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• Android: Capturing the return of an activity.

  - by Chrispix

  I have a question regarding launching new activities. It boils down to this. I have 3 tabs on a view A) contains gMap activity B) camera activity C) some random text fields. Requirement is that the application runs in Portrait mode. All 3 tabs work as expected w/ the exception of the Camera Preview Surface (B). It is rotated 90 degrees. They only way to make it correct is to set the app to landscape which throws all my tabs around, and is pretty much unworkable. My solution is this : replace my camera activity with a regular activity that is empty w/ the exception of Intent i = new Intent(this,CameraActivity.class); startActivity(i); This launches my CameraActivity. And that works fine. I had to do a linear layout and include 3 images that look like real tabs, so I can try and mimic the operation of the tabs while rotating the screen to landscape and keep the visuals as portrait. The user can click one of the images(buttons) to display the next tab. This is my issue. It should exit my 'camera activity' returning to the 'blank activity' in a tab, where it should be interpreted to click the desiered tab from my image. The main thing is, when it returns, it returns to a blank (black) page under a tab (because it is 'empty'). How can I capture the return event back to the page that called the activity, and then see what action they performed? I can set an onclicklistener where I can respond to the fake tabs (images) being clicked to exit out of the camera activity. On exit, the tab should update so that is where you return. any Suggestions? Thanks,

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• Setting Nullable Integer to String Containing Nothing yields 0

  - by Brian MacKay

  I've been pulling my hair out over some unexpected behavior from nullable integers. If I set an Integer to Nothing, it becomes Nothing as expected. If I set an Integer? to a String that is Nothing, it becomes 0! Of course I get this whether I explicitly cast the String to Integer? or not. I realize I could work around this pretty easily but I want to know what I'm missing. Dim NullString As String = Nothing Dim NullableInt As Integer? = CType(NullString, Integer?) 'Expected NullableInt to be Nothing, but it's 0! NullableInt = Nothing 'This works -- NullableInt now contains Nothing. How is this EDIT: Previously I had my code up here so without the explicit conversion to 'Integer?' and everyone seemed to be fixated on that. I want to be clear that this is not an issue that would have been caught by Option Strict On -- check out the accepted answer. This is a quirk of the string-to-integer conversion rules which predate nullable types, but still impact them.

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• Calling a WPF Application and modify exposed properties?

  - by Justin

  I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the application (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the application. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is there a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Application Dim e_key as new WpfApplication("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style application. ''work with events and response 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my keyboard and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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• design an extendable database model

  - by wishi_

  Hi! Currently I'm doing a project whose specifications are unclear - well who doesn't. I wonder what's the best development strategy to design a DB, that's going to be extended sooner or later with additional tables and relations. I want to include "changeability". My main concern is that I want to apply design patterns (it's a university project) and I want to separate the constant factors from those, that change by choosing appropriate design patterns - in my case MVC and a set of sub-patterns at model level. When it comes to the DB however, I may have to resdesign my model in my MVC approach, because my domain model at a later stage my require a different set of classes representing the DB tables. I use Hibernate as an abstraction layer between DB and application. Would you start with a very minimal DB, just a few tables and relations? And what if I want an efficient DB, too? I wonder what strategies are applied in the real world. Stakeholder analysis for example isn't a sufficient planing solution when it comes to changing requirements. I think - at a DB level - my design pattern ends. So there's breach whose impact I'd like to minimize with a smart strategy.

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• Algorithm for assigning a unique series of bits for each user?

  - by Mark

  The problem seems simple at first: just assign an id and represent that in binary. The issue arises because the user is capable of changing as many 0 bits to a 1 bit. To clarify, the hash could go from 0011 to 0111 or 1111 but never 1010. Each bit has an equal chance of being changed and is independent of other changes. What would you have to store in order to go from hash - user assuming a low percentage of bit tampering by the user? I also assume failure in some cases so the correct solution should have an acceptable error rate. I would an estimate the maximum number of bits tampered with would be about 30% of the total set. I guess the acceptable error rate would depend on the number of hashes needed and the number of bits being set per hash. I'm worried with enough manipulation the id can not be reconstructed from the hash. The question I am asking I guess is what safe guards or unique positioning systems can I use to ensure this happens.

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• Why does the '#weight' property sometimes not have any effect in Drupal forms?

  - by Adrian

  Hello, I'm trying to create a node form for a custom type. I have organic groups and taxonomy both enabled, but want their elements to come out in a non-standard order. So I've implemented hook_form_alter and set the #weight property of the og_nodeapi subarray to -1000, but it still goes after taxonomy and menu. I even tried changing the subarray to a fieldset (to force it to actually be rendered), but no dice. I also tried setting $form['taxonomy']['#weight'] = 1000 (I have two vocabs so it's already being rendered as a fieldset) but that didn't work either. I set the weight of my module very high and confirmed in the system table that it is indeed the highest module on the site - so I'm all out of ideas. Any suggestions? Update: While I'm not exactly sure how, I did manage to get the taxonomy fieldset to sink below everything else, but now I have a related problem that's hopefully more manageable to understand. Within the taxonomy fieldset, I have two items (a tags and a multi-select), and I wanted to add some instructions in hook_form_alter as follows: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); You guessed it, this appears after the terms inserted by the taxonomy module. However, if I change this to a fieldset: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#type' => 'fieldset', // <-- here '#title' => 'Instructions', // <-- and here for good measure '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); then it magically floats to the top as I'd intended. I also tried textarea (this also worked) and explicitly saying markup (this did not). So basically, changing the type from "markup" (the default IIRC) to "fieldset" has the effect of no longer ignoring its weight.

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• Dynamic evaluation of a table column within an insert before trigger

  - by Tim Garver

  HI All, I have 3 tables, main, types and linked. main has an id column and 32 type columns. types has id, type linked has id, main_id, type_id I want to create an insert before trigger on the main table. It needs to compare its 32 type columns to the values in the types table if the main table column has an 'X' for its value and insert the main_id and types_id into the linked table. i have done a lot of searching, and it looks like a prepared statement would be the way to go, but i wanted to ask the experts. The issue, is i dont want to write 32 IF statements, and even if i did, i need to query the types table to get the ID for that type, seems like a huge waist of resources. Ideally i want to do this inside of my trigger: BEGIN DECLARE @types results_set -- (not sure if this is a valid type); -- (iam sure my loop syntax is all wrong here)... SET @types = (select * from types) for i=0;i<types.records;i++ { IF NEW.[i.type] = 'X' THEN insert into linked (main_id,type_id) values (new.ID, i.id); END IF; } END; Anyway, This is what i was hoping to do, maybe there is a way to dynamically set the field name inside of a results loop, but i cant find a good example of this. Thanks in advance Tim

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• Java - How to find the redirected url of a url?

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I am accessing web pages through java as follows: URLConnection con = url.openConnection(); But in some cases, a url redirects to another url. So I want to know the url to which the previous url redirected. Below are the header fields that I got as a response: null-->[HTTP/1.1 200 OK] Cache-control-->[public,max-age=3600] last-modified-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Transfer-Encoding-->[chunked] Date-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Vary-->[Accept-Encoding] Expires-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 14:45:35 GMT] Set-Cookie-->[cl_def_hp=copenhagen; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT, cl_def_lang=en; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT] Connection-->[close] Content-Type-->[text/html; charset=iso-8859-1;] Server-->[Apache] So at present, I am constructing the redirected url from the value of the Set-Cookie header field. In the above case, the redirected url is copenhagen.craigslist.org Is there any standard way through which I can determine which url the particular url is going to redirect. I know that when a url redirects to other url, the server sends an intermediate response containing a header field that tells the url which it is going to redirect but I am not receiving that intermediate response through the url.openConnection(); method.

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• How do you populate a NSArrayController with CoreData rows programmatically?

