Search Results

Search found 23890 results on 956 pages for 'issue'.

Page 781/956 | < Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >

• Control Oracle Forms with outside program

  - by user256893

  I work at a company that uses the Forms based Oracle 11i. A lot of employees complain of the redundancy of data entry and I want to write a program that will ease some of that pain since all attempts to ask IT to do it have failed. The problem is, since Oracle Forms are Java based there are no "controls" as there would be on say a windows application or an HTML based form. Does anyone know of a way to tell the PC to (example only) click edit field 3 on the RMA creation form and then enter the data? The only way I can programmatically navigate Oracle is with hotkeys and it's very unreliable. I'm not concerned about the language or learning a new application to resolve this issue. I currently know (elementary to Intermediate levels) Java, VB.NET and will be taking C++ in school. Is there a tool, bridge, element spy of some sort that will allow me to send commands to elements on the forms? edit APC sez: Oracle Forms over the web run as a Java applet. I mention this because it may be relevant to your responses.

  Read the article

• How to share data between SSRS Security and Data Processing extension?

  - by user2904681

  I've spent a lot of time trying to solve the issue pointed in title and have no found a solution yet. I use MS SSRS 2012 with custom Security (based on Form Authentication and ClaimsPrincipal) and Data Processing extensions. In Data extension level I need to apply filter programmatically based on one of the claim which I have access in Security extension level only. Here is the problem: I do know how to pass the claim from Security to Data Processing extension code... What I've tried: IAuthenticationExtension.LogonUser(string userName, string password, string authority) { ... ClaimsPrincipal claimsPrincipal = CreateClaimsPrincipal(...); Thread.CurrentPrincipal = claimsPrincipal; HttpContext.Current.User = claimsPrincipal; ... }; But it doesn't work. It seems SSRS overrides it within either GenericPrincipal or FormsIdentity internally. The possible workaround I'm thinking about (but haven't checked it yet): 1. Create HttpModule which will create HttpContext with all required information (minus: will be invoke getting claims each time - huge operation) 2. Write to custom SQL table to store logged users information which is required for Data extension and then read it 3. try somehow to append to cookies due to LogOn and then read each time on IAuthenticationExtension.GetUserInfo and fill HttpContext None of them seems to be a good solution. I would be grateful for any help/advise/comments.

  Read the article

• Out Of Memory error while executing mysqldump

  - by Nishaz Salam

  Hi, I am getting the following error when trying to backup a database using mysqldump from the command prompt. C:\Documents and Settings\bobC:\Adobe\LiveCycle8.2\mysql\bin\mysqldump --quick --add-locks --lock-tables -c --default-character-set=utf8 --skip-opt -pxxxx -u adobe -r C:\Adobe\LiveCycle8.2\configurationManager\working\upgrade\mysql\adobe. sql -B adobe --port=3306 --host=localhost mysqldump: Out of memory (Needed 10380928 bytes) mysqldump: Got error: 2008: MySQL client ran out of memory when retrieving data from server As you can see i am using the --quick and --skip-opt too; cannot figure out what is causing the issue. The server log has the following messages 100420 15:16:39 InnoDB: Error: cannot allocate 4814100 bytes of memory for InnoDB: a BLOB with malloc! Total allocated memory InnoDB: by InnoDB 33427880 bytes. Operating system errno: 2 InnoDB: Check if you should increase the swap file or InnoDB: ulimits of your operating system. InnoDB: On FreeBSD check you have compiled the OS with InnoDB: a big enough maximum process size. 100420 15:16:40 InnoDB: Warning: could not allocate 3814100 + 1000000 bytes to retrieve InnoDB: a big column. Table name adobe/tb_form_data Any help on this regard is highly appreciated P.S: The backup works fine without any issues when i use the MYSQL Administrator, but since an external app( adobe livecycle installer) uses the above command to backup the database during install, i need to get this working. Thanks, Nishaz Salam

  Read the article

• Open a buffer as a vertical split in VIM

  - by alfredodeza

  If you are editing a file in VIM and then you need to open an existing buffer (e.g. from your buffer list: :buffers) how can you open it in a vertical split? I know that you already can open it with a normal split like: :sbuffer N Wehere N is the buffer number you want, however, the above opens that N buffer horizontally, not vertically. I'm also aware that you can change the window placement after opening and have a Vertical Split like so: Ctrl-W H Ctrl-W L Which will vertically split the window to the right or the left. It seems to me that if there is a sbuffer there should be a vsbuffer but that doesn't exist (not that I am aware of) Also, please note that I am not looking for a plugin to solve this question. I know about a wealth of plugins that will allow you to do this. I am sure I might be missing something that is already there. EDIT: In the best spirit of collaboration, I have created a simple Function with a Mapping if someone else stumbles across this issue and do not want to install a plugin: Function: " Vertical Split Buffer Function function VerticalSplitBuffer(buffer) execute "vert belowright sb" a:buffer endfunction Mapping: " Vertical Split Buffer Mapping command -nargs=1 Vbuffer call VerticalSplitBuffer(<f-args>) This accomplishes the task of opening a buffer in a right split, so for buffer 1, you would call it like: :Vbuffer 1

  Read the article

• Catching 'Last Record' in Coldfusion for IE javascript bug

  - by Simon Hume

  I'm using ColdFusion to pull UK postcodes into an array for display on a Google Map. This happens dynamically from a SQL database, so the numbers can range from 1 to 100+ the script works great, however, in IE (groan) it decides to display one point way off line, over in California somewhere. I fixed this issue in a previous webapp, this was due to the comma between each array item still being present at the end. Works fine in Firefox, Safari etc, but not IE. But, that one was using a set 10 records, so was easy to fix. I just need a little if statement to wrap around my comma to hide it when it hits the last record. I can't seem to get it right. Any tips/suggestions? here is the line of code in question: var address = [<cfloop query="getApplicant"><cfif getApplicant.dbHomePostCode GT ""><cfoutput>'#getApplicant.dbHomePostCode#',</cfoutput></cfif> </cfloop>]; Hopefully someone can help with this rather simple request. I'm just having a bad day at the office!

  Read the article

• Why do Firefox and Opera ignore max-width inside of display: table-cell?

  - by brad

  The following code displays correctly in Chrome or IE (the image is 200px wide). In Firefox and Opera the max-width style is ignored completely. Why does this happen and is there a good work around? Also, which way is most standards compliant? Note One possible work around for this particular situation is to set max-width to 200px. However, this is a rather contrived example. I'm looking for a strategy for a variable width container. <!doctype html> <html> <head> <style> div { display: table-cell; padding: 15px; width: 200px; } div img { max-width: 100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div> <img src="http://farm4.static.flickr.com/3352/4644534211_b9c887b979.jpg" /> <p> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Donec facilisis ante, facilisis posuere ligula feugiat ut. Fusce hendrerit vehicula congue. at ligula dolor. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. leo metus, aliquam eget convallis eget, molestie at massa. </p> </div> </body> </html> [Update] As stated by mVChr below, the w3.org spec states that max-width does not apply to inline elements. I've tried using div img { max-width: 100%; display: block; }, but it does not seem to correct the issue.

  Read the article

• WPF XAML references not resolved via myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()

