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• Generate unique ID from multiple values with fault tolerance

  - by ojreadmore

  Given some values, I'd like to make a (pretty darn) unique result. $unique1 = generate(array('ab034', '981kja7261', '381jkfa0', 'vzcvqdx2993883i3ifja8', '0plnmjfys')); //now $unique1 == "sqef3452y"; I also need something that's pretty close to return the same result. In this case, 20% of the values is missing. $unique2 = generate(array('ab034', '981kja7261', '381jkfa0', 'vzcvqdx2993883i3ifja8')); //also $unique2 == "sqef3452y"; I'm not sure where to begin with such an algorithm but I have some assumptions. I assume that the more values given, the more accurate the resulting ID – in other words, using 20 values is better than 5. I also assume that a confidence factor can be calculated and adjusted. What would be nice to have is a weight factor where one can say 'value 1 is more important than value 3'. This would require a multidimensional array for input instead of one dimension. I just mashed on the keyboard for these values, but in practice they may be short or long alpha numeric values.

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• Updating a composite primary key

  - by VBCSharp

  I am struggling with the philosophical discussions about whether or not to use composite primary keys on my SQL Server database. I have always used the surrogate keys in the past and I am challenging myself by leaving my comfort zone to try something different. I have read many discussion but can't come to any kind of solution yet. The struggle I am having is when I have to update a record with the composite PK. For example, the record in questions is like this: ContactID, RoleID, EffectiveDate, TerminationDT. The PK in this case is the ContactID, RoleID, and EffectiveDate. TerminationDT can be null. If in my UI, the user changes the RoleID and then I need to update the record. Using the surrogate key I can do an Update Table Set RoleID = 1 WHERE surrogateID = Z. However, using the Composite Key way, once one of the fields in the composite key changes I have no way to reference the old record to update it without now maintaining somewhere in the UI a reference to the old values. I do not bind datasources in my UI. I open a connection, get the data and store it in a bucket, then close the connection. What are everyone's opinions? Thanks.

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• Implementations details of drag and drop of file path in cocoa.

  - by foo

  Hi, I'm trying to get a part of my window to react to drag and drop. In this case to copy the file path to the file being dropped on the view. I have looked over some documentation but I still have some problems to see exactly where I should implement my methods for drag and drop. I have seen some examples but almost all of them assumes that I want to drop an image on the view. I'm pretty new to cocoa and Xcode so, I have some problems with seeing the exact relation between interface builder and the generated code. I have created a subclass to NSView, called drop zone like this: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface dropZone : NSView { } @end I then use an NSRect to color it grey like this: #import "dropZone.h" @implementation dropZone - (void)drawRect:(NSRect)rect { NSRect bounds = [self bounds]; [[NSColor grayColor] set]; [NSBezierPath fillRect:bounds]; } @end I then drag this class to my window in interface builder. But I will need to implement the registerForDraggingTypes method, but where? I have also seen a convenience method in the Apple docs for file paths like this: dragFile:fromRect:slideBack:event: that might work.

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• Name lookup for names not dependent on template parameter in VC++2008 Express. Is it a bug?

  - by Maciej H

  While experimenting a bit with C++ templates I managed to produce this simple code, for which the output is different, than I expected according to my understanding of C++ rules. void bar(double d) { std::cout << "bar(double) function called" << std::endl; } template <typename T> void foo(T t) { bar(3); } void bar(int i) { std::cout << "bar(int) function called" << std::endl; } int main() { foo(3); return 0; } When I compile this code is VC++2008 Express function bar(int) gets called. That would be the behaviour I would expect if bar(3);in the template body was dependent on the template parameter. But it's not. The rule I found here says "The C++ standard prescribes that all names that are not dependent on template parameters are bound to their present definitions when parsing a template function or class". Am I wrong, that "present definition" of bar when parsing the template function foo is the definition of void bar(double d);? Why it's not the case if I am wrong. There are no forward declarations of bar in this compilation unit.

