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• What are the weaknesses of this user authentication method?

  - by byronh

  I'm developing my own PHP framework. It seems all the security articles I have read use vastly different methods for user authentication than I do so I could use some help in finding security holes. Some information that might be useful before I start. I use mod_rewrite for my MVC url's. Passwords are sha1 and md5 encrypted with 24 character salt unique to each user. mysql_real_escape_string and/or variable typecasting on everything going in, and htmlspecialchars on everything coming out. Step-by step process: Top of every page: session_start(); session_regenerate_id(); If user logs in via login form, generate new random token to put in user's MySQL row. Hash is generated based on user's salt (from when they first registered) and the new token. Store the hash and plaintext username in session variables, and duplicate in cookies if 'Remember me' is checked. On every page, check for cookies. If cookies set, copy their values into session variables. Then compare $_SESSION['name'] and $_SESSION['hash'] against MySQL database. Destroy all cookies and session variables if they don't match so they have to log in again. If login is valid, some of the user's information from the MySQL database is stored in an array for easy access. So far, I've assumed that this array is clean so when limiting user access I refer to user.rank and deny access if it's below what's required for that page. I've tried to test all the common attacks like XSS and CSRF, but maybe I'm just not good enough at hacking my own site! My system seems way too simple for it to actually be secure (the security code is only 100 lines long). What am I missing? I've also spent alot of time searching for the vulnerabilities with mysql_real_escape string but I haven't found any information that is up-to-date (everything is from several years ago at least and has apparently been fixed). All I know is that the problem was something to do with encoding. If that problem still exists today, how can I avoid it? Any help will be much appreciated.

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• Copying metadata over a database link in Oracle 10g

  - by Tunde

  Thanks in advance for your help experts. I want to be able to copy over database objects from database A into database B with a procedure created on database B. I created a database link between the two and have tweaked the get_ddl function of the dbms_metadata to look like this: create or replace function GetDDL ( p_name in MetaDataPkg.t_string p_type in MetaDataPkg.t_string ) return MetaDataPkg.t_longstring is -- clob v_clob clob; -- array of long strings c_SYSPrefix constant char(4) := 'SYS_'; c_doublequote constant char(1) := '"'; v_longstrings metadatapkg.t_arraylongstring; v_schema metadatapkg.t_string; v_fullength pls_integer := 0; v_offset pls_integer := 0; v_length pls_integer := 0; begin SELECT DISTINCT OWNER INTO v_schema FROM all_objects@ENTORA where object_name = upper(p_name); -- get DDL v_clob := dbms_metadata.get_ddl(p_type, upper(p_name), upper(v_schema)); -- get CLOB length v_fullength := dbms_lob.GetLength(v_clob); for nIndex in 1..ceil(v_fullength / 32767) loop v_offset := v_length + 1; v_length := least(v_fullength - (nIndex - 1) * 32767, 32767); dbms_lob.read(v_clob, v_length, v_offset, v_longstrings(nIndex)); -- Remove table’s owner from DDL string: v_longstrings(nIndex) := replace( v_longstrings(nIndex), c_doublequote || user || c_doublequote || '.', '' ); -- Remove the following from DDL string: -- 1) "new line" characters (chr(10)) -- 2) leading and trailing spaces v_longstrings(nIndex) := ltrim(rtrim(replace(v_longstrings(nIndex), chr(10), ''))); end loop; -- close CLOB if (dbms_lob.isOpen(v_clob) > 0) then dbms_lob.close(v_clob); end if; return v_longstrings(1); end GetDDL; so as to remove the schema prefix that usually comes with metadata. I get a null value whenever I run this function over the database link with the following queries. select getddl( 'TABLE', 'TABLE1') from user_tables@ENTORA where table_name = 'TABLE1'; select getddl( 'TABLE', 'TABLE1') from dual@ENTORA; t_string is varchar2(30) t_longstring is varchar2(32767) and type t_ArrayLongString is table of t_longstring I would really appreciate it if any one could help. Many thanks.

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• How to learn proper C++?