  - by Andrew McCloud

  After several hours/days of searching and diving into example projects i've concluded that I need to just ask. If I bind the assetsView (IKImageBrowserView) directly to an IB instance of NSArrayController everything works just fine. - (void) awakeFromNib { library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; } Both NSLogs are empty. I know i'm missing something... I just don't know what. The goal is to eventually allow multiple instances of this view's "library" filtered programmatically with a predicate. For now i'm just trying to have it display all of the rows for the "Asset" entity. Addition: If I create the NSArrayController in IB and then try to log [library arrangedObjects] or manually set the data source for assetsView I get the same empty results. Like I said earlier, if I bind library.arrangedObjects to assetsView.content (IKImageBrowserView) in IB - with same managed object context and same entity name set by IB - everything works as expected. - (void) awakeFromNib { // library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; // [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; // [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; }

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• Using the <h2> as the title after sent?

  - by Delan Azabani

  Currently, I have a semi-dynamic system for my website's pages. head.php has all the tags before the content body, foot.php the tags after. Any page using the main theme will include head.php, then write the content, then output foot.php. Currently, to be able to set the title, I quickly set a variable $title before inclusion: <?php $title = 'Untitled document'; include_once '../head.php'; ?> <h2>Untitled document</h2> Content here... <?php include_once '../foot.php'; ?> So that in head.php... <title><?php echo $title; ?> | Delan Azabani</title> However, this seems kludgy as the title is most of the time, the same as the content of the h2 tag. Is there a way I can get PHP to read the content of h2, track back and insert it, then send the whole thing at the end?

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• PowerShell function arguments: Can the first one be optional first?

  - by Johannes Rössel

  I have an advanced function in PowerShell, which roughly looks like this: function Foo { [CmdletBinding] param ( [int] $a = 42, [int] $b ) } The idea is that it can be run with either two, one or no arguments. However, the first argument to become optional is the first one. So the following scenarios are possible to run the function: Foo a b # the normal case, both a and b are defined Foo b # a is omitted Foo # both a and b are omitted However, normally PowerShell tries to fit the single argument into a. So I thought about specifying the argument positions explicitly, where a would have position 0 and b position 1. However, to allow for only b specified I tried putting a into a parameter set. But then b would need a different position depending on the currently-used parameter set. Any ideas how to solve this properly? I'd like to retain the parameter names (which aren't a and b actually), so using $args is probably a last resort. I probably could define two parameter sets, one with two mandatory parameters and one with a single optional one, but I guess the parameter names have to be different in that case, then, right?

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• Castle windsor security exception

  - by Sunil

  I developed a small WCF service that uses Castle Windsor IoC container and it works fine on my PC. When I deploy it onto a Win 2008 R2 server and host the WCF service in IIS 7 it fails with the following error. I checked the server level web.config and the trust level is set to "Full". What do I need to do to get this to work. As a test I deployed the same service as it is onto a Windows 2003 server with the trust level set to "Full" and it works fine. I am unable to figure out what setting/configuration I am missing on the 2008 server that is making the service fail. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers.] Castle.Windsor.WindsorContainer..ctor() +0 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCInstanceProvider..ctor(Type serviceType) in D:\WCF\WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices \WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC\IoCInstanceProvider.cs:19 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCServiceBehavior.ApplyDispatchBehav­ior(ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase) in D:\WCF \WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices\WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC \IoCServiceBehavior.cs:24 System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.InitializeServiceHost(Ser­viceDescription description, ServiceHostBase serviceHost) +377 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.InitializeRuntime() +37 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnBeginOpen() +27 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) +49 System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) +261 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.ActivateService(String normalizedVirtualPath) +121 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.EnsureServiceAvailable(String normalizedVirtualPath) +479

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• Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

  - by colinodell

  I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

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• Get the id of the link and pass it to the jQueryUI dialog widget

  - by Mike Sanchez

  I'm using the dialog widget of jQueryUI. Now, the links are grabbed from an SQL database by using jQuery+AJAX which is the reason why I used "live" $(function() { var $dialog = $('#report') .dialog({ autoOpen: false, resizable: false, modal: true, height: 410, width: 350, draggable: true }) //store reference to placeholders $uid = $('#reportUniqueId'); $('.reportopen').live("click", function (e) { $dialog.dialog('open'); var $uid = $(this).attr('id'); e.preventDefault(); }); }); My question is, how do I pass the id of the link that triggered the dialog widget to the dialog box itself? The link is set up like this: <td align="left" width="12%"> <span id="notes"> [<a href="javascript:void(0)" class="reportopen" id="<?=$reportId;?>">Spam</a>] </span> </td> And the dialogbox is set up like this: <div id="report" title="Inquire now"> HAHAHAHAHA <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> </div> I'd like for the id to be passed and generated in the <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> part of the dialog box. Any idea?

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• Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

  - by kujawk

  Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

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• How do you export or release a Mac OS X program made in Xcode? Program does not load on other comput

  - by SolidSnake4444

  I made a program in Xcode, being a simple calculator that takes a first number, and a second number, and then either adds,subtracts,multiplies, or divides depending on the radio button. I build and run and the program comes up and works fine. When I went to show my friends on their macs, when you double click on the program the program pops in the tray for like .05 seconds and then disappears and we never can actually run the program. It still works perfect however on my computer. What am I doing wrong? How can I take the program I made, and run it on different macs? I have the release set to 10.5 but the active SDK to 10.6. It runs in both 10.5 and 10.6 simulators. One friend has 10.6.3 like me and the other has 10.5.x(cant remember the last part). To get the app, I changed from debug to release and set active SDK to 10.5. Then in the release folder I found the app and sent that over iChat. I feel this will be a problem in the future if I ever make a legit application to distribute. Thank you!

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• Determining if an unordered vector<T> has all unique elements

  - by Hooked

  Profiling my cpu-bound code has suggested I that spend a long time checking to see if a container contains completely unique elements. Assuming that I have some large container of unsorted elements (with < and = defined), I have two ideas on how this might be done: The first using a set: template <class T> bool is_unique(vector<T> X) { set<T> Y(X.begin(), X.end()); return X.size() == Y.size(); } The second looping over the elements: template <class T> bool is_unique2(vector<T> X) { typename vector<T>::iterator i,j; for(i=X.begin();i!=X.end();++i) { for(j=i+1;j!=X.end();++j) { if(*i == *j) return 0; } } return 1; } I've tested them the best I can, and from what I can gather from reading the documentation about STL, the answer is (as usual), it depends. I think that in the first case, if all the elements are unique it is very quick, but if there is a large degeneracy the operation seems to take O(N^2) time. For the nested iterator approach the opposite seems to be true, it is lighting fast if X[0]==X[1] but takes (understandably) O(N^2) time if all the elements are unique. Is there a better way to do this, perhaps a STL algorithm built for this very purpose? If not, are there any suggestions eek out a bit more efficiency?

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• Insert or Update using Oracle and PL/SQL

  - by Shane

  I have a PL/SQL function that performs an update/insert on an Oracle database that maintains a target total and returns the difference between the existing value and the new value. Here is the code I have so far: FUNCTION calcTargetTotal(accountId varchar2, newTotal numeric ) RETURN number is oldTotal numeric(20,6); difference numeric(20,6); begin difference := 0; begin select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; exception when NO_DATA_FOUND then begin difference := newTotal; insert into target_total ( account_id, value ) values ( accountId, newTotal ); -- sometimes a race condition occurs and this stmt fails -- in those cases try to update again exception when DUP_VAL_ON_INDEX then begin difference := 0; select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; end; end; end; return difference end calcTargetTotal; This works as expected in unit tests with multiple threads never failing. However when loaded on a live system we have seen this fail with a stack trace looking like this: ORA-01403: no data found ORA-00001: unique constraint () violated ORA-01403: no data found The line numbers (which I have removed since they are meaningless out of context) verify that the first update fails due to no data, the insert fail due to uniqueness, and the 2nd update is failing with no data, which should be impossible. From what I have read on other thread a MERGE statement is also not atomic and could suffer similar problems. Does anyone have any ideas how to prevent this from occurring?

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• A good data model for finding a user's favorite stories

  - by wings

  Original Design Here's how I originally had my Models set up: class UserData(db.Model): user = db.UserProperty() favorites = db.ListProperty(db.Key) # list of story keys # ... class Story(db.Model): title = db.StringProperty() # ... On every page that displayed a story I would query UserData for the current user: user_data = UserData.all().filter('user =' users.get_current_user()).get() story_is_favorited = (story in user_data.favorites) New Design After watching this talk: Google I/O 2009 - Scalable, Complex Apps on App Engine, I wondered if I could set things up more efficiently. class FavoriteIndex(db.Model): favorited_by = db.StringListProperty() The Story Model is the same, but I got rid of the UserData Model. Each instance of the new FavoriteIndex Model has a Story instance as a parent. And each FavoriteIndex stores a list of user id's in it's favorited_by property. If I want to find all of the stories that have been favorited by a certain user: index_keys = FavoriteIndex.all(keys_only=True).filter('favorited_by =', users.get_current_user().user_id()) story_keys = [k.parent() for k in index_keys] stories = db.get(story_keys) This approach avoids the serialization/deserialization that's otherwise associated with the ListProperty. Efficiency vs Simplicity I'm not sure how efficient the new design is, especially after a user decides to favorite 300 stories, but here's why I like it: A favorited story is associated with a user, not with her user data On a page where I display a story, it's pretty easy to ask the story if it's been favorited (without calling up a separate entity filled with user data). fav_index = FavoriteIndex.all().ancestor(story).get() fav_of_current_user = users.get_current_user().user_id() in fav_index.favorited_by It's also easy to get a list of all the users who have favorited a story (using the method in #2) Is there an easier way? Please help. How is this kind of thing normally done?

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• Javascript not registering/executing after button click

  - by rs

  I have a textbox which i convert to tinymce textbox using tinymce.js file. I'm trying to add a new script with database fields substituted based on selection made from dropdownlist to page using registerstartupscript. In page load protected sub page_load(byVal sender as object, byval e as EventArgs) handles me.load AddScriptToPage() if not page.ispostback() then session("fname") = nothing end if end sub Script Method Sub AddScriptToPage() dim _script = " c.onRenderMenu.add(function(c, m) { " & _ add_columns() & _ "}); " ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(Me.GetType(), keyword,_script) End Sub function add_columns() as string dim ret_string = String.empty select case ddlList.selectedvalue case 1 sqlcommand = "xyz" case 2 sqlcommand = "xyz" case 3 //Load from excel sqlcommand = nothing end select if sqlcommand isnot nothing then executereader() while reader.read() ret_string = ret_string & reader("column") end while elseif session("fname") isnot nothing dt = getdatatable(session("fname").tostring()) //method that opens oledb connection and returns columns for each dr in dt.rows ret_string = ret_string & dr("column") next end if add_columns = ret_string end function When excel file is uploaded to server this event is called protected sub btnclick(byVal sender as object, byval e as EventArgs) if hasfile then 'i have custom properties set after control validation 'Upload file 'set session value with filepath session("fname") = filepath 'call js register event AddScriptToPage() end if end sub When i click upload button i'm calling AddScriptToPage, and debug it it hits AddScripttoPage event and executes it but it doesn't showup on page. It should show column names in tinymce editor but it doesn't. But when i click another button on the same page it shows (becos session has the filename). On Upload button click page flow: Page load - AddScriptToPage is executed (registers scripts with no columns) Then AddScriptToPage in btnclick event is executed (registers scripts with columns) Why is this script not getting registered even though it is executed on vb code on uploadclick event? And why does it show up after another button click and not original button click that calls this event?

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• Getting the last User ID in Zend Framework

  - by Ryan Murphy

  Using MySQL query browser, I manually made a table called users and input some date in the fields. I set the primary key to id and set it to auto increment. There are 3 rows, the highest id is 3. I then made the following class in the method directory to call upon the data in the table etc. class Application_Model_DbTable_User extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'user'; public function getLatestUserId() { $id = $this->getAdapter()->lastInsertId(); return $id; } } In the controller I do the following which gets the value generated by the method and lets the view access it: $usersDbModel = new Application_Model_DbTable_User(); $lastUserId = $usersDbModel->getLatestUserId(); $this->view->lastUserId = $lastUserId; In the view I then echo it to display it to the user: echo $this->lastUserId; However, even though my last id in the users table is 3. It displays 0. I have also tried: public function getLatestUserId() { $sql = 'SELECT max(id) FROM user'; $query = $this->query($sql); $result = $query->fetchAll(); return $result; } But this just throws out a server error. What have I done wrong? Am I missing something? Is there another way of doing this?

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• setting write permissions on theme subdirectory?

  - by Scott B

  I've a theme which supports multiple templates, each with a header background image whose color can be set by the site owner via a colorpicker widget in my theme's options panel. This has the effect of opening the background image, recoloring it and resaving it back to the server. I've had zero issues with this routine until recently when a customer installed the theme on a web host whose default read/write permissions are apparently much more restrictive than the norm. In this case, the user was unable to alter the colors of the template images because of the permissions settings. I'm looking for a bit of understanding on what the permissions would need to be (assuming I purposefully set them via script) to allow the logged in wordpress user to write to files under my theme's styles directory. The code I'm using to write to the image file is below... $img = imagecreatefromgif("../wp-content/themes/mytheme/styles/".get_option('my_theme')."/image.gif"); $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagecolorset($img, 0, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagegif($img, $path);

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• You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity

  - by ProNeticas

  I have a function that shows a map page so I can get the user to choose their current location. But if you run this function twice it crashes the App with the Single MapView in a MapActivity error (i.e. opening that settings view again). public void showMapSetterPage(View v) { Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "Settings screen, set map center launched"); // Set which view object we fired off from set_pv(v); // Show Map Settings Screen setContentView(R.layout.set_map_center); // Initiate the center point map if (mapView == null) { mapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); } mapView.setLongClickable(true); mapView.setStreetView(true); mapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(false); mapView.setSatellite(false); mapController = mapView.getController(); mapController.setZoom(18); LocationManager lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Location location = lm .getLastKnownLocation(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER); int lat = (int) (location.getLatitude() * 1E6); int lng = (int) (location.getLongitude() * 1E6); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "The LAT and LONG is: " + lat + " == " + lng); point = new GeoPoint(lat, lng); // mapController.setCenter(point); mapController.animateTo(point); } So I have a button that shows this View and onClick="showMapSetterPage". But if you go back to the settings screen out of the map and click the button again I get this error: 03-06 20:55:54.091: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(28014): Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity How can I delete the MapView and recreate it?

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• Mysql for update

  - by shantanuo

  MySQL supports "for update" keyword. Here is how I tested that it is working as expected. I opened 2 browser tabs and executed the following commands in one window. mysql> start transaction; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.00 sec) mysql> select * from myxml where id = 2 for update; .... mysql> update myxml set id = 3 where id = 2 limit 1; Query OK, 1 row affected, 1 warning (0.00 sec) Rows matched: 1 Changed: 1 Warnings: 0 mysql> commit; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.08 sec) In another window, I started the transaction and tried to take an update lock on the same record. mysql> start transaction; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.00 sec) mysql> select * from myxml where id = 2 for update; Empty set (43.81 sec) As you can see from the above example, I could not select the record for 43 seconds as the transaction was being processed by another application in the Window No 1. Once the transaction was over, I got to select the record, but since the id 2 was changed to id 3 by the transaction that was executed first, no record was returned. My question is what are the disadvantages of using "for update" syntax? If I do not commit the transaction that is running in window 1 will the record be locked for-ever?

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• Why should I use core.autocrlf in Git

  - by Rich

  I have a Git repository that is accessed from both Windows and OS X, and that I know already contains some files with CRLF line-endings. As far as I can tell, there are two ways to deal with this: Set core.autocrlf to false everywhere, Follow the instructions here (echoed on GitHub's help pages) to convert the repository to contain only LF line-endings, and thereafter set core.autocrlf to true on Windows and input on OS X. The problem with doing this is that if I have any binary files in the repository that: a). are not correctly marked as binary in gitattributes, and b). happen to contain both CRLFs and LFs, they will be corrupted. It is possible my repository contains such files. So why shouldn't I just turn off Git's line-ending conversion? There are a lot of vague warnings on the web about having core.autocrlf switched off causing problems, but very few specific ones; the only that I've found so far are that kdiff3 cannot handle CRLF endings (not a problem for me), and that some text editors have line-ending issues (also not a problem for me). The repository is internal to my company, and so I don't need to worry about sharing it with people with different autocrlf settings or line-ending requirements. Are there any other problems with just leaving line-endings as-is that I am unaware of?

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