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• How often should network traffic/collisions cause SNMP Sets to fail?

  - by A. Levy

  My team has a situation where an SNMP SET will fail once every two weeks or so. Since this set happens automatically, we don't necessarily notice it immediately when it fails, and this can result in an inconsistent configuration and associated wailing and gnashing of teeth. The plan is to fix this by having our software automatically retry the SET when it fails. The problem is, we aren't sure why the failure is happening. My (extremely limited) knowledge of SNMP isn't particularly helpful in diagnosing this problem, so I thought I'd ask StackOverflow for some advice. We think that every so often a spike in network traffic will cause the SET to fail. Since SNMP uses UDP for communication, I would think it would be relatively easy for a command to be drowned out if traffic was high for a short period of time. However, I have no idea how common this is. We have a small network with a single cisco router and there are less than a dozen SNMP controlled devices on that network. In addition to the SNMP traffic, there are some status web pages being loaded from the various devices. In case it makes a difference, I believe we are using the AdventNet SNMP API version 4.0.4 for Java. Does it sound reasonable that there will be some SET commands dropped occasionally, or should we be looking for other causes?

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• SQL - Query range between two dates (NON-VBA)

  - by Mohgeroth

  I see various topics on this around stack overflow but none that fit the contect of MS-Access... Given a starting date and an ending date, is there a way through SQL to return records for each given month within the time frame? EG: Between #1/1/2010# and #12/31/2010# results #1/4/2010# #1/11/2010# ..... #12/27/2010# Restrictions MS-Access 2003 :No Case/Loops inside the SQL (IIF statements are good) This is a view only, NO VBA will be used since the data will not be tampered with. Disconnected recordset is my last option. I would prefer to find out theres some way to call your customized functions in the SQL to help return these values... some class stored on a global scope while you iterate through this date range maybe... Is this possible? I see many no's, but if there was a way to pass a value into a function I could find a way to make this work. Sad that I don't have a way to simulate a stored procedure without using a d/c recordset, at least that I know of... any experts out there know a way?

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• REST design: what verb and resource name to use for a filtering service

  - by kabaros

  I am developing a cleanup/filtering service that has a method that receives a list of objects serialized in xml, and apply some filtering rules to return a subset of those objects. In a REST-ful service, what verb shall I use for such a method? I thought that GET is a natural choice, but I have to put the serialized XML in the body of the request which works but feels incorrect. The other verbs don't seem to fit semantically. What is a good way to define that Service interface? Naming the resource /Cleanup or /Filter seems weird mainly because in the examples I see online, it is always a name rather than a verb being used for resource name. Am I right to feel that REST services are better suited for CRUD operations and you start bending the rules in situations like this service? If yes, am I then making a wrong architectural choice. I've pushed to develop this service in REST-ful style (as opposed to SOAP) for simplicity, but such awkward cases happen a lot and make me feel like I am missing something. Either choosing REST where it shouldn't be used or may be over-thinking some stuff that doesn't really matter? In that case, what really matters?

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• Entity Framework Decorator Pattern

  - by Anthony Compton

  In my line of business we have Products. These products can be modified by a user by adding Modifications to them. Modifications can do things such as alter the price and alter properties of the Product. This, to me, seems to fit the Decorator pattern perfectly. Now, envision a database in which Products exist in one table and Modifications exist in another table and the database is hooked up to my app through the Entity Framework. How would I go about getting the Product objects and the Modification objects to implement the same interface so that I could use them interchangeably? For instance, the kind of things I would like to be able to do: Given a Modification object, call .GetNumThings(), which would then return the number of things in the original object, plus or minus the number of things added by the modification. This question may be stemming from a pretty serious lack of exposure to the nitty-gritty of EF (all of my experience so far has been pretty straight-forward LOB Silverlight apps), and if that's the case, please feel free to tell me to RTFM. Thanks in advance!

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• How do I setup model associations in an RSpec test?

  - by Eric M.