  - by Chris

  While reading a long series of really, really interesting threads, I've come to a realization: I don't think I really know C++. I know C, I know classes, I know inheritance, I know templates (& the STL) and I know exceptions. Not C++. To clarify, I've been writing "C++" for more than 5 years now. I know C, and I know that C and C++ share a common subset. What I've begun to realize, though, is that more times than not, I wind up treating C++ something vaguely like "C with classes," although I do practice RAII. I've never used Boost, and have only read up on TR1 and C++0x - I haven't used any of these features in practice. I don't use namespaces. I see a list of #defines, and I think - "Gracious, that's horrible! Very un-C++-like," only to go and mindlessly write class wrappers for the sake of it, and I wind up with large numbers (maybe a few per class) of static methods, and for some reason, that just doesn't seem right lately. The professional in me yells "just get the job done," the academic yells "you should write proper C++ when writing C++" and I feel like the point of balance is somewhere in between. I'd like to note that I don't want to program "pure" C++ just for the sake of it. I know several languages. I have a good feel for what "Pythonic" is. I know what clean and clear PHP is. Good C code I can read and write better than English. The issue is that I learned C by example, and picked up C++ as a "series of modifications" to C. And a lot of my early C++ work was creating class wrappers for C libraries. I feel like my own personal C-heavy background while learning C++ has sort of... clouded my acceptance of C++ in it's own right, as it's own language. Do the weathered C++ lags here have any advice for me? Good examples of clean, sharp C++ to learn from? What habits of C does my inner-C++ really need to break from? My goal here is not to go forth and trumpet "good" C++ paradigm from rooftops for the sake of it. C and C++ are two different languages, and I want to start treating them that way. How? Where to start? Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

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• Soften a colour border, maybe with a gradient, programmatically.

  - by ProfK

  I have a narrow header in corporate colour, bright red, with the content below on a just-off-white background. Ive tried softening the long line where these colours meet using border type divs with intermediate backgrounds, but I think I need the original type curved gradient 'area transitions'. I could copy the 1024px wide, and too narrow (vertically), header gif from their web site, and chop it up for eight border images, but that seems clumsy, and I'm looking for something I can apply anywhere, without needing images. I am able to do round borders in the x-y plane, but I'm curious as to how I can apply a gradient to any chosen colour transition. The extra divs I'm using as border elements above and below '#top-section' arose when I was toying with making many divs for one bordered element. This seemed the ultimate in border manipulation, sans code, but very tedious to spec in CSS and lay out a new border for each bordered element. <div id="topsection"> <div style="float: right; width: 300px; padding-right: 5px;"> <div style="font-size: small; text-align: right;"> Provantage Media Management System</div> <div style="font-size: x-small; text-align: right;"> <asp:LoginStatus ID="loginStatus" runat="server" LoginText="Log in" LogoutText="Log out" /> </div> </div> <span style="padding-left: 15px;">Main Menu</span><span id="content-title"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="titlePlaceHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </span> <div style="background-color: white; height: 2px;"> </div> <div style="background-color: white; height: 3px;"></div> And the CSS: #topsection { background-color: #EB2728; color: white; height: 35px; font-size: large; font-weight: bold; }

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• Which style is preferable when writing this boolean expression?

  - by Jeppe Stig Nielsen

  I know this question is to some degree a matter of taste. I admit this is not something I don't understand, it's just something I want to hear others' opinion about. I need to write a method that takes two arguments, a boolean and a string. The boolean is in a sense (which will be obvious shortly) redundant, but it is part of a specification that the method must take in both arguments, and must raise an exception with a specific message text if the boolean has the "wrong" value. The bool must be true if and only if the string is not null or empty. So here are some different styles to write (hopefully!) the same thing. Which one do you find is the most readable, and compliant with good coding practice? // option A: Use two if, repeat throw statement and duplication of message string public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (useName && string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); if (!useName && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } // option B: Long expression but using only && and || public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (useName && string.IsNullOrEmpty(name) || !useName && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } // option C: With == operator between booleans public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (useName == string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } // option D1: With XOR operator public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (!(useName ^ string.IsNullOrEmpty(name))) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } // option D2: With XOR operator public void SomeMethod(bool useName, string name) { if (useName ^ !string.IsNullOrEmpty(name)) throw new SomeException("..."); // rest of method } Of course you're welcome to suggest other possibilities too. Message text "..." would be something like "If 'useName' is true a name must be given, and if 'useName' is false no name is allowed".

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• Hibernate updating records and implementing listeners : getting only required attribute values for event.getOldState()

  - by Narendra

  Hi All, I am using Hibernate 3 as my persistence framework. Below is the sample hbm file I am using. <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.test.User" table="user"> <meta attribute="implements">com.test.dao.interfaces.IEntity</meta> <id name="key" type="long" column="user_key"> <generator class="increment" /> </id> <property name="userName" column="user_name" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="password" column="password" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="firstName" column="first_name" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="lastName" column="last_name" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="createdDate" column="created_date" not-null="true" type="timestamp" insert="false" update="false" /> <property name="createdBy" column="created_by" not-null="true" type="string" update="false" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I am added a post-update listener. What it will do is if there any updations perfomed on User then it will be invoked and cahnges will be inserted to audit table. Below is the sample implementation for postupdate event. public void onPostUpdate(PostUpdateEvent event) { LogHelper.info(logger, "Begin - onPostUpdate " + event.getEntity().getClass().getSimpleName()); if (!this.checkForAudit(event.getEntity().getClass().getSimpleName())) { // check do we need to audit it. } // Get Attribute Names String[] attrNames = event.getPersister().getEntityMetamodel() .getPropertyNames(); Object[] oldobjectValue = c Object[] newObjectValue = event.getState(); this.auditDetailsEvent(attrNames, oldobjectValue, newObjectValue); LogHelper.info(logger, "End - onPostUpdate"); // return false; } Here is my requirement. event.getPersister().getEntityMetamodel() .getPropertyNames(); or event.getOldState(); or event.getState(); must return attribute names or value which i can update or insert. Is there any way to control the return values of above one's. Pleas help me on this regard. Thanks, Narendra

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• Javascript regex returning true.. then false.. then true.. etc

  - by betamax

  I have a strange problem with the validation I am writing on a form. It is a 'Check Username' button next to an input. The input default value is the username for example 'betamax'. When I press 'Check Username' it passes the regex and sends the username to the server. The server behaves as expected and returns '2' to tell the javascript that they are submitting their own username. Then, when I click the button again, the regex fails. Nothing is sent to the server obviously because the regex has failed. If I press the button again, the regex passes and then the username is sent to the server. I literally cannot figure out what would be making it do this! It makes no sense to me! This is my code: $j("#username-search").click(checkUserName); function checkUserName() { var userName = $j("#username").val(); var invalidUserMsg = 'Invalid username (a-zA-Z0-9 _ - and not - or _ at beginning or end of string)'; var filter = /^[^-_]([a-z0-9-_]{4,20})[^-_]$/gi; if (filter.test(userName)) { console.log("Pass") $j.post( "/account/profile/username_check/", { q: userName }, function(data){ if(data == 0) { $j("#username-search-results").html("Error searching for username. Try again?"); } else if(data == 5) { $j("#username-search-results").html(invalidUserMsg); } else if(data == 4) { $j("#username-search-results").html("Username too short or too long."); } else if(data == 2) { $j("#username-search-results").html("This is already your username."); } else if(data == 3) { $j("#username-search-results").html("This username is taken."); } else if(data == 1){ $j("#username-search-results").html("This username is available!"); } }); } else { console.log("fail") $j("#username-search-results").html(invalidUserMsg); } return false; } The HTML: <input name="username" id="username" value="{{ user.username }}" /> <input type="button" value="Is it taken?" id="username-search"> <span id="username-search-results"></span>

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• JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

  - by timaschew

  I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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• Using mcrypt to pass data across a webservice is failing

  - by adam

  Hi I'm writing an error handler script which encrypts the error data (file, line, error, message etc) and passes the serialized array as a POST variable (using curl) to a script which then logs the error in a central db. I've tested my encrypt/decrypt functions in a single file and the data is encrypted and decrypted fine: define('KEY', 'abc'); define('CYPHER', 'blowfish'); define('MODE', 'cfb'); function encrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $iv = mcrypt_create_iv(mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td), MCRYPT_RAND); mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $crypttext = mcrypt_generic($td, $data); mcrypt_generic_deinit($td); return $iv.$crypttext; } function decrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $ivsize = mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td); $iv = substr($data, 0, $ivsize); $data = substr($data, $ivsize); if ($iv) { mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $data = mdecrypt_generic($td, $data); } return $data; } echo "<pre>"; $data = md5(''); echo "Data: $data\n"; $e = encrypt($data); echo "Encrypted: $e\n"; $d = decrypt($e); echo "Decrypted: $d\n"; Output: Data: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e Encrypted: ê÷#¯KžViiÖŠŒÆÜ,ÑFÕUW£´Œt?†÷>c×åóéè+„N Decrypted: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e The problem is, when I put the encrypt function in my transmit file (tx.php) and the decrypt in my recieve file (rx.php), the data is not fully decrypted (both files have the same set of constants for key, cypher and mode). Data before passing: a:4:{s:3:"err";i:1024;s:3:"msg";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";s:46:"/Applications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Data decrypted: Mª4:{s:3:"err";i:1024@7OYªç`^;g";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";sôÔ8F•Ópplications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Note the random characters in the middle. My curl is fairly simple: $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, 'data=' . $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); $output = curl_exec($ch); Things I suspect could be causing this: Encoding of the curl request Something to do with mcrypt padding missing bytes I've been staring at it too long and have missed something really really obvious If I turn off the crypt functions (so the transfer tx-rx is unencrypted) the data is received fine. Any and all help much appreciated! Thanks, Adam

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• Mock Object and Interface

  - by tunl

  I'm a newbie in Unit Test with Mock Object. I use EasyMock. I try to understand this example: import java.io.IOException; public interface ExchangeRate { double getRate(String inputCurrency, String outputCurrency) throws IOException; } import java.io.IOException; public class Currency { private String units; private long amount; private int cents; public Currency(double amount, String code) { this.units = code; setAmount(amount); } private void setAmount(double amount) { this.amount = new Double(amount).longValue(); this.cents = (int) ((amount * 100.0) % 100); } public Currency toEuros(ExchangeRate converter) { if ("EUR".equals(units)) return this; else { double input = amount + cents/100.0; double rate; try { rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); double output = input * rate; return new Currency(output, "EUR"); } catch (IOException ex) { return null; } } } public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Currency) { Currency other = (Currency) o; return this.units.equals(other.units) && this.amount == other.amount && this.cents == other.cents; } return false; } public String toString() { return amount + "." + Math.abs(cents) + " " + units; } } import junit.framework.TestCase; import org.easymock.EasyMock; import java.io.IOException; public class CurrencyTest extends TestCase { public void testToEuros() throws IOException { Currency testObject = new Currency(2.50, "USD"); Currency expected = new Currency(3.75, "EUR"); ExchangeRate mock = EasyMock.createMock(ExchangeRate.class); EasyMock.expect(mock.getRate("USD", "EUR")).andReturn(1.5); EasyMock.replay(mock); Currency actual = testObject.toEuros(mock); assertEquals(expected, actual); } } So, i wonder how to Currency use ExchangeRate in toEuros(..) method. rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); The behavior of getRate(..) method is not specified because ExchangeRate is an interface.

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• Deserialization error in a new environment

  - by cerhart

  I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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• Howto access thread data outside a thread

  - by Quandary

  Question: I start the MS Text-to-speech engine in a thread, in order to avoid a crash on DLL_attach. It starts fine, and the text to speech engine gets initialized, but I can't access ISpVoice outside the thread. How can I access ISpVoice outside the thread ? It's a global variable after all... #include <windows.h> #include <sapi.h> #include "XPThreads.h" ISpVoice * pVoice = NULL; unsigned long init_engine_thread(void* param) { Sleep(5000); printf("lolthread\n"); //HRESULT hr = CoInitializeEx(NULL, COINIT_MULTITHREADED); HRESULT hr = CoInitialize(NULL); if(FAILED(hr) ) { MessageBox(NULL, TEXT("Failed To Initialize"), TEXT("Error"), 0); char buffer[2000] ; sprintf(buffer, "An error occured: 0x%08X.\n", hr); FILE * pFile = fopen ( "c:\\temp\\CoInitialize_dll.txt" , "w" ); fwrite (buffer , 1 , strlen(buffer) , pFile ); fclose (pFile); } else { printf("trying to create instance.\n"); //HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SpVoice, NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); //hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SpVoice, NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); //HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(__uuidof(ISpVoice), NULL, CLSCTX_INPROC_SERVER, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(__uuidof(SpVoice), NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); if( SUCCEEDED( hr ) ) { printf("Succeeded\n"); hr = pVoice->Speak(L"The text to speech engine has been successfully initialized.", 0, NULL); } else { printf("failed\n"); MessageBox(NULL, TEXT("Failed To Create COM instance"), TEXT("Error"), 0); char buffer[2000] ; sprintf(buffer, "An error occured: 0x%08X.\n", hr); FILE * pFile = fopen ( "c:\\temp\\CoCreateInstance_dll.txt" , "w" ); fwrite (buffer , 1 , strlen(buffer) , pFile ); fclose (pFile); } } if(pVoice != NULL) { pVoice->Release(); pVoice = NULL; } CoUninitialize(); return NULL; } XPThreads* ptrThread = new XPThreads(init_engine_thread); BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: //init_engine(); LoadLibrary(TEXT("ole32.dll")); ptrThread->Run(); break; case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: break; case DLL_THREAD_DETACH: break; case DLL_PROCESS_DETACH: break; } return TRUE; }

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• How to Work Around Limitations in Generic Type Constraints in C#?

  - by Jose

  Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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• Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

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• Restore previously serialized JFrame-object, how?

  - by elementz

  Hi all. I have managed to serialize my very basic GUI-object containing a JTextArea and a few buttons to a file 'test.ser'. Now, I would like to completely restore the previously saved state from 'test.ser', but seem to have a misconception of how to properly deserialize an objects state. The class MyFrame creates the JFrame and serializes it. public class MyFrame extends JFrame implements ActionListener { // Fields JTextArea textArea; String title; static MyFrame gui = new MyFrame(); private static final long serialVersionUID = 1125762532137824262L; /** * @param args */ public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub gui.run(); } // parameterless default contructor public MyFrame() { } // constructor with title public MyFrame(String title) { } // creates Frame and its Layout public void run() { JFrame frame = new JFrame(title); JPanel panel_01 = new JPanel(); JPanel panel_02 = new JPanel(); JTextArea textArea = new JTextArea(20, 22); textArea.setLineWrap(true); JScrollPane scrollPane = new JScrollPane(textArea); scrollPane.setVerticalScrollBarPolicy(ScrollPaneConstants.VERTICAL_SCROLLBAR_AS_NEEDED); panel_01.add(scrollPane); // Buttons JButton saveButton = new JButton("Save"); saveButton.addActionListener(this); JButton loadButton = new JButton("Load"); loadButton.addActionListener(this); panel_02.add(loadButton); panel_02.add(saveButton); // Layout frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.getContentPane().add(BorderLayout.CENTER, panel_01); frame.getContentPane().add(BorderLayout.SOUTH, panel_02); frame.setSize(300, 400); frame.setVisible(true); } /* * */ public void serialize() { try { ObjectOutputStream oos = new ObjectOutputStream(new FileOutputStream("test.ser")); oos.writeObject(gui); oos.close(); } catch (Exception e) { // TODO: handle exception e.printStackTrace(); } } public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent ev) { System.out.println("Action received!"); gui.serialize(); } } Here I try to do the deserialization: public class Deserialize { static Deserialize ds; static MyFrame frame; public static void main(String[] args) { try { ObjectInputStream ois = new ObjectInputStream(new FileInputStream("test.ser")); frame = (MyFrame) ois.readObject(); ois.close(); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } Maybe somebody could point me into the direction where my misconception is? Thx in advance!

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• iPhone Image Resources, ICO vs PNG, app bundle filesize

  - by Jasarien

  My application has a collection of around 1940 icons that are used throughout. They're currently in ICO and new images provided to me come in ICO format too. I have noticed that they contain a 16x16 and 32x32 representation of each icon in one file. Each file is roughly 4KB in filesize (as reported by finder, but ls reports that they vary from being ~1000 bytes to 5000 bytes) A very small number of these icons only contain the 32x32 representation, and as a result are only around 700 bytes in size. Currently I am bundling these icons with my application and they are inflating the size of the app a bit more than I would like. Altogether, the images total just about 25.5MB. Xcode must do some kind of compression because the resulting app bundle is about 12.4MB. Compressing this further into a ZIP (as it would be when submitted to the App Store), results in a final file of 5.8MB. I'm aware that the maximum limit for over the air App Store downloads has been raised to 20MB since the introduction of the iPad (I'm not sure if that extends to iPhone apps as well as iPad apps though, if not the limit would be 10MB). My worry is that new icons are going to be added (sometimes up to 10 icons per week), and will continue to inflate the app bundle over time. What is the best way to distribute these icons with my app? Things I've tried and not had much success with: Converting the icons from ICO to PNG: I tried this in the hopes that the pngcrush utility would help out with the filesize. But it appears that it doesn't make much of a difference between a normal PNG and a crushed png (I believe it just optimises the image for display on the iPhone's GPU rather than compress it's size). Also in going from ICO to PNG actually increased the size of the icon file... Zipping the images, and then uncompressing them on first run. While this did reduce the overall image sizes, I found that the effort needed to unzip them, copy them to the documents folder and ensure that duplication doesn't happen on upgrades was too much hassle to be worth the benefit. Also, on original and 3G iPhones unzipping and copying around 25MB of images takes too long and creates a bad experience... Things I've considered but not yet tried: Instead of distributing the icons within the app bundle, host them online, and download each icon on demand (it depends on the user's data as to which icons will actually be displayed and when). Issues with this is that bandwidth costs money, and image downloads will be bandwidth intensive. However, my app currently has a small userbase of around 5,500 users (of which I estimate around 1500 to be active based on Flurry stats), and I have a huge unused bandwidth allowance with my current hosting package. So I'm open to thoughts on how to solve this tricky issue.

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• Is there a recommended approach to handle saving data in response to within-site navigation without

  - by Carvell Fenton

  Hello all, Preamble to scope my question: I have a web app (or site, this is an internal LAN site) that uses jQuery and AJAX extensively to dynamically load the content section of the UI in the browser. A user navigates the app using a navigation menu. Clicking an item in the navigation menu makes an AJAX call to php, and php then returns the content that is used to populate the central content section. One of the pages served back by php has a table form, set up like a spreadsheet, that the user enters values into. This table is always kept in sync with data in the database. So, when the table is created, is it populated with the relevant database data. Then when the user makes a change in a "cell", that change immediately is written back to the database so the table and database are always in sync. This approach was take to reassure users that the data they entered has been saved (long story...), and to alleviate them from having to click a save button of some kind. So, this always in sync idea is great, except that a user can enter a value in a cell, not take focus out of the cell, and then take any number of actions that would cause that last value to be lost: e.g. navigate to another section of the site via the navigation menu, log out of the app, close the browser, etc. End of preamble, on to the issue: I initially thought that wasn't a problem, because I would just track what data was "dirty" or not saved, and then in the onunload event I would do a final write to the database. Herein lies the rub: because of my clever (or not so clever, not sure) use of AJAX and dynamically loading the content section, the user never actually leaves the original url, or page, when the above actions are taken, with the exception of closing the browser. Therefore, the onunload event does not fire, and I am back to losing the last data again. My question, is there a recommended way to handle figuring out if a person is navigating away from a "section" of your app when content is dynamically loaded this way? I can come up with a solution I think, that involves globals and tracking the currently viewed page, but I thought I would check if there might be a more elegant solution out there, or a change I could make in my design, that would make this work. Thanks in advance as always!

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• Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

  - by Tim

  I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

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• Optimizing Vector elements swaps using CUDA

  - by Orion Nebula

  Hi all, Since I am new to cuda .. I need your kind help I have this long vector, for each group of 24 elements, I need to do the following: for the first 12 elements, the even numbered elements are multiplied by -1, for the second 12 elements, the odd numbered elements are multiplied by -1 then the following swap takes place: Graph: because I don't yet have enough points, I couldn't post the image so here it is: http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?e4b88fb666.png I have written this piece of code, and wonder if you could help me further optimize it to solve for divergence or bank conflicts .. //subvector is a multiple of 24, Mds and Nds are shared memory _shared_ double Mds[subVector]; _shared_ double Nds[subVector]; int tx = threadIdx.x; int tx_mod = tx ^ 0x0001; int basex = __umul24(blockDim.x, blockIdx.x); Mds[tx] = M.elements[basex + tx]; __syncthreads(); // flip the signs if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 12) { //if < 12 and even if ((tx & 0x0001)==0) Mds[tx] = -Mds[tx]; } else if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 24) { //if >12 and < 24 and odd if ((tx & 0x0001)==1) Mds[tx] = -Mds[tx]; } __syncthreads(); if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 6) { //for the first 6 elements .. swap with last six in the 24elements group (see graph) Nds[tx] = Mds[tx_mod + 18]; Mds [tx_mod + 18] = Mds [tx]; Mds[tx] = Nds[tx]; } else if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 12) { // for the second 6 elements .. swp with next adjacent group (see graph) Nds[tx] = Mds[tx_mod + 6]; Mds [tx_mod + 6] = Mds [tx]; Mds[tx] = Nds[tx]; } __syncthreads(); Thanks in advance ..

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• Modular GWT design concerns

  - by GlGuru

  Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

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• Can't access font resource in Silverlight class library

  - by Matt

  I have a reasonably large Silveright 3.0 project on the go, and I'm having issues accessing a couple of custom font resources from within one of the assemblies. I've got a working test solution where I have added a custom font as a resource, and can access it fine from XAML using: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> The test solution consists of the TestProject.Application and the TestProject.Application.Web projects, with all the fun and games obviously in the TestProject.Application project However, when I try this in my main solution, the fonts refuse to show in the correct type face (instead showing in the default font). There's no difference in the way the font has been added to project between the test solution and the main solution, and the XAML is identical. However, there is a solution layout difference. In the main solution, as well as having a MainApp.Application and MainApp.Application.Web project, I also have a MainApp.Application.ViewModel project and a MainApp.Application.Views project, and the problem piece of XAML is the in the MainApp.Application.Views project (not the .Application project like the test solution). I've tried putting the font into either the .Application or .Application.Views project, tried changing the Build Action to Content, Embedded Resource etc, all to no avail. So, is there an issue accessing font resources from a child assembly that I don't know about, or has anyone successfully done this? My long term need will be to have the valid custom fonts being stored as resources in a separate .Application.FontLibrary assembly that will be on-demand downloaded and cached, and the XAML controls in the .Application.Views project will need to reference this FontLibrary assembly to get the valid fonts. I've also tried xcreating this separate font library assembly, and I can't seem to get the fonts from the second assembly. As some additional information, I've also tried the following font referencing approaches: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;component/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> And a few similar variants with different assembly references/sub directories/random semi colons. And so far nothing works... anyone struck this (and preferably solved it)?

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• Matlab cell length

  - by AP

  Ok I seem to have got the most of the problem solved, I just need an expert eye to pick my error as I am stuck. I have a file of length [125 X 27] and I want to convert it to a file of length [144 x 27]. Now, I want to replace the missing files (time stamps) rows of zeros. (ideally its a 10 min daily average thus should have file length of 144) Here is the code I am using: fid = fopen('test.csv', 'rt'); data = textscan(fid, ['%s' repmat('%f',1,27)], 'HeaderLines', 1, 'Delimiter', ','); fclose(fid); %//Make time a datenum of the first column time = datenum(data{1} , 'mm/dd/yyyy HH:MM') %//Find the difference in minutes from each row timeDiff = round(diff(datenum(time)*(24*60))) %//the rest of the data data = cell2mat(data(2:28)); newdata=zeros(144,27); for n=1:length(timeDiff) if timeDiff(n)==10 newdata(n,:)=data(n,:); newdata(n+1,:)=data(n+1,:); else p=timeDiff(n)/10 n=n+p; end end Can somebody please help me to find the error inside my for loop. My output file seems to miss few timestamped values. %*********************************************************************************************************** Can somebody help me to figure out the uiget to read the above file?? i am replacing fid = fopen('test.csv', 'rt'); data = textscan(fid, ['%s' repmat('%f',1,27)], 'HeaderLines', 1, 'Delimiter', ','); fclose(fid); With [c,pathc]=uigetfile({'*.txt'},'Select the file','C:\data'); file=[pathc c]; file= textscan(c, ['%s' repmat('%f',1,27)], 'HeaderLines', 1, 'Delimiter', ','); And its not working % NEW ADDITION to old question p = 1; %index into destination for n = 1:length(timeDiff) % if timeDiff(n) == 10 % newfile(p,:) = file(n,:); % newfile(p+1,:)=file(n+1,:); % p = p + 1; % else % p = p + (timeDiff(n)/10); % end q=cumsum(timeDiff(n)/10); if q==1 newfile(p,:)=file(n,:); p=p+1; else p = p + (timeDiff(n)/10); end end xlswrite('testnewws11.xls',newfile); even with the cumsum command this code fails when my file has 1,2 time stamps in middle of long missing ones example 8/16/2009 0:00 5.34 8/16/2009 0:10 3.23 8/16/2009 0:20 2.23 8/16/2009 0:30 1.23 8/16/2009 0:50 70 8/16/2009 2:00 5.23 8/16/2009 2:20 544 8/16/2009 2:30 42.23 8/16/2009 3:00 71.23 8/16/2009 3:10 3.23 My output looks like 5.34 3.23 2.23 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 5.23 544. 42.23 0 0 0 3.23 Any ideas?

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• Need a fast programming language that can drive two printers

  - by Pete

  I have a rather unusual application that isn't working the way I need, and I hope someone here will have some suggestions or at least a direction to investigate. We have a museum exhibit that has a computer at the entrance driving two small receipt printers. There are two buttons on a console, wired to the left and right buttons of a disemboweled mouse. The two printers and associated buttons are for girls and boys, each button does a random selection from a database of names and prints a small ticket on the appropriate printer with a graphic image, a few words about the exhibit and the randomly chosen name. Conceptually all is well, but it hangs quite often. I got the project at the last minute, because the original designer got bogged down and couldn't deliver, so the exhibit's author asked me the day before opening, whether I could write something that would work. I did it in Word, since I am an experienced VBA programmer. Several other avenues I attempted first all lead to dead ends - one couldn't do graphics, another couldn't handle two printers, yet another couldn't change fonts and so on. The problem is that it simply isn't fast enough - Word can only drive one printer at a time and changing the active printer takes a long time. Not by office standards, where a second or two of delay before a printer starts working on your document is not an issue, but here I need more or less instant response. If kids press a button and nothing happens, they press it over and over until something does happen, resulting in maybe half a dozen commands being sent before the printer starts reacting. Sometimes it jams the program completely, since boys and girls will be pressing the two buttons simultaneously and Word locks up, and even when it doesn't jam, the printers then spit out a stream of tickets, making a mess. The kids start squabbling over which ticket is whose, pulling them out of the printers, snarling the paper tape, jamming the printer and generally making a mess of the whole affair, often necessitating the exhibit caretakers having to restart the computer and clear torn bits of paper out the printers. What I need is some sort of fast programming language that can drive two printers *-simultaneously-*, not the MSOffice claptrap of having to switch the active printer, that can react to both left and right mouse button click events, can print a small graphic image and can print in different font sizes and styles and. I don't need many, but it's not all in one typeface. Can anyone suggest what I might use for this? I don't even know if it's possible at all under Windows, whether the "single active printer" garbage is an Office artifact, or a Windows restriction. My little Commodore-64 twenty-five years ago had two printers attached to it and drove both simultaneously with no difficulties - it doesn't seem to me it should be such an impossible requirement today.

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• Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

  - by Guillaume Schuermans

  Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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• How do you combine "Revision Control" with "WorkFlow" for R?

  - by Tal Galili

  Hello all, I remember coming across R users writing that they use "Revision control" (e.g: "Source control"), and I am curious to know: How do you combine "Revision control" with your statistical analysis WorkFlow? Two (very) interesting discussions talk about how to deal with the WorkFlow. But neither of them refer to the revision control element: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1266279/how-to-organize-large-r-programs http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1429907/workflow-for-statistical-analysis-and-report-writing A Long Update To The Question: Following some of the people's answers, and Dirk's question in the comment, I would like to direct my question a bit more. After reading the Wiki article about "revision control" (which I was previously not familiar with), it was clear to me that when using revision control, what one does is to build a development structure of his code. This structure either leads to a "final product" or to several branches. When building something like, let's say, a website. There is usually one end product you work towards (the website), with some prototypes along the way. But when doing a statistical analysis, the work (to my view) is different. Sometimes you know where you want to get to. But more often, you explore. Explore cleaning the dataset. Explore different methods for statistical analysis, and ask various questions of your data (and I am writing this, knowing how Frank Harrell, and other experience statisticians feels about Data dredging). That is way the WorkFlow question with statistical programming is (in my view) a serious and deep question, raising many issues, The simpler ones are technical: Which revision control software do you use (and why) ? Which IDE do you use(and why) ? The more interesting question are about work process: How do you structure your files? What do you keep as a separate file and what as a revision? or asking in a different way - What should be a "branch" and what should be a "sub project" in your code? For example: When starting to explore your data, should a plot be creating and then erased because it didn't lead any where (but kept as a revision) or should there be a backup file of that path? How you solve this tension was my initial curiosity. The second question is "what might I be missing?". What rules (of thumb) should one follow so to avoid common pitfalls doing statistical programming with version control? In my intuition, I feel that statistical programming is inherently different then software development (I am writing this without being a real expert in statistical programming, and even less so in software development). That's way I am unsure which of the lessons I have read here about version control would be applicable. Thanks a lot, Tal

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