  - by WPF-it

  I have a WPF container application (with ContentControl host) and a containee application (UserControl). Both are oblivious of each other. Only one XML config file holds the string dllpath of the containee's DLL and full namespace name of the ViewModelClass inside the containee. A generic code in container resolves containee's assembly (Assembly.LoadFrom(dllpath)) and creates the viewmodel's instance using Activator.CreateInstance(vmType). when this viewmodel is hosted inside the ContentControl of the container, and relevant vierwmodel specific ResourceDictionary is added to ContentControl.Resources.MergedDictionaries of the content control of container, so the view loads fine. Now my containee has to host the WPF DataGrid using assembly reference of WPFToolkit.dll from my local C:\Lib folder. The Copy Local reference to the WPFToolkit.dll is added to the .csproj file of the containee's project and its only referred in the UserControl.XAML using its XAML namepsace. This way my bin\debug folder in my containee application, gets the WPFToolkit.dll copied. XAML: xmlns:Controls="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" <Controls:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding AssetList}" ... /> Issue: The moment the ViewModel (i.e. the containee's usercontrol) tries to load itself I get this error. "Cannot find type 'Microsoft.Windows.Controls.DataGrid'. The assembly used when compiling might be different than that used when loading and the type is missing." Hence I tried to load the referenced assemblies of the containee's assembly (myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()) before the viewmodel is hosted. But WPFToolkit isnt there in that list of assemblies! Strange thing is I have another dll referred called Logger.dll in the containee codebase but this one is implemented using C# code behind. So I get its reference correctly resolved in myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(). So does that mean BAML references of assemblies are never resolvable by GetReferencedAssemblies?

  Read the article

• WordPerfect programmers refusing to use anything but assembler

  - by Totophil

  There is a version (popularised by Joel Spolsky) attributing the demise of WordPerfect to a refusal of its programmers to use anything but assembler that led to delay of the first WPwin release and as result eventually to losing the all important battle with Microsoft. There are a few references to programming work being done using assembler in the autobiographical book "Almost Perfect" by W. E. Pete Peterson who used to have a major influence at running the corporation. But these references go back to early 80's when WordPerfect was trying to gain a significant market share by defeating WordStar and not early nineties when the battle with MS took place. I am looking for a second independent source to confirm the assumption. Maybe someone who worked for WordPerfect Corporation at a time, who was close to the company, or had a chance to see the source could clarify the issue. Your help is much appreciated, thanks! Please note that this question is not about any other theories or reasons behind WordPerfect demise. I really just need to clarify whether they used assembler as a primary language for WPwin and (as a bonus really) whether there were discussions held within the corporation about assembler being the right choice. Concisely: Did WPCorp use assembler as a primary language for WPwin? Were discussions held at a time amongst WP Corp staff about assembler being the right choice (was it management or programmers decision)?

  Read the article

• .NET out of memory troubleshooting

  - by bushman

  After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

  Read the article

• Visual Studio 2008: Can't connect to known good TFS 2010 beta 2

  - by p.campbell

  A freshly installed TFS 2010 Beta 2 is at http://serverX:8080/tfs. A Windows 7 developer machine with VS 2008 Pro SP1 and the VS2008 Team Explorer (no SP). The TFS 2008 Service Pack 1 didn't work for me - "None of the products that are addressed by this software update are installed on this computer." The developer machine is able to browse the TFS site at the above URL. The Issue is around trying to add the TFS server into the Team Explorer window in Visual Studio 2008. Here's a screenshot showing the error: unable to connect to this Team Foundation Server. Possible reasons for failure include: The Team Foundation Server name, port number or protocol is incorrect. The Team Foundation Server is offline. Password is expired or incorrect. The TFS server is up and running properly. Firewall ports are open, and is accessible via the browser on the dev machine!! larger image Question: how can you connect from VS 2008 Pro to a TFS 2010 Beta 2 server? Resolution Here's how I solved this problem: installed VS 2008 Team Explorer as above. re-install VS 2008 Service Pack 1 when adding a TFS server to Team Explorer, you MUST specify the URL as such: http://[tfsserver]:[port]/[vdir]/[projectCollection] in my case above, it was http://serverX:8080/tfs/AppDev-TestProject you cannot simply add the TFS server name and have VS look for all Project Collections on the server. TFS 2010 has a new URL (by default) and VS 2008 doesn't recognize how to gather that list.

  Read the article

• Rails CSS not Loading using Heroku

  - by eWizardII

  I have the following site set up here on Heroku - http://www.peerinstruction.net/users/sign_up the issue is that I have updated the css yet it is not being actively reflected on the site, it just shows a textbox, with some edited/custom fonts. I have attached the css file in the following gist - https://gist.github.com/f74b626c54ecbb60bbde The signup page controller: !!! Strict %html %head %title= yield(:title) || "Untitled" = stylesheet_link_tag 'application', 'web-app-theme/base', 'web-app-theme/themes/activo/style', 'web-app-theme/override' = javascript_include_tag :defaults = csrf_meta_tag = yield(:head) %body #container #header %h1 %a{:href => "/"} Peer Instruction Network #user-navigation %ul.wat-cf %li .content.login .flash - flash.each do |type, message| %div{ :class => "message #{type}" } %p= message = form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :url => session_path(resource_name), :html => { :class => "form login" }) do |f| .group.wat-cf .left= f.label :email, :class => "label right" .right= f.text_field :email, :class => "text_field" .group.wat-cf .left= f.label :password, :class => "label right" .right= f.password_field :password, :class => "text_field" .group.wat-cf .right %button.button{ :type => "submit" } Login /= link_to "Sign In", destroy_user_session_path #box = yield The signup pages haml file: %h2 .block .content.login .flash - flash.each do |type, message| %div{ :class => "message #{type}" } %p= message = form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :url => registration_path(resource_name)) do |f| = devise_error_messages! %div = f.label :firstname %br/ = f.text_field :firstname %div = f.label :middlename %br/ = f.text_field :middlename %div = f.label :lastname %br/ = f.text_field :lastname %div = f.label :email %br/ = f.email_field :email %div = f.label :password %br/ = f.password_field :password %div = f.label :academic %br/ = f.text_field :academic %div= f.submit "Continue" = render :partial => "devise/shared/links" I used web-app-theme to create an activo theme and then modify it.

  Read the article

• Full Text Search in SQL Server 2008 shows wrong display_item for Thai language

  - by ensecoz

  I am working with SQL Server 2008. My task is to investigate the issue where FTS cannot find the right result for Thai. First, I have the table which enables the FTS on the column 'ItemName' which is nvarchar. The Catalog is created with the Thai Language. Note that the Thai language is one of the languages that doesn't separate the word by spaces, so '????' '???' '????' are written like this in a sentence: '???????????' In the table, there are many rows that include the word (????); for example row#1 (ItemName: '???????????') On the webpage, I try to search for '????' but SQL Server cannot find it. So I try to investigate it by trying the following query in SQL Server: select * from sys.dm_fts_parser(N'"???????????"', 1054, 0, 0) ...to see how the words are broken. The first one is the text to be broken. The second parameter is to specify that we're using Thai (WorkBreaker, so on). Here is the result: row#1 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#2 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#3 (display_item: '??', source_item: '???????????') Notice that the first and second row display the wrong display_item '?' in the '????' isn't even Thai characters. '?' in '????' is not a Thai character either. So the question is where did those alien characters come from? I guess this why I cannot search for '????' because the word breaker is broken and keeping the wrong character in the indexes. Please help!

  Read the article

• Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

  - by prodigitalson

  Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

  Read the article

• Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

  - by TheStijn

  hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

  Read the article

• .NET Hashtable - "Same" key, different hashes

  - by Simon Lindgren

  Is it possible for two .net strings to have different hashes? I have a Hashtable with amongst others the key "path". When I loop through the elements in the table to print it, i can see that the key exists. When trying to looking it up however, there is no matching element. Debugging suggests that the string I'm looking for has a different hash than the one I'm supplying as the key. This code is in a Castle Monorail project, using brail as a view engine. The key I'm looking for is inserted by a brail line like this: UrlHelper.Link(node.CurrentPage.LinkText, {@params: {@path: "/Page1"}}) Then, in this method (in a custom IRoutingRule): public string CreateUrl(System.Collections.IDictionary parameters) { PrintDictionaryToLog(parameters); string url; if (parameters.Contains("path")) { url = (string)parameters["path"]; } else { return null; } } The key is printed to the log, but the function returns null. I didn't know this could even be a problem with .net strings, but I guess this is some kind of encoding issue? Oh, and this is running mono.