  I've pastied the specs I've written for the posts/show.html.erb view in an application I'm writing as a means to learn RSpec. I am still learning about mocks and stubbing. This question is specific to the "should list all related comments" spec. What I want is to test that the show view displays a post's comments. But what I'm not sure about is how to setup this test and then have the test iterate through with should contain('xyz') statements. Any hints? Other suggestions are also appreciated! Thanks. ---Edit Some more information. I have a named_scope applied to comments in my view (I know, I did this a bit backwards in this case), so @post.comments.approved_is(true). The code pastied responds with the error "undefined method `approved_is' for #", which makes sense since I told it stub comments and return a comment. I'm still not sure, however, how to chain the stubs so that @post.comments.approved_is(true) will return an array of comments.

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• I have a slight confusion with setting up Mercurial on my webserver...

  - by littlejim84

  I'm starting to use Mercurial on my web server (in this case MediaTemple's Grid). I've used SVN previously, though I'm not an expert of version control systems. I'm just needing a little help with clearing up some confusion with getting it set up optimally. I have a 'data' folder which is outside the web server root and that the browser cannot access. It was recommended to me before to have my Mercurial repositories setup here, then I would clone from here locally on my computer. I would also have a 'domains' folder that is basically the web server root and inside there is my actual domains where my websites are actually served to the browser - these would need to be updated from the 'data' repositories too. But with this in mind, after setting it up, it seems inefficient... I'm cloning to my local (that makes sense), adding, committing, pushing. That's fine... But then I'm then updating in my data repository folder and then updating in my domains folder to actually update my websites. Surely, I don't actually need this 'data' folder for repositories? Wouldn't my actual live 'domains' folders be the main repositories themselves? So I'm cloning locally and updating from these? Please help me clear some confusions with all this (if you can).

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• Meteor: how to update DOM via Javascript without a page refresh?

  - by strack

  UPDATE: It looks like this script may be the catalyst I'm looking for. Will test it and answer/close this question if so. I'm sure I'll find the answer to this eventually, but I'm putting it out there now, in case someone else knows it right off... I am using RaphaelJS to manipulate the DOM (adds a bunch of SVG tags to an identified DIV), and I want to re-render those specific DOM parts, if there's an update to the MongoDB collection. As an example: -Let's say that I have a collection called PiePieces. -When the page is first rendered/ called, let's pretend that the number of pieces in the collection is 4. -I programmatically add a pie piece using console: PiePieces.insert({...}) -I want the page to update like it would for a standard handlebars binding situation, but the problem is, the new entry needs to go through the Raphael script, which performs direct DOM manipulation. So, the logic would go something like this: MongoDB collection update event - Client function call to manipulate DOM - DOM modified/ page updated without a refresh. I've tried implementing this by reading values from the DOM itself, and I can get the updated DOM, but the entire page refreshes and/or I have to manually refresh the page, OR the DOM tree isn't completed yet, and so it's blank until I refresh. Can you point me in the right direction, maybe with a small code snippet/example? (if something similar already exists, just tell me where and I'll go digging) Thanks in advance! (I am LOVING Meteor so far...)

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• Conditional WHERE Clauses in SQL Server 2008

  - by user336786

  Hello, I am trying to execute a query on a table in my SQL Server 2008 database. I have a stored procedure that uses five int parameters. Currently, my parameters are defined as follows: @memberType int, @color int, @preference int, @groupNumber int, @departmentNumber int This procedure will be passed -1 or higher for each parameter. A value of -1 means that the WHERE clause should not consider that parameter in the join/clause. If the value of the parameter is greater than -1, I need to consider the value in my WHERE clause. I would prefer to NOT use an IF-ELSE statement because it seems sloppy for this case. I saw this question here. However, it did not work for me. I think the reason why is because each of the columns in my table can have a NULL value. Someone pointed this scenario out in the fifth answer. That appears to be happening to me. Is there a slick approach to my question? Or do I just need to brute force it (I hope not :(). Thank you!

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• How to differentiate between method and function in a decorator?

