""; } if($sobrenome != ""){ $sobrenome = "'sobrenome' =>" . $this->input->post('sobrenome') . "'"; }else{ $sobrenome = ""; } $data = array($nome, $sobrenome); The problem is, i got alot of fields :( If anyone know a smart way or a better way, please i want know

  Read the article

• regexp to match string with (comma-separated) number at start and to split into number and rest?

  - by mix

  Given a string such as: 23,234,456 first second third How can I split string this into two parts, where part 1 contains the number at the beginning and part 2 contains the rest---but only if the string STARTS with a number, and the number can be comma-separated or not? In other words, I want two results: 23,234,456 and first second third. If there's a number in that string that isn't part of the first number then it should be in the second result. My best stab at this so far, to grab the number at the beginning, is something like this: ^[0-9]+(,[0-9]{3})* Which seems to grab a comma-separated or non-comma-separated number that starts the line. However, when I run this in the Javascript console I get not only the full number, but also a match on just the last 3 digits with their preceeding ,. (e.g. 23,234,456 and ,456). As for getting the rest into another var I'm having trouble. I tried working with \b, etc., but I think I must be missing something fundamental about grabbing the rest of the line. I'm doing this in Javascript in case it matters. More examples of what to match and what not to match. 2 one two three should return 2 and one two three 2345 one two three should return 2345 and one two three 2 one 2 three should return 2 and one 2 three 2,234 one two 3,000 should return 2,234 and one two 3,000 The space between parts 1 and two could be included in the beginning of part 2.

  Read the article

• Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

  - by StackedCrooked

  Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

  Read the article

• SQL aggregate query question

  - by Phil

  Hi, Can anyone help me with a SQL query in Apache Derby SQL to get a "simple" count. Given a table ABC that looks like this... id a b c 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 ** 5 2 1 2 ** ** 6 2 2 1 ** 7 3 1 2 8 3 1 3 9 3 1 1 How can I write a query to get a count of how may distinct values of 'a' have both (b=1 and c=2) AND (b=2 and c=1) to get the correct result of 1. (the two rows marked match the criteria and both have a value of a=2, there is only 1 distinct value of a in this table that match the criteria) The tricky bit is that (b=1 and c=2) AND (b=2 and c=1) are obviously mutually exclusive when applied to a single row. .. so how do I apply that expression across multiple rows of distinct values for a? These queries are wrong but to illustrate what I'm trying to do... "SELECT DISTINCT COUNT(a) WHERE b=1 AND c=2 AND b=2 AND c=1 ..." .. (0) no go as mutually exclusive "SELECT DISTINCT COUNT(a) WHERE b=1 AND c=2 OR b=2 AND c=1 ..." .. (3) gets me the wrong result. SELECT COUNT(a) (CASE WHEN b=1 AND c=10 THEN 1 END) FROM ABC WHERE b=2 AND c=1 .. (0) no go as mutually exclusive Cheers, Phil.

  Read the article

• Return value of a JQuery autocomplete using an array of objects as its source

  - by user2920430

  In a JQuery autocomplete which uses an array of objects as its source, can I display the label in the INPUT and later access the value? The default behavior is that the value is displayed in the INPUT after selection. In this case the values represent indexes to unique keys in rows in a table. <!doctype html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>autocomplete demo</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/themes/smoothness/jquery-ui.css"> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.9.1.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> </head> <body> <label for="autocomplete">Select a programming language: </label> <input id="autocomplete"> <script> $( "#autocomplete" ).autocomplete({ source: [ { label:"c++", value:1 }, { label: "java", value:2 }, { label: "javascript", value:3 } ] }); </script> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• Prevent empty form input array from being posted?

  - by user355295

  Sorry if this has been answered somewhere; I'm not quite sure how to phrase the problem to even look for help. Anyway, I have a form with three text input boxes, where the user will input three song titles. I have simple PHP set up to treat those input boxes as an array (because I may want, say, 100 song titles in the future) and write the song titles to another document. <form method="post"> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="submit">Submit</button> </form> <?php if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { $open = fopen("test.html", "w"); if(empty($_POST['songs'])) { } else { $songs = $_POST['songs']; foreach($songs as $song) { fwrite($open, $song."<br />"); }; }; }; ?> This correctly writes the song titles to an external file. However, even when the input boxes are empty, the external file will still be written to (just with the <br />'s). I'd assumed that the if statement would ensure nothing would happen if the boxes were blank, but that's obviously not the case. I guess the array's not really empty like I thought it was, but I'm not really sure what implications that comes with. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? (And again, I am clueless when it comes to PHP, so forgive me if this has been answered a million times before, if I described it horribly, etc.)

  Read the article

• How to call a method after asynchronous task is complete

  - by doctordoder

  I have a class called WikiWebView which is a subclass of UIWebView which loads Wikipedia subjects and is designed to fetch all the links of the webpage, in order to create a sort of site map for the subject. My problem is that I can only create the links once the web page has loaded, but the loading isn't done right after [self loadRequest:requestObj] is called. - (void)loadSubject:(NSString *)subject { // load the actual webpage NSString *wiki = @"http://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/"; NSString *fullURL = [wiki stringByAppendingString:subject]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:fullURL]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self loadRequest:requestObj]; // [self createLinks]; // need this to be called after the view has loaded } - (void)createLinks { NSString *javascript = @"var string = \"\";" "var arr = document.getElementsByClassName(\"mw-redirect\");" "for (var i = 0; i < arr.length; ++i)" "{" "var redirectLink = arr[i].href;" "string = string + redirectLink + \" \";" "}" "string;"; NSString *links = [self stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:javascript]; self.links = [links componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; } I tried the normal delegation technique, which lead to this code being added: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { self.delegate = self; // weird } return self; } #pragma mark - UIWebViewDelegate - (void)webViewDidStartLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { ++_numProcesses; } - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { --_numProcesses; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { --_numProcesses; if (_numProcesses == 0) { [self createLinks]; } } However, the delegate methods are never called.. I've seen similar questions where the answers are to use blocks, but how would I do that in this case?

  Read the article

• NSManagedObject How To Reload

  - by crissag

  I have a view that consists of a table of existing objects and an Add button, which allows the user to create a new object. When the user presses Add, the object is created in the list view controller, so that the object will be part of that managed object context (via the NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName: method). The Add view has a property for the managed object. In the list view controller, I create an Add view controller, set the property to the managed object I created, and then push the Add view on to the navigation stack. In the Add view, I have two buttons for save and cancel. In the save, I save the managed object and pass the managed object back to the list view controller via a delegate method. If the user cancels, then I delete the object and pass nil back to the list view controller. The complication I am having in the add view is related to a UIImagePickerController. In the Add view, I have a button which allows the user to take a photo of the object (or use an existing photo from the photo library). However, the process of transferring to the UIImagePickerController and having the user use the camera, is resulting in a didReceiveMemoryWarning in the add view controller. Further, the view was unloaded, which also caused my NSManagedObject to get clobbered. My question is, how to you go about reloading the NSManagedObject in the case where it was released because of the low memory situation?

  Read the article

• What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

  - by priehl

  I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Retrieving friend's likes from the Facebook Graph API

  - by Joe Frank

  Howdy- I have been tooling around with the Facebook Graph API and successfully retrieved back a list of my likes, and a list of my friends (once I authenticated using OAuth). But what I really want to achieve is pulling back my friend's likes. When I try and do that, obviously using the same URL that I use to pull back my own likes but subbing the friend's user id for "me", I don't get anything back, unless they have installed the app as well. Then I get them no problem. To be clear, I can only see the likes of friends who have installed my application. So clearly I am running into a security/rights issue of some sort. I could see where this would be the case; you simply aren't allowed to see your friend's likes unless they have installed the same app. Fair enough, but then how is blekko.com doing it? I even tried using FQL without much luck. I suspect I am missing something totally obvious. Anyone had any luck with this? Maybe with the Javascript API or one of the other access methods? Thanks in advance for any guidance.

  Read the article

• Best way to do one-to-many "JOIN" in CouchDB

  - by mit

  There are CouchDB documents that are list elements: { "type" : "el", "id" : "1", "content" : "first" } { "type" : "el", "id" : "2", "content" : "second" } { "type" : "el", "id" : "3", "content" : "third" } There is one document that defines the list: { "type" : "list", "elements" : ["2","1"] , "id" : "abc123" } As you can see the third element was deleted, it is no longer part of the list. So it must not be part of the result. Now I want a view that returns the content elements including the right order. The result could be: { "content" : ["second", "first"] } In this case the order of the elements is already as it should be. Another possible result: { "content" : [{"content" : "first", "order" : 2},{"content" : "second", "order" : 1}] } I started writing the map function: map = function (doc) { if (doc.type === 'el') { emit(doc.id, {"content" : doc.content}); //emit the id and the content exit; } if (doc.type === 'list') { for ( var i=0, l=doc.elements.length; i<l; ++i ){ emit(doc.elements[i], { "order" : i }); //emit the id and the order } } } This is as far as I can get. Can you correct my mistakes and write a reduce function? Remember that the third document must not be part of the result. Of course you can write a different map function also. But the structure of the documents (one definig element document and an entry document for each entry) cannot be changed.

  Read the article

• C Population Count of unsigned 64-bit integer with a maximum value of 15

  - by BitTwiddler1011

  I use a population count (hamming weight) function intensively in a windows c application and have to optimize it as much as possible in order to boost performance. More than half the cases where I use the function I only need to know the value to a maximum of 15. The software will run on a wide range of processors, both old and new. I already make use of the POPCNT instruction when Intel's SSE4.2 or AMD's SSE4a is present, but would like to optimize the software implementation (used as a fall back if no SSE4 is present) as much as possible. Currently I have the following software implementation of the function: inline int population_count64(unsigned __int64 w) { w -= (w 1) & 0x5555555555555555ULL; w = (w & 0x3333333333333333ULL) + ((w 2) & 0x3333333333333333ULL); w = (w + (w 4)) & 0x0f0f0f0f0f0f0f0fULL; return int(w * 0x0101010101010101ULL) 56; } So to summarize: (1) I would like to know if it is possible to optimize this for the case when I only want to know the value to a maximum of 15. (2) Is there a faster software implementation (for both Intel and AMD CPU's) than the function above?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >