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  • boost multi_index partial indexes

    - by Gokul
    Hi, I want to implement inside boost multi-index two sets of keys with same search criteria but different eviction criteria. Say i have two sets of data with same search condition, but one set needs a MRU(Most Recently Used) list of 100 and the other set requires a MRU of 200. Say the entry is like this class Student { int student_no; char sex; std::string address; }; The search criteria is student_no, but for sex='m', we need MRU of 200 and for sex='f', we need a MRU of 100. Now i have a solution where in i introduce a new ordered index to maintain ordering. For example the IndexSpecifierList will be something like this typedef multi_index_container< Student, indexed_by< ordered_unique< member<Student, int, &Student::student_no> >, ordered_unique< composite_key< member<Student, char, &Student::sex>, member<Student, int, &Student::sex_specific_student_counter> > > > > student_set Now everytime, i am inserting a new one, i have to take a equal_range for that using index 2 and remove the oldest one and if something is getting re-used, i have to update it by incrementing the counter. Is there a better solution to this kind of problem? Thanks, Gokul.

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  • How should I link two items with MouseMovementListeners?

    - by user1708810
    I'm working on a program that will display two "views" of the same set of items. So I need to have something set up so that when the top down view is changed, the side view is updated (and vice versa). Here's a brief outline of the relevant code so you can get an idea of my structure so far: public class DraggableComponent extends JComponent { //Contains code for MouseMovementListener that makes the item draggable } public class ItemGraphic extends DraggableComponent { //Code to render the graphic } public class Item { private ItemGraphic topGraphic; private ItemGraphic sideGraphic; } I'm able to get each graphic to display fine in my GUI. I can also independently drag each graphic. I'm missing the "linking." Some ideas I've been thinking about: Have one listener for the whole GUI. Loop through each Item and if the cursor is within the bounds of either graphic, move the other graphic. I'm concerned about the efficiency of this method. Multiple "paired" listeners (not quite sure how this would work, but the idea is that each graphic would have a listener for the other paired graphic)

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  • segmentation fault while using format string to scan input

    - by Aman Deep Gautam
    consider the code and its result: while ((row = mysql_fetch_row (table_info)) != NULL) { answer='\0'; printf ( "%s: ", row[0] ); scanf ( "%c", &answer ); getchar(); if ( answer == 'y') { printf ( "*****\n" ); table_name[index] = malloc ( strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); printf ( "*****\n" ); memcpy ( &table_name[index], &row[0], strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); } printf ( "finally inserted: %s \n", table_name[index]); } The result on execution: 1_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 1_time_access 2_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 2_time_access 39_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 39_time_access Explanation of result: row[0] has value 1_time_access, 2_time_access, 39_time_access. Now Consider a better way of doing it which is using a format string to escape the \n. I run the following code but it gives segentation fault, I cannot understand why. Code: while ((row = mysql_fetch_row (table_info)) != NULL) { answer='\0'; printf ( "%s: ", row[0] ); scanf ( "%[^\n]%*c", &answer ); if ( answer == 'y') { printf ( "*****\n" ); fflush(stdout); table_name[index] = malloc ( strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); printf ( "*****\n" ); fflush(stdout); memcpy ( &table_name[index], &row[0], strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); } printf ( "finally inserted: %s \n", table_name[index]); fflush(stdout); } Result: 1_time_access: y ***** ./set-env.sh: line 17: 15263 Segmentation fault (core dumped) ./exec dataset_one (do not worry about set-env.sh, it is the script running th program.) I canot understand why this is happening.

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  • Asp.net mvc inheritance controllers

    - by Ris90
    Hi, I'm studing asp.net mvc and in my test project I have some problems with inheritance: In my model I use inheritanse in few entities: public class Employee:Entity { /* few public properties */ } It is the base class. And descendants: public class RecruitmentOfficeEmployee: Employee { public virtual RecruitmentOffice AssignedOnRecruitmentOffice { get; set; } } public class ResearchInstituteEmployee: Employee { public virtual ResearchInstitute AssignedOnResearchInstitute { get; set; } } I want to implement a simple CRUD operations to every descedant. What is the better way to inplement controllers and views in descendants: - One controller per every descendant; - Controller inheritance; - Generic controller; - Generic methods in one controller. Or maybe there is an another way? My ORM is NHibernate, I have a generic base repository and every repository is its descedant. Using generic controller, I think, is the best way, but in it I will use only generic base repository and extensibility of the system will be not very good. Please, help the newbie)

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  • Uncommitted reads in SSIS

    - by OldBoy
    I'm trying to debug some legacy Integration Services code, and really want some confirmation on what I think the problem is: We have a very large data task inside a control flow container. This control flow container is set up with TransactionOption = supported - i.e. it will 'inherit' transactions from parent containers, but none are set up here. Inside the data flow there is a call to a stored proc that writes to a table with pseudo code something like: "If a record doesn't exist that matches these parameters then write it" Now, the issue is that there are three records being passed into this proc all with the same parameters, so logically the first record doesn't find a match and a record is created. The second record (with the same parameters) also doesn't find a match and another record is created. My understanding is that the first 'record' passed to the proc in the dataflow is uncommitted and therefore can't be 'read' by the second call. The upshot being that all three records create a row, when logically only the first should. In this scenario am I right in thinking that it is the uncommitted transaction that stops the second call from seeing the first? Even setting the isolation level on the container doesn't help because it's not being wrapped in a transaction anyway.... Hope that makes sense, and any advice gratefully received. Work-arounds confer god-like status on you.

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  • Two AJAX asynchronus GET call: Only one get the xml file

    - by Woho87
    Hi! I have two AJAX GET calls that are set to asynchcronus = true; I want to obtain two XML files on my server. The two AJAX calls and rendering are defined in function foo & koo. And are called simultaneously. function foo(){ var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200){ var xmlDoc = xmlhttp.responseXML; //Do something } } xmlhttp.open('get', 'url', true); xmlhttp.send(); } function koo(){ //Almost the same as function foo } foo(); koo(); I've noticed that inside the if statement in the first function call(foo), the code their will never compile. While in the second function call(koo). The code inside the if statement can be compiled. If I set both asynchronus to false, then there is no problem at all. If I remove the second function call(koo) from the code, than the code inside the if statement can be compiled. What can I do to have both asynchronus AJAX calls?

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  • jQuery Grouping Similar Items and Counting When Repeated

    - by NessDan
    So I have this structure setup: <ul> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> (Vid1) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bOF3o8B292U</li> (Vid2) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> (Vid3) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bOF3o8B292U</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> </ul> Vid1 is repeated 3 times, Vid2 is repeated 3 times, and Vid3 is repeated 2 times. I want to put them into a structure where I can reference them like this: Vid1 - 3 (Repeated), http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=dw1Vh9Yzryo&fmt=36 (Download) Vid2 - 3 (Repeated), http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=bOF3o8B292U&fmt=36 (Download) Vid3 - 2 (Repeated), http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=yAY4vNJd7A8&fmt=36 (Download) "This video was repeated " + [Vid1][Repeated] + " times and you can download it here: " + [Vid1][Download]; How can I set this structure up? I think I should be using an array to achieve the above but I'm not sure how I would set it up or how to reference certain things in the array. The other question is how can I get how many times something was repeated? The URL I have no problem with. Can anyone help me out?

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  • asp.net stored procedure problem

    - by kenom
    Why this code don't work,when i want run this code vwd 2008 express show me this error message:Invalid object name 'answers'. this is my ascx.cs code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Data; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Security; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Configuration; public partial class odgl : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string connectionString = @"SANATIZEDSTRING!!!!"; using (SqlConnection cn = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { using (SqlCommand dohvati = new SqlCommand("dbo.get_answers",cn)) { dohvati.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; SqlParameter izracun = new SqlParameter("@count", SqlDbType.Int); izracun.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; dohvati.Parameters.Add(izracun); cn.Open(); dohvati.ExecuteNonQuery(); int count = Int32.Parse(dohvati.Parameters["@count"].Value.ToString()); Response.Write(count.ToString()); cn.Close(); } } } } and this is my stored procedure : set ANSI_NULLS ON set QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER procedure [dbo].[get_answers] @ukupno int output as select @count= (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM answers) go

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  • Application runs fine when executed directly, fails as scheduled task (security issues)

    - by Carl
    I have an application that loads some files from a network share (the input folder), extracts certain data from them and saves new files (zips them with SharpZLib) on a different network share (output folder). This application runs fine when you open it directly, but when it is set to a scheduled task, it fails in numerous places. This application is scheduled on a Win 2003 server. Let me say right off the bat, the scheduled task is set to use the same login account that I am currently logged in with, so it's not because it's using the LocalSystem account. Something else is going on here. Originally, the application was assigning a drive letter to the input folder using WNetGetConnectionA(). I don't remember why this was done, someone else on our team did that and she's gone now. I think there was some issue with using the WinZip command line with a UNC path. I switched from the WinZip command line utility to using SharpZLib because there were other issues with using the WinZip command line. Anyway, the application failed when trying to assign a drive letter with the error "connection already established." That wasn't true and even after trying WNetCancelConnection(), it still didn't work. Then I decided to just map the drive manually on the server. Then when the app calls Directory.Exists(inputFolderPath) it returns false, even though it does exist. So, for whatever reason, I cannot read this directory from within the application. I can manually navigate to this folder in Windows Explorer and open files. The app log file shows that the user executing it on the schedule is the user I expect, not LocalSystem. Any ideas?

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  • CSS: 100% of container height without modifying the container

    - by Rena
    Yeah, this ugly question again. I'm writing some HTML that gets inserted into a page. I have no control over the rest of the page. The structure is something like: <table <tr <td rowspan="2"left column</td <td height="1"top row above content</td </tr <tr<td height="220"my content here</td</tr </table I can write whatever I want into that table cell (including style tags to pack in my CSS), but I can't touch anything outside of it, which means I can't set the height of any parent element (including html and body), add a doctype (it has none), etc - that already kills just about every solution I can find (all seem to be "add a doctype" and/or "give the parent container a fixed height"). What I want to do is simply have a <div fill the entire cell. Width is no problem but unsurprisingly height is being a massive pain. Writing "height: 100%" doesn't do anything unless the container has a fixed height (the height="220" attribute apparently doesn't count) or the div uses absolute positioning - and then it seems to want to use 100% of the window's height (and width even) instead of the cell's. The root of the problem is the left column varies in height, as does the content, and when the left column cell is larger than the content, it won't expand to fill the cell it's in. If I set a fixed height for the content, it'll be much larger than necessary most of the time, and if I don't, it doesn't take up all of the cell and leaves an ugly gap at the bottom.

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  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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  • ASP.NET how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

    - by eugeneK
    Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

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  • How to catch an expected (and intended) 302 Ajax response?

    - by Anthony
    So, if you look back at my previous question about Exchange Autodiscover, you'll see that the easiet way to get the autodiscover URL is to send a non-secure, non-authenticated GET request to the server, ala: http://autodiscover.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml The server will respond with a 302 redirect with the correct url in the Location header. I'm trying out something really simple at first with a Chrome extension, where I have: if (req.readyState==4 && req.status==302) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } With another ajax call set up with the full XML Post and the user credentials, But instead Chrome hangs at this point, and a look at the developer panel shows that it is not returning back the response but instead is acting like no response was given, meanwhile showing a Uncaught Error: NETWORK_ERR: XMLHttpRequest Exception 101 in the error log. The way I see it, refering to the exact response status is about the same as "catching" it, but I'm not sure if the problem is with Chrome/WebKit or if this is how XHR requests always handle redirects. I'm not sure how to catch this so that I can get still get the headers from the response. Or would it be possible to set up a secondary XHR such that when it gets the 302, it sends a totally different request? Quick Update I just changed it so that it doesn't check the response code: if (req.readyState==4) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } and instead when I alert out the value it's null. and there is still the same error and no response in the dev console. SO it seems like it either doesn't track 302 responses as responses, or something happens after that wipes that response out?

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  • Enforcing default time when only date in timestamptz provided

    - by Incognito
    Assume I have the table: postgres=# create table foo (datetimes timestamptz); CREATE TABLE postgres=# \d+ foo Table "public.foo" Column | Type | Modifiers | Storage | Description -----------+--------------------------+-----------+---------+------------- datetimes | timestamp with time zone | | plain | Has OIDs: no So lets insert some values into it... postgres=# insert into foo values ('2012-12-12'), --This is the value I want to catch for. (null), ('2012-12-12 12:12:12'), ('2012-12-12 12:12'); INSERT 0 4 And here's what we have: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 00:00:00+00 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) Ideally, I'd like to set up a default time-stamp value when a TIME is not provided with the input, rather than the de-facto time of 2012-12-12 being 00:00:00, I would like to set a default of 15:45:10. Meaning, my results should look like: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 15:45:10+00 --This one gets the default time. 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) I'm not really sure how to do this in postgres 8.4, I can't find anything in the datetime section of the manual or the sections regarding column default values.

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  • WPF Single Selection Across Multiple ItemsControls

    - by gregsdennis
    Part of my app has a month-view calendar interface, but I'm having trouble with item selection. The interface is set up so that each of the days in the view contains a ListBox of items, much like the month view in Outlook. The problem I'm experiencing is that I need to maintain a single item selection across all of the ListBoxes. Below is a sample window that should adequately describe my situation. I need to maintain a single selection between both ListBoxes. <Window x:Class="StackOverflow.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Numbers}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedObject"/> <ListBox Grid.Column="1" ItemsSource="{Binding Dates}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedObject"/> </Grid> </Window> In this primitive example, I would expect that when the SelectedObject property of my view model gets set to an item that's not in one ListBox, the selection would be removed in that ListBox, but that doesn't happen. I understand that I can simply name each ListBox, and hook into the SelectionChanged event. I'd prefer to not have to do that with an entire month-view calendar. There has to be a better way. In a previous iteration of the app, I was able to create a SelectionManager static class with an attached property that was used to maintain selection. However, I can't use this now as the classes I'm using for my items are not DependencyObjects, and I'd really prefer not to have to create DependencyObject wrapper classes as this will considerably complicate my architecture. Thanks.

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  • Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

    - by mikedevenney
    I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

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  • MySQL Update query with left join and group by

    - by Rob
    I am trying to create an update query and making little progress in getting the right syntax. The following query is working: SELECT t.Index1, t.Index2, COUNT( m.EventType ) FROM Table t LEFT JOIN MEvents m ON (m.Index1 = t.Index1 AND m.Index2 = t.Index2 AND (m.EventType = 'A' OR m.EventType = 'B') ) WHERE (t.SpecialEventCount IS NULL) GROUP BY t.Index1, t.Index2 It creates a list of triplets Index1,Index2,EventCounts. It only does this for case where t.SpecialEventCount is NULL. The update query I am trying to write should set this SpecialEventCount to that count, i.e. COUNT(m.EventType) in the query above. This number could be 0 or any positive number (hence the left join). Index1 and Index2 together are unique in Table t and they are used to identify events in MEvent. How do I have to modify the select query to become an update query? I.e. something like UPDATE Table SET SpecialEventCount=COUNT(m.EventType)..... but I am confused what to put where and have failed with numerous different guesses.

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  • emacs: How to intelligently handle buffer-modified when setting text properties?

    - by Cheeso
    The documentation on Text Properties says: Since text properties are considered part of the contents of the buffer (or string), and can affect how a buffer looks on the screen, any change in buffer text properties marks the buffer as modified. First, I don't understand that policy. Can anyone explain? The text props are not actually saved in the file, when the buffer is saved. So why mark the buffer as modified? For me, buffer-modified indicates "some changes have not yet been saved." but understanding the policy is just for my own amusement. More importantly, is there an already-established way that, in code, I can change syntax text properties on the text in a buffer, while keeping the buffer-modified flag set to whatever it was, prior to those changes? I'm thinking of something like save-excursion. It would be pretty easy to write, but this seems like a common case and I'd like to use the standard function, if possible. For more on the scenario - I have a mode that does a full text scan and sets syntax-tabe properties on the text. After opening a buffer, the scan runs, but it results in a buffer with buffer-modified set to t . As always, thanks.

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  • Capturing wildcards in java generics

    - by Rollerball
    From this orcale java tutorial: The WildcardError example produces a capture error when compiled: import java.util.List; public class WildcardError { void foo(List<?> i) { i.set(0, i.get(0)); } } After this error demonstration, they fix the problem by using a helper method: public class WildcardFixed { void foo(List<?> i) { fooHelper(i); } // Helper method created so that the wildcard can be captured // through type inference. private <T> void fooHelper(List<T> l) { l.set(0, l.get(0)); } } First, they say that the list input parameter (i) is seen as an Object: In this example, the compiler processes the i input parameter as being of type Object. Why then i.get(0) does not return an Object? if it was already passed in as such? Furthermore what is the point of using a <?> when then you have to use an helper method using <T>. Would not be better using directly which can be inferred?

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  • Facebook style messaging system schema design

    - by Jamie
    Hi all, I'm looking to implement a facebook style messaging system (thread messages) into a site of mine. Do you think this schema markup looks okay? Doctrine schema.yml: UserMessage: tableName: user_message actAs: [Timestampable] columns: id: { type: integer(10), primary: true, autoincrement: true } sender_id : { type: integer(10), notnull: true } sender_read: { type: boolean, default: 1 } subject: { type: string(255), notnull: true } message: { type: string(1000), notnull: true } hash: { type: string(32), notnull: true } relations: UserMessageRecipient as Recipient: type: many local: id foreign: message_id UserMessageReply as Reply: type: many local: id foreign: message_id UserMessageReply: tableName: user_message_reply columns: id: { type: integer(10), primary: true, autoincrement: true } user_message_id as message_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } message: { type: string(1000), notnull: true } sender_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } relations: UserMessage as Message: local: message_id foreign: id type: one UserMessageRecipient: tableName: user_message_recipient actAs: [Timestampable] columns: id: { type: integer(10), primary: true, autoincrement: true } user_message_id as message_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } recipient_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } recipient_read: { type: boolean, default: 0 } When I a new reply is made,i'll make sure the boolean for "recipient_read" for each recipient is set to false and of course i'll make sure sender_read is set to false too. I'm using a hash for the URL: http://example.com/user/messages/aadeb18f8bdaea49882ec4d2a8a3c062 (As the id will be starting from 1, i don't wish to have http://example.com/user/messages/1. Yeah, I could start incrementing from a bigger number, but i'd prefer to start at 1.) Is this a good way to go about it? Your thoughts and suggestions would be hugely appreciated. Thanks guys!

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  • Serializability of enum-like class

    - by callisto
    I need to access an enum through a webservice. As a webservice allocates 0 based integers to an enumeration (ignoring preset values in enum definition), I built the following: public class StatusType { public StatusVal Pending { get { return new StatusVal( 1, "Pending"); } } public StatusVal Authorised { get { return new StatusVal(2, "Authorised"); } } public StatusVal Rejected { get { return new StatusVal(3, "Rejected"); } } public StatusVal Sent { get { return new StatusVal(4, "Sent"); } } public StatusVal InActive { get { return new StatusVal(5, "InActive"); } } public List<StatusVal> StatusList() { List<StatusVal> returnVal = new List<StatusVal>(); StatusType sv = new StatusType(); returnVal.Add(sv.Pending); returnVal.Add(sv.Authorised); returnVal.Add(sv.Rejected); returnVal.Add(sv.Sent); returnVal.Add(sv.InActive); return returnVal; } } public class StatusVal { public StatusVal(int a, string b) { this.ID = a; this.Name = b; } public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } I then get the list of StatusVal with the following webmethod: [WebMethod] public List<ATBusiness.StatusVal> GetStatus() { ATBusiness.StatusType a = new ATBusiness.StatusType(); return a.StatusList(); } I cannot however use this webmethod as referring it, I get the error: StatusVal cannot be serialized because it does not have a parameterless constructor. I don't quite understand: should I pass params into the StatusValue type defined as the WebMethod's return Type? I need this to return a list of StatusVals as per the StatusList() method.

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  • Writing an auto-memoizer in Scheme. Help with macro and a wrapper.

    - by kunjaan
    I am facing a couple of problems while writing an auto-memoizer in Scheme. I have a working memoizer function, which creats a hash table and checks if the value is already computed. If it has been computed before then it returns the value else it calls the function. (define (memoizer fun) (let ((a-table (make-hash))) (?(n) (define false-if-fail (?() #f)) (let ((return-val (hash-ref a-table n false-if-fail))) (if return-val return-val (begin (hash-set! a-table n (fun n)) (hash-ref a-table n))))))) Now I want to create a memoize-wrapper function like this: (define (memoize-wrapper function) (set! function (memoizer function))) And hopefully create a macro called def-memo which defines the function with the memoize-wrapper. eg. the macro could expand to (memoizer (define function-name arguments body ...) or something like that. So that I should be able to do : (def-memo (factorial n) (cond ((= n 1) 1) (else (* n (factorial (- n 1)))))) which should create a memoized version of the factorial instead of the normal slow one. My problem is that the The memoize-wrapper is not working properly, it doesnt call the memoized function but the original function. I have no idea how to write a define inside of the macro. How do I make sure that I can get variable lenght arguments and variable length body? How do I then define the function and wrap it around with the memoizer? Thanks a lot.

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  • Sql Server 2005 multiple insert with c#

    - by bottlenecked
    Hello. I have a class named Entry declared like this: class Entry{ string Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} } and then a method that will accept multiple such Entry objects for insertion into the database using ADO.NET: static void InsertEntries(IEnumerable<Entry> entries){ //build a SqlCommand object using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()){ ... const string refcmdText = "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id{0},@name{0});"; int count = 0; string query = string.Empty; //build a large query foreach(var entry in entries){ query += string.Format(refcmdText, count); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@id{0}",count), entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@name{0}",count), entry.Name); count++; } cmd.CommandText=query; //and then execute the command ... } } And my question is this: should I keep using the above way of sending multiple insert statements (build a giant string of insert statements and their parameters and send it over the network), or should I keep an open connection and send a single insert statement for each Entry like this: using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(){ using(SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(){ //assign connection string and open connection ... cmd.Connection = conn; foreach(var entry in entries){ cmd.CommandText= "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id,@name);"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@name", entry.Name); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } } What do you think? Will there be a performance difference in the Sql Server between the two? Are there any other consequences I should be aware of? Thank you for your time!

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  • Optimize a views drawing code

    - by xon1c
    Hi, in a simple drawing application I have a model which has a NSMutableArray curvedPaths holding all the lines the user has drawn. A line itself is also a NSMutableArray, containing the point objects. As I draw curved NSBezier paths, my point array has the following structure: linePoint, controlPoint, controlPoint, linePoint, controlPoint, controlPoint, etc... I thought having one array holding all the points plus control points would be more efficient than dealing with 2 or 3 different arrays. Obviously my view draws the paths it gets from the model, which leads to the actual question: Is there a way to optimize the following code (inside the view's drawRect method) in terms of speed? int lineCount = [[model curvedPaths] count]; // Go through paths for (int i=0; i < lineCount; i++) { // Get the Color NSColor *theColor = [model getColorOfPath:[[model curvedPaths] objectAtIndex:i]]; // Get the points NSArray *thePoints = [model getPointsOfPath:[[model curvedPaths] objectAtIndex:i]]; // Create a new path for performance reasons NSBezierPath *path = [[NSBezierPath alloc] init]; // Set the color [theColor set]; // Move to first point without drawing [path moveToPoint:[[thePoints objectAtIndex:0] myNSPoint]]; int pointCount = [thePoints count] - 3; // Go through points for (int j=0; j < pointCount; j+=3) { [path curveToPoint:[[thePoints objectAtIndex:j+3] myNSPoint] controlPoint1:[[thePoints objectAtIndex:j+1] myNSPoint] controlPoint2:[[thePoints objectAtIndex:j+2] myNSPoint]]; } // Draw the path [path stroke]; // Bye stuff [path release]; [theColor release]; } Thanks, xonic

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  • Managing mandatory fields with triggers

    - by okkesemin
    I would like to set mandatory field backgrounds are red and others are green. So I try to implement below. But I could not set ValueConstraint Nullable property with trigger. Could you help please ? <Window x:Class="TriggerGirilmesigerekenalanlar.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:y="http://infragistics.com/Editors" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Window.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type y:XamTextEditor}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="ValueConstraint" Value="{x:Null}"> <Trigger.Setters> <Setter Property="Background" Value="green"></Setter> </Trigger.Setters> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="y:ValueConstraint.Nullable" Value="false"> <Trigger.Setters> <Setter Property="Background" Value="red"></Setter> </Trigger.Setters> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Window.Resources> <StackPanel> <y:XamTextEditor> <y:XamTextEditor.ValueConstraint> <y:ValueConstraint Nullable="False" ></y:ValueConstraint> </y:XamTextEditor.ValueConstraint> </y:XamTextEditor> <y:XamTextEditor></y:XamTextEditor> </StackPanel> </Window>

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