  - by defnull

  I want to write a decorator that acts differently depending on whether it is applied to a function or to a method. def some_decorator(func): if the_magic_happens_here(func): # <---- Point of interest print 'Yay, found a method ^_^ (unbound jet)' else: print 'Meh, just an ordinary function :/' return func class MyClass(object): @some_decorator def method(self): pass @some_decorator def function(): pass I tried inspect.ismethod(), inspect.ismethoddescriptor() and inspect.isfunction() but no luck. The problem is that a method actually is neither a bound nor an unbound method but an ordinary function as long as it is accessed from within the class body. What I really want to do is to delay the actions of the decorator to the point the class is actually instantiated because I need the methods to be callable in their instance scope. For this, I want to mark methods with an attribute and later search for these attributes when the .__new__() method of MyClass is called. The classes for which this decorator should work are required to inherit from a class that is under my control. You can use that fact for your solution. In the case of a normal function the delay is not necessary and the decorator should take action immediately. That is why I wand to differentiate these two cases.

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• Handling nulls in Datawarehouse

  - by rrydman

  I'd like to ask your input on what the best practice is for handling null or empty data values when it pertains to data warehousing and SSIS/SSAS. I have several fact and dimension tables that contain null values in different rows. Specifics: 1) What is the best way to handle null date/times values? Should I make a 'default' row in my time or date dimensions and point SSIS to the default row when there is a null found? 2) What is the best way to handle nulls/empty values inside of dimension data. Ex: I have some rows in an 'Accounts' dimensions that have empty (not NULL) values in the Account Name column. Should I convert these empty or null values inside the column to a specific default value? 3) Similar to point 1 above - What should I do if I end up with a Facttable row that has no record in one of the dimension columns? Do I need default dimension records for each dimension in case this happens? 4) Any suggestion or tips in regards to how to handle these operation in Sql server integration services (SSIS)? Best data flow configurations or best transformation objects to use would be helpful. Thanks :-)

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• how can i make sure to get the server response correctly when i invoke the server with QNetworkReque

  - by noname

  I wrote the server site call in Qt, but i haven't get the server response for every server invoking. I have to use the server reply to continue the program flow. The request is correctly reached to server and server do reply.The server is also on my machine. Here is the code how i make the server site call; QNetworkAccessManager nam1 = new QNetworkAccessManager(this); qnetmg=nam1; QObject::connect(nam1, SIGNAL(finished(QNetworkReply*)),this,SLOT(finishedGettingMarker(QNetworkReply*))); QString strurl="http://localhost:8080/ServerWeb"; QUrl url(strurl); QNetworkRequest preq(url); QNetworkReply* reply = nam1->get(preq); qreply=reply; Inside finisedGettingMarker slot, i have already eliminate for QNetworkReply-error case and i used one global variable for QNetworkAccessManager;"qnetmg" and one global variable for QNetworkReply;"qreply". And also i make qnetmg.disconnect(this,0); and qreply.abort(); inside that slot method. But the problem is i haven't got the response for every server invoking time. If anyone who know the way to solve it , please reply me. This situation happened only in Opera. Thanks in advance.

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• How do I do a table join on two fields in my second table?

  - by Cannonade

  I have two tables: Messages - Amongst other things, has a to_id and a from_id field. People - Has a corresponding person_id I am trying to figure out how to do the following in a single linq query: Give me all messages that have been sent to and from person x (idself). I had a couple of cracks at this. Not quite right MsgPeople = (from p in db.people join m in db.messages on p.person_id equals m.from_id where (m.from_id == idself || m.to_id == idself) orderby p.name descending select p).Distinct(); This almost works, except I think it misses one case: "people who have never received a message, just sent one to me" How this works in my head So what I really need is something like: join m in db.messages on (p.people_id equals m.from_id or p.people_id equals m.to_id) Gets me a subset of the people I am after It seems you can't do that. I have tried a few other options, like doing two joins: MsgPeople = (from p in db.people join m in AllMessages on p.person_id equals m.from_id join m2 in AllMessages on p.person_id equals m2.to_id where (m2.from_id == idself || m.to_id == idself) orderby p.name descending select p).Distinct(); but this gives me a subset of the results I need, I guess something to do with the order the joins are resolved. My understanding of LINQ (and perhaps even database theory) is embarrassingly superficial and I look forward to having some light shed on my problem.