  Read the article

• Memory leak dyld dlopen

  - by imthi

  I am getting leak and I cannot detect from where this is happening. The stack trace does not give full info after dyld open. For few leaks I am not getting any stack trace info. All I get is only object memory address. Is anyone else facing the same issue. I am using XCode 3.2 on show leopard. 18 0x103038 17 0x1033c7 16 0x1034a1 15 0x90145f48 14 dyld dlopen 13 dyld dyld::link(ImageLoader*, bool, ImageLoader::RPathChain const&) 12 dyld ImageLoader::link(ImageLoader::LinkContext const&, bool, bool, ImageLoader::RPathChain const&) 11 dyld ImageLoader::recursiveLoadLibraries(ImageLoader::LinkContext const&, bool, ImageLoader::RPathChain const&) 10 dyld dyld::libraryLocator(char const*, bool, char const*, ImageLoader::RPathChain const*) 9 dyld dyld::load(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&) 8 dyld dyld::loadPhase0(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 7 dyld dyld::loadPhase1(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 6 dyld dyld::loadPhase3(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 5 dyld dyld::loadPhase4(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 4 dyld dyld::loadPhase5(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 3 dyld dyld::mkstringf(char const*, ...) 2 dyld strdup 1 dyld mallocenter

  Read the article

• asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

  - by Jopache

  I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

  Read the article

• Tableview not updating correctly after adding person

  - by tazboy

  I have to be missing something simple here but it escapes me. After the user enters a new person to a mutable array I want to update the table. The mutable array is the datasource. I believe my issue lies within cellForRowAtIndexPath. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { TextFieldCell *customCell = (TextFieldCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"TextCellID"]; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"cell"]; if (indexPath.row == 0) { if (customCell == nil) { NSArray *nibObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"TextFieldCell" owner:nil options:nil]; for (id currentObject in nibObjects) { if ([currentObject isKindOfClass:[TextFieldCell class]]) customCell = (TextFieldCell *)currentObject; } } customCell.nameTextField.delegate = self; cell = customCell; } else { if (cell == nil) { cell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:@"cell"]; cell.textLabel.text = [[self.peopleArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row-1] name]; NSLog(@"PERSON AT ROW %d = %@", indexPath.row-1, [[self.peopleArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row-1] name]); NSLog(@"peopleArray's Size = %d", [self.peopleArray count]); } } return cell; } When I first load the view everything is great. This is what prints: PERSON AT ROW 0 = Melissa peopleArray's Size = 2 PERSON AT ROW 1 = Dave peopleArray's Size = 2 After I add someone to that array I get this: PERSON AT ROW 1 = Dave peopleArray's Size = 3 PERSON AT ROW 2 = Tom peopleArray's Size = 3 When I add a second person I get: PERSON AT ROW 2 = Tom peopleArray's Size = 4 PERSON AT ROW 3 = Ralph peopleArray's Size = 4 Why is not printing everyone in the array? This pattern continues and it only ever prints two people, and it's always the last two people. What the heck am I missing?

  Read the article

• What is causing my HTTP server to fail with "exit status -1073741819"?

  - by Keeblebrox

  As an exercise I created a small HTTP server that generates random game mechanics, similar to this one. I wrote it on a Windows 7 (32-bit) system and it works flawlessly. However, when I run it on my home machine, Windows 7 (64-bit), it always fails with the same message: exit status -1073741819. I haven't managed to find anything on the web which references that status code, so I don't know how important it is. Here's code for the server, with redundancy abridged: package main import ( "fmt" "math/rand" "time" "net/http" "html/template" ) // Info about a game mechanic type MechanicInfo struct { Name, Desc string } // Print a mechanic as a string func (m MechanicInfo) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("%s: %s", m.Name, m.Desc) } // A possible game mechanic var ( UnkillableObjects = &MechanicInfo{"Avoiding Unkillable Objects", "There are objects that the player cannot touch. These are different from normal enemies because they cannot be destroyed or moved."} //... Race = &MechanicInfo{"Race", "The player must reach a place before the opponent does. Like \"Timed\" except the enemy as a \"timer\" can be slowed down by the player's actions, or there may be multiple enemies being raced against."} ) // Slice containing all game mechanics var GameMechanics []*MechanicInfo // Pseudorandom number generator var prng *rand.Rand // Get a random mechanic func RandMechanic() *MechanicInfo { i := prng.Intn(len(GameMechanics)) return GameMechanics[i] } // Initialize the package func init() { prng = rand.New(rand.NewSource(time.Now().Unix())) GameMechanics = make([]*MechanicInfo, 34) GameMechanics[0] = UnkillableObjects //... GameMechanics[33] = Race } // serving var index = template.Must(template.ParseFiles( "templates/_base.html", "templates/index.html", )) func randMechHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, req *http.Request) { mechanics := [3]*MechanicInfo{RandMechanic(), RandMechanic(), RandMechanic()} if err := index.Execute(w, mechanics); err != nil { http.Error(w, err.Error(), http.StatusInternalServerError) } } func main() { http.HandleFunc("/", randMechHandler) if err := http.ListenAndServe(":80", nil); err != nil { panic(err) } } In addition, the unabridged code, the _base.html template, and the index.html template. What could be causing this issue? Is there a process for debugging a cryptic exit status like this?

  Read the article

• broken SQL 2008 SP1 Web Edition (can not login with SSMS)

  - by gerryLowry

  Scenario: My installation of SQL Server 2008 Web Edition SP1 was working properly. Since I've recently joined Microsoft's Website Spark*, I removed SQL2008 and installed SQL 2008 again using my Website Spark edition and license from the MSDN download site. Next, I updated SQL 2008 to SP1 (this is required because I'm running Windows 2008 Server R2 Web edition). When I launch SSMS (SQL Server Management Studio), "User name" is "myhost\Administrator" and is greyed out so it can not be changed. When I installed my Website Spark version, I did not include "myhost\Administrator" when I was configuring SQL 2008 service accounts. Instead I created an administrator account "myhost\mySQLaccount". ERROR MESSAGE: Connect to Server (X) Cannot connect to (local) Additional information: Login failed for user 'myhost'Admistrator' (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18456) I tried to use the SQL Server Configuration Manager to correct this problem but could not find any useful way to fix this issue. How to I fix this problem? Connect to Server ... Server type: Database Engine Server name: (local) Authentication: Windows Authentication Please advise. Thank you. Gerry * http://www.microsoft.com/web/websitespark/default.aspx

  Read the article

• Aggregating / Collecting AJAX requests

  - by Ganesh Shankar

  I have situation where a user can manipulate a large set of data (presented in a table) by using a bunch of filters represented as checkboxes. The page is AJAXed up so the user doesn't have to wait for a full page refresh every time they click a filter. The way it's currently implemented is by having an event handler watch all the checkboxes and request filtered data from the server when a click event is triggered. This works fine. However, there is a usability & performance issue with doing it this way. For example, if a user clicks 6 checkboxes, 6 AJAX requests are triggered and they all come back at various intervals causing the page to be updated 6 times. This will most probably annoy the user and seems rather inefficient. I want to put some kind of timeout on the event handler to do something like this: "Wait for 1 second and if there are no more filters clicked trigger the AJAX request". However, at the moment I've only been able to delay all 6 requests by 1 second. I'm not sure how to aggregate / collect the filter info into 1 AJAX request. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Java: Exception in thread main java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError

  - by cath

  I am trying to get the Red5 Flash Media Server working on my computer. I have installed it, but when I run the server I get this error Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/red5/server/Bootstrap Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.red5.server.Bootstrap at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:217) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:205) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:321) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:294) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:266) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:334) Could not find the main class: org.red5.server.Bootstrap. Program will exit. I came across this link where someone had the same issue: http://trac.red5.org/ticket/762 It looks like they ran this command: export CLASSPATH=3D$RED5_HOME/lib/slf4j-api-1.5.10.jar:$RED5_HOME/lib/logback- core-0.9.18.jar:$RED5_HOME/lib/logback-classic-0.9.18.jar I have red5 installed in /usr/share/red5, so I ran this: export CLASSPATH=3D$/usr/share/red5/lib/slf4j-api-1.5.10.jar:$/usr/share/red5/lib/logback-core-0.9.18.jar:$/usr/share/red5/lib/logback-classic-0.9.18.jar Yet despite all this I am still seeing the same error message.