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• onActivityResult method not being called Android

  - by Chintan

  I am trying to send data from child activity to parent. But somehow, onActivityResult(..) is not getting called. here is code Parent activity selectedText.setOnTouchListener(new OnTouchListener() { public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event) { if (event.getActionMasked() == MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN) { Intent intent = new Intent(Parents.this,Child.class); startActivityForResult(intent, 1); } return true; } }); @Override protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { switch (requestCode) { case 1: if (resultCode == RESULT_OK) { if (data.hasExtra("selText")) { selectedText.setText(data.getExtras().getString( "selText")); } break; } } Child Activity: I can see selected value set in the setResult(). But after finish of child activity, it's not going back to parent activity. textListView.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> arg0, View arg1, int myItemInt, long arg3) { selectedFromList =(String) (textListView.getItemAtPosition(myItemInt)); Intent data = new Intent(); data.putExtra("selText", selectedFromList); setResult(RESULT_OK,data); finish(); } });

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• .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

  - by jdk

  Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

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• The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

  - by Jed

  I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

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• DataTables - Total rowCount - How to cut euro sign in the columns?

  - by Ivan M

  For my DataTable I'm using the fnFooterCallback function to display the total amount of the column, which is working untill the columns contain a special character, like in this case a euro valuta sign. How can I adjust this code so it will not detect the euro sign? "fnFooterCallback": function ( nRow, aaData, iStart, iEnd, aiDisplay ) { /* * Calculate the total market share for all browsers in this table (ie inc. outside * the pagination) */ var iTotal = 0; for ( var i=0 ; i<aaData.length ; i++ ) { iTotal += aaData[i][7]*1; } /* Calculate the market share for browsers on this page */ var iPage = 0; for ( var i=iStart ; i<iEnd ; i++ ) { iPage += aaData[ aiDisplay[i] ][7]*1; } /* Modify the footer row to match what we want */ var nCells = nRow.getElementsByTagName('th'); nCells[1].innerHTML = parseInt(iPage); } Thank you in advance. EDIT With not detecting I mean to str_replace or something like that. Not familiar with javascript language..

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• Multithreading: Read from / write to a pipe

  - by Tero Jokinen

  I write some data to a pipe - possibly lots of data and at random intervals. How to read the data from the pipe? Is this ok: in the main thread (current process) create two more threads (2, 3) the second thread writes sometimes to the pipe (and flush-es the pipe?) the 3rd thread has infinite loop which reads the pipe (and then sleeps for some time) Is this so far correct? Now, there are a few thing I don't understand: do I have to lock (mutex?) the pipe on write? IIRC, when writing to pipe and its buffer gets full, the write end will block until I read the already written data, right? How to check for read data in the pipe, not too often, not too rarely? So that the second thread wont block? Is there something like select for pipes? It is possible to set the pipe to unbuffered more or I have to flush it regularly - which one is better? Should I create one more thread, just for flushing the pipe after write? Because flush blocks as well, when the buffer is full, right? I just don't want the 1st and 2nd thread to block.... [Edit] Sorry, I thought the question is platform agnostic but just in case: I'm looking at this from Win32 perspective, possibly MinGW C...

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• NULL pointer comparison fails

  - by Ilya

  Hello, I'm initializing in a class a pointer to be NULL. Afterwards I check if it is NULL in the same class. But it's not always 0x0. Sometimes it's 0x8 or 0xfeffffff or 0x3f800000 or 0x80 or other strange stuff. In most case the pointer is 0x0 but sometimes it gets altered somehow. I'm sure that I'm not changing it anywhere in my code. Is there a way it gets changed by "itself"? Here's my code: MeshObject::MeshObject() { mesh.vertexColors = NULL; } MeshObject::MeshObject(const MeshObject &_copyFromMe) { SimpleLog("vertexColors pointer: %p", _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors); if (_copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors != NULL) { SimpleLog("vertexColors"); this->mesh.vertexColors = new tColor4i[_copyFromMe.mesh.vertexCount]; memcpy(this->mesh.vertexColors, _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexColors, _copyFromMe.mesh.vertexCount * sizeof(tColor4i) ); } } My application crashes, because vertexColors wasn't initialized and is being copied. However it is NULL and shouldn't be copied. Thanks.

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• global variables doesn't change value in Javascript

  - by user1856906

  My project is composed by 2 html pages: 1)index.html, wich contains the login and the registration form. 2)user_logged.html, wich contains all the features of a logged user. Now, what I want to do is a control if the user is really logged, to avoid the case where a user paste a url in the browser and can see the pages of another user. hours as now, if a user paste this url in the browser: www.user_loggato.html?user=x#profile is as if logged in as user x and this is not nice. My html pages both use js files that contains scripts. I decided to create a global variable called logged inizialized to false and change the variable to true when the login is succesfull. The problem is that the variable, remains false. here is the code: var logged=false; (write in the file a.js) while in the file b.js I have: function login() { //if succesfull logged=true; window.location.href = "user_loggato.html?user="+ JSON.parse(str).username + #profilo"; Now with some alerts I found that my variable logged is always false. Why? if I have not explained well or if there is not some information in order to respond to my question let me know.

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• Granting administrator privileges to an application launched at startup without UAC prompt?

  - by iKenndac

  Background I've written a small C#/.NET 4.0 application that syncs various settings from a game installed in Program Files to and from other copies of the same game on different machines (think Chrome bookmark sync, but for this game). The sync itself is a relatively simple affair, dealing with files stored inside the game's Program Files folder. On my machine, this works fine without having to elevate my application through UAC. Windows 7 makes the game use Program Files virtualisation and my application works fine with that. However, on a lot of tester's machines, I'm getting reports that the application either can't work with the files and in come cases can't even see the game's folder! Having the user right-click and "Run as Administrator" solves the problem in every case. So, we just set the application's manifest to require admin privileges, right? That's fine (although not ideal) for when the user manually invokes the application or the sync process because they'll be interacting with the application and ready to accept a UAC request. However, one of the features of my application is a "Sync Automatically" option, which allows the user to "set and forget" the application. With this set, the application puts itself into the registry at HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run to be run at startup and sits in the system tray syncing the settings in the background as needed. Obviously, I need to be smarter here. Presenting a UAC prompt as soon as the user logs in to their account or at random intervals afterwards isn't the way forwards. So, my question! What's the best way to approach a situation where I'd need to run an application at startup that needs administrator privileges? Is there a way to have the user authorise an installation that causes the system to automatically run the application with the correct privileges without a prompt at startup/login?

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• Confused about std::runtime_error vs. std::logic_error

  - by David Gladfelter

  I recently saw that the boost program_options library throws a logic_error if the command-line input was un-parsable. That challenged my assumptions about logic_error vs. runtime_error. I assumed that logic errors (logic_error and its derived classes) were problems that resulted from internal failures to adhere to program invariants, often in the form of illegal arguments to internal API's. In that sense they are largely equivalent to ASSERT's, but meant to be used in released code (unlike ASSERT's which are not usually compiled into released code.) They are useful in situations where it is infeasible to integrate separate software components in debug/test builds or the consequences of a failure are such that it is important to give runtime feedback about the invalid invariant condition to the user. Similarly, I thought that runtime_errors resulted exclusively from runtime conditions outside of the control of the programmer: I/O errors, invalid user input, etc. However, program_options is obviously heavily (primarily?) used as a means of parsing end-user input, so under my mental model it certainly should throw a runtime_error in the case of bad input. Where am I going wrong? Do you agree with the boost model of exception typing?

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