  Read the article

• maven-release-plugin: Perform fails with 'working directory "...workspace\target\checkout\workspace"

  - by Ed

  Hi, I have maven project that fails when release:perform is called, though release;prepare works as expected. I have found the bug report (below) which certainly seems to resemble the issue I have but not entirely sure I understand the problem: MRELEASE516 The last few lines of output I get: [INFO] Executing: cmd.exe /X /C "p4 -d E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout -p 10.20.0.38:1666 client -d myProjectWorkspace-MavenSCM-E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout" [INFO] Executing goals 'deploy'... [WARNING] Base directory is a file. Using base directory as POM location. [WARNING] Maven will be executed in interactive mode, but no input stream has been configured for this MavenInvoker instance. [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Error executing Maven. Working directory "E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout\workspace" does not exist! From reading the bug report the possible cause of the error is related to my modules' structure, I've tried to outline it below: /workspace | |+ pom.xml (root pom whose parent is the build pom, | calling release:perform on this pom) | [Modules: moduleA and moduleB] | |- moduleA |+ pom.xml (parent is also build pom) |+ build/pom.xml (the build pom - no custom parent) |- moduleB |+ pom.xml (parent is build pom) It seems that the root pom should be in some common directory inside 'workspace' from the error but tried that and doesn't work, nor make sense as to why I need it. What does the warning Base directory is a file want me to do instead?! It then figures that the base directory is workspace which then means the working directory is not found...any ideas? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Has anyone used Ant4Eclipse with Project Lombok?

  - by gmcnaughton

  Has anyone successfully used Ant4Eclipse (http://www.ant4eclipse.org/) in combination with Project Lombok (http://projectlombok.org/)? Lombok provides annotations for removing boilerplate code; however, it doesn't appear to play nicely with Ant4Eclipse (headless compilation of Eclipse projects). For instance, the following Lombok sample compiles fine in Eclipse and javac: import lombok.Getter; public class LombokTest { private @Getter String foo; public LombokTest() { String s = this.getFoo(); } } But compiling with Ant4Eclipse's <buildJdtProject> yields the following: [javac] Compiling 1 source file [javac] ---------- [javac] 1. WARNING in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 4) [javac] private @Getter String foo; [javac] ^^^ [javac] The field LombokTest.foo is never read locally [javac] ---------- [javac] 2. ERROR in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 8) [javac] String s = this.getFoo(); [javac] ^^^^^^ [javac] The method getFoo() is undefined for the type LombokTest [javac] ---------- Has anyone successfully used these libraries together? Thanks! Edit: sample project demonstrating the issue

  Read the article

• Page_PreRender fires twice on first load in session

  - by awe

  I have an issue when I access the application, I notice that Page_PreRender is fired twice. This only happens the first time in a new session. It does not happen if I refresh the page, or on postbacks. I use .NET framework 3.5 and the built in ajax functionality. I think the problem is not related to img tag with empty src attribute as I have seen other posts has mentioned, because I see this in both FireFox and IE. The posts I saw about this stated that this was not a problem in IE. I have also searched and found no img tags with empty src in the generated page source, so it should not be this. I have also made a simple test page where I have included some of the functionality, and this does not happen. Here I have also tried to reproduce the empty src bug by including <img src="" /> on the page, but this does not trigger this problem. Have anyone any suggestions on what happens? Note: It is the entire page cycle that is firing twice, not just render.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >