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  • Using PHP SoapClient with Java JAX-WS RI (Webservice)

    - by Kau-Boy
    For a new project, we want to build a web service in JAVA using JAX-WS RI and for the web service client, we want to use PHP. In a small tutorial about JAX-WS RI I found this example web service: package webservice; import javax.jws.WebService; import javax.jws.soap.SOAPBinding; import javax.jws.soap.SOAPBinding.Style; @WebService @SOAPBinding(style = Style.RPC) public class Calculator { public long addValues(int val1, int val2) { return val1 + val2; } } and for the web server: package webservice; import javax.xml.ws.Endpoint; import webservice.Calculator; public class CalculatorServer { public static void main(String args[]) { Calculator server = new Calculator(); Endpoint endpoint = Endpoint.publish("http://localhost:8080/calculator", server); } } Starting the Server and browsing the WDSL with the URL "http://localhost:8080/calculator?wsdl" works perfectly. But calling the web service from PHP fails My very simple PHP call looks like this: $client = new SoapClient('http://localhost:8080/calculator?wsdl', array('trace' => 1)); echo 'Sum: '.$client->addValues(4, 5); But than I either get a "Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 60 seconds exceeded..." or a "Uncaught SoapFault exception: [WSDL] SOAP-ERROR: Parsing WSDL: Couldn't load from 'http://localhost:8080/calculator?wsdl' ..." exception. I have tested the PHP SoapClient() with other web services and they work without any issues. Is there a known issue with JAX-WS RI in comibation with PHP, or is there an error in my web service I didn't see? I have found this bug report, but even updating to PHP 5.3.2 doesn't solved the problem. Can anyone tell me what to do? And by the way, my java version running on Windows 7 x64 is the following: java version "1.6.0_17" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.3-b01, mixed mode)

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  • Movies recommendation engine conceptual database design

    - by Supyxy
    I am working at an movie recommendations engine and i'm facing a DB design issue. My actual database looks like this: MOVIES [ID,TITLE] KEYWORDS_TABLE [ID,KEY_ID] - where ID is Foreign Key for MOVIES.id and KEY_ID is a key for a text keywords table This is not the entire DB, but i showed here what's important for my problem. I have about 50,000 movies and about 1,3 milion keywords correlations, and basically my algorithm consists in extracting all the who have the same keywords with a given movie, then ordering them by the number of keywords correlations. For example i looked for a movie similar to 'Cast away' and it returned 'Six days and six nights' because it had the most keywords correlations (4 keywords): Island Airplane crash Stranded Pilot The algorithm is based on more factors, but this one is the most important and the most difficult for the approach. Basically what i do now is getting all the movies that have at least one keyword similar to the given movie and then ordering them by other factors which are not important for a moment. There wouldn't be any problem if there weren't so many records, a query lasts in many cases up to 10-20 seconds and some of them return even over 5000 movies. Someone already helped me on here (thanks Mark Byers) with optimizing the query but that's not enough because it takes too longer SELECT DISTINCT M.title FROM keywords_table K1 JOIN keywords_table K2 ON K2.key_id = K1.key_id JOIN movies M ON K2.id = M.id WHERE K1.id = 4 So i thought it would be better if i pre-made those lists with movies recommendations for each movie, but i'm not sure how to design the tables.. whatever is it a good idea or how would you take this approach?

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  • How to speed up the reading of innerHTML in IE8?

    - by Dennis Cheung
    I am using JQuery with the DataTable plugin, and now I have a big performnce issue on the following line. aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 I have a ajax call, and result string in HTML format. I convert them into HTML nodes, and that part is ok. var $result = $('<div/>').html(result).find("*:first"); // simlar to $result=$(result) but much more faster in Fx Then I activate enable the result from a plain table to a sortable datatable. The speed is acceptable in Fx (around 4sec for 900 rows), but unacceptable in IE8 (more then 100 seconds). I check it deep using the buildin profiler, and found the above single line take all 99.9% of the time, how can I speed it up? anything I missed? nTrs = oSettings.nTable.getElementsByTagName('tbody')[0].childNodes; for ( i=0, iLen=nTrs.length ; i<iLen ; i++ ) { if ( nTrs[i].nodeName == "TR" ) { iThisIndex = oSettings.aoData.length; oSettings.aoData.push( { "nTr": nTrs[i], "_iId": oSettings.iNextId++, "_aData": [], "_anHidden": [], "_sRowStripe": '' } ); oSettings.aiDisplayMaster.push( iThisIndex ); aLocalData = oSettings.aoData[iThisIndex]._aData; nTds = nTrs[i].childNodes; jInner = 0; for ( j=0, jLen=nTds.length ; j<jLen ; j++ ) { if ( nTds[j].nodeName == "TD" ) { aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 jInner++; } } } }

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  • Loading 2 Singletons With Dependencies when an app is opened (appDelegate / appDidBecomeActive) iPhone SDK

    - by taber
    I'm trying to load two standard-issue style singletons: http://cocoawithlove.com/2008/11/singletons-appdelegates-and-top-level.html when my iPhone app is loaded. Here's my code: - (void) applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // first, restore user prefs [AppState loadState]; // then, initialize the camera [[CameraModule sharedCameraModule] initCamera]; } My "camera module" has code that checks a property of the AppState singleton. But I think what's happening is a race condition where the camera module singleton is trying to access the AppState property while it's in the middle of being initialized (so the property is nil, and it's re-initializing AppState). I'd really like to keep these separate, instead of just throwing one (or both) into the App Delegate. Has anyone else seen something like this? What kind of workaround did you use, or what would you suggest? Thanks in advance! Here's the loadState method: + (void)loadState { @synchronized([AppState class]) { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *file = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"prefs.archive"]; Boolean saveFileExists = [[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:file]; if(saveFileExists) { sharedAppState = [[NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:file] retain]; } else { [AppState sharedAppState]; } } }

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  • Convert C# Silverlight App To AZURE CLOUD Platform?!?!

    - by Goober
    The Scenario I've been following Brad Abrams Silverlight tutorial on his blog.... I have tried following Brads "How to deploy your app to the Cloud" tutorial however i'm struggling with it, even though it is in the same context as the first tutorial.... The Question Is the application structure essentially the same as the original "non-cloud based version"!? If not, which parts are different? (I get that there is a Cloud Service project added to the solution) - but what else?! Connection String Issue In my "Non-Cloud based application", I make use of the ADO.Net Entity Framework to communicate with my database. The connection string in my web.config file looks like: <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=CHASEDIGITALWS3;Initial Catalog=InmarsatZenith;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /></connectionStrings> However However the connection string that I get from SQL AZURE looks like: Server=tcp:k12ioy1rsi.ctp.database.windows.net;Database=master;User ID=simongilbert;Password=myPassword;Trusted_Connection=False; So how do I go about merging the two when I move the "non-cloud based application" to THE CLOUD?! Any help regarding converting a silverlight application to a cloud service and deploying it would be greatly appreciated

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  • file upload working in one and not the other help

    - by rod
    Hi All, I have a web application which has 2 different versions deployed. 1 is a ASP.Net web forms version and the other is an ASP.Net MVC version I have a File Upload page which dynamically creates a directory folder for the target location of the file to be uploaded to. The application is using Forms Authentication for outside users and Integrated Windows Authentication for inside the network users. I have an issue where a user can upload a file in the ASP.Net Web Forms version fine. But when the same user tries to upload the file in the MVC version the user gets a File.IO permission error. Here's a kicker: I can upload the same file in both versions. The user is in a remote location but I believe they're still inside the network because they can work on the other parts of the application just fine. Possible clues: In the event log there's an info that says Event code:4005 Forms authentication failed for the request. Reason: Ticket supplied was invalid. What would be your initial thoughts on why this is happening? Thanks, Rod.

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  • How do I add a comment to an image using jQuery

    - by marcamillion
    So I am trying to replicate Facebook's picture tagging functionality, and I have the functionality that onClick, a box is created and there is a comment box. Now the issue is that I want to be able to (without doing any back-end processing) take the input from the input field and add it in some form to the underlying image area that they have selected. I would also like to add a small image to that area, that shows that a comment is there. How do I do that? See the code below for what I have for the comment box: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var tag_box = $("<div>").appendTo("body").css({ "width": "40px", "height":"40px", "border":"4px solid #000000", "position":"absolute", "display":"none", "padding":"15px" }); var comment_box = $("<form action='#'><input id='comment' type='text' name='comment' placeholder='Add comment'></form>").appendTo(tag_box).css({"position":"absolute"}); $("#image-wrapper").live('click', function(e){ tag_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 40, "top": e.pageY - 40, "display": "block" }) .after(comment_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 65, "top": e.pageY + 40 })); }); }); </script> Now...whenever the user presses enter, the info in the comment box is appended to the URL like so: .html?comment=comment value# Thanks

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  • 404 Not Found When Requesting URI With Encoded Patameters

    - by Richard Knop
    I am pretty sure this is some problem with the Apache configuration because it used to work on the previous hosting provider with the same PHP/MySQL configuration. In my application, users are able to delete photos by going to URIs like this: http://example.com/my-account/remove-media/id/9/ret/my-account%252Fedit-album%252Fid%252F1 The paramater id is an id of a photo to be removed, the parameter ret is a relative URL where user should be redirected after the removal of the photo but after clicking on a link like that I get 404 Not Found error with the text: Not Found The requested URL /public/my-account/remove-media/id/9/ret/my-account/edit-album/id/1 was not found on this server. Though it used to work on my previous hosting provider so I guess it is just some easy Apache configuration issue? One more thing, there is a htaccess file that changes the document root to /public: RewriteEngine On php_value upload_max_filesize 15M php_value post_max_size 15M php_value max_execution_time 200 php_value max_input_time 200 # Exclude some directories from URI rewriting #RewriteRule ^(dir1|dir2|dir3) - [L] RewriteRule ^\.htaccess$ - [F] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ="" RewriteRule ^.*$ /public/index.php [NC,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/public/.*$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /public/$1 RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^public/.*$ /public/index.php [NC,L] In the public folder there is a second htaccess file for MVC: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ /index.php [NC,L] # Turn off magic quotes #php_flag magic_quotes_gpc off

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  • sybase - fails to use index unless string is hard-coded

    - by Garrett
    I'm using Sybase 12.5.3 (ASE); I'm new to Sybase though I've worked with MSSQL pretty extensively. I'm running into a scenario where a stored procedure is really very slow. I've traced the issue to a single SELECT stmt for a relatively large table. Modifying that statement dramatically improves the performance of the procedure (and reverting it drastically slows it down; i.e., the SELECT stmt is definitely the culprit). -- Sybase optimizes and uses multi-column index... fast!<br> SELECT ID,status,dateTime FROM myTable WHERE status in ('NEW','SENT') ORDER BY ID -- Sybase does not use index and does very slow table scan<br> SELECT ID,status,dateTime FROM myTable WHERE status in (select status from allowableStatusValues) ORDER BY ID The code above is an adapted/simplified version of the actual code. Note that I've already tried recompiling the procedure, updating statistics, etc. I have no idea why Sybase ASE would choose an index only when strings are hard-coded and choose a table scan when choosing from another table. Someone please give me a clue, and thank you in advance.

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  • Handling Errors in PHP

    - by Mike
    I have a custom class that, when called, will redirect to a page and send a 'message_type' and 'message' variable via GET. When the page opens it checks for these variables and displays a 'success', 'warning', or 'error' message depending on the 'message_type' variable. I made it so the user thinks they stay on the same page. It also allows for other variables to be passed along with the message. Is this good practice, or should I just start using exceptions? Example: //Call a static function that will redirect to a page, with an error message RedirectWithMessage::go('somepage.php', MessageType::ERROR, 'Error message here.'); The following checkMessage() function is an include file: function checkMessage() { if((isset($_GET['message_type']) && strlen($_GET['message_type'])) && (isset($_GET['message']) && strlen($_GET['message_type']))) { DisplayMessage::display($_GET['message_type'], $_GET['message']); return true; } return false; } On the page that is redirected to, call checkMessage(); //If a message is received, display it. If not, do nothing checkMessage(); I know this might be vague, and I can supply more code if necessary. I guess the issue is that I don't have much experience using exceptions, but I think they seem cumbersome (writing try-catch blocks everywhere). Please let me know if I am making this more difficult for myself or if there is a better solution. Thanks! Mike

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  • WordPerfect programmers refusing to use anything but assembler

    - by Totophil
    There is a version (popularised by Joel Spolsky) attributing the demise of WordPerfect to a refusal of its programmers to use anything but assembler that led to delay of the first WPwin release and as result eventually to losing the all important battle with Microsoft. There are a few references to programming work being done using assembler in the autobiographical book "Almost Perfect" by W. E. Pete Peterson who used to have a major influence at running the corporation. But these references go back to early 80's when WordPerfect was trying to gain a significant market share by defeating WordStar and not early nineties when the battle with MS took place. I am looking for a second independent source to confirm the assumption. Maybe someone who worked for WordPerfect Corporation at a time, who was close to the company, or had a chance to see the source could clarify the issue. Your help is much appreciated, thanks! Please note that this question is not about any other theories or reasons behind WordPerfect demise. I really just need to clarify whether they used assembler as a primary language for WPwin and (as a bonus really) whether there were discussions held within the corporation about assembler being the right choice. Concisely: Did WPCorp use assembler as a primary language for WPwin? Were discussions held at a time amongst WP Corp staff about assembler being the right choice (was it management or programmers decision)?

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  • CheckBox won't toggle in Android ListView with focusable="false"

    - by user3563124
    I'm creating a ListView with a custom Adapter for displaying my entries. Each row contains a checkbox, and my adapter contains the following code: CheckBox cb = (CheckBox) v.findViewById(R.id.item_sold); cb.setChecked(p.isSold); setupCheckboxListener(cb, v, position); ... private void setupCheckboxListener(CheckBox check, final View v, final int position) { check.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { CheckBox cb = (CheckBox) v; if (cb.isChecked()) { System.out.println("Should become false!"); cb.setChecked(false); } else { System.out.println("Should become true!"); cb.setChecked(true); } } }); My row XML file includes the following: <CheckBox android:id="@+id/item_sold" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="0.10" android:layout_gravity="center" android:gravity="center" android:focusable="false" android:clickable="false"/> But anytime I press one of the checkboxes, check.isChecked() returns true, even if the box is unchecked. I even checked to make sure that the checkboxes were distinct and weren't picking up just the last value/etc. Setting up the listeners inline instead of in a method doesn't seem to help, either. It's literally just the isChecked() condition that isn't working appropriately - it seems to always give me the inverse value. Setting an onClick on the row is not acceptable in this case because I need to allow row selection for something else. What could be causing this issue?

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  • SQL Server Index cost

    - by yellowstar
    I have read that one of the tradeoffs for adding table indexes in SQL Server is the increased cost of insert/update/delete queries to benefit the performance of select queries. I can conceptually understand what happens in the case of an insert because SQL Server has to write entries into each index matching the new rows, but update and delete are a little more murky to me because I can't quite wrap my head around what the database engine has to do. Let's take DELETE as an example and assume I have the following schema (pardon the pseudo-SQL) TABLE Foo col1 int ,col2 int ,col3 int ,col4 int PRIMARY KEY (col1,col2) INDEX IX_1 col3 INCLUDE col4 Now, if I issue the statement DELETE FROM Foo WHERE col1=12 AND col2 > 34 I understand what the engine must do to update the table (or clustered index if you prefer). The index is set up to make it easy to find the range of rows to be removed and do so. However, at this point it also needs to update IX_1 and the query that I gave it gives no obvious efficient way for the database engine to find the rows to update. Is it forced to do a full index scan at this point? Does the engine read the rows from the clustered index first and generate a smarter internal delete against the index? It might help me to wrap my head around this if I understood better what is going on under the hood, but I guess my real question is this. I have a database that is spending a significant amount of time in delete and I'm trying to figure out what I can do about it. When I display the execution plan for the deletion, it just shows an entry for "Clustered Index Delete" on table Foo which lists in the details section the other indices that need to be updated but I don't get any indication of the relative cost of these other indices. Are they all equal in this case? Is there some way that I can estimate the impact of removing one or more of these indices without having to actually try it?

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  • deadlock because of foreign key?

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using SQL Server 2008 Enterprise. I met with deadlock in the following store procedure, but because of my fault, I did not record the deadlock graph. But now I can not reproduce deadlock issue. I want to have a postmortem to find the root cause of deadlock to avoid deadlock in the future. The deadlock happens on delete statement. For the delete statement, Param1 is a column of table FooTable, Param1 is a foreign key of another table (refers to another primary key clustered index column of the other table). There is no index on Param1 itself for table FooTable. FooTable has another column which is used as clustered primary key, but not Param1 column. Here is my guess why there is deadlock, and I want to let people review whether my analysis is correct? Since Param1 column has no index, there will be a table scan, and will acquire table level lock, because of foreign key, the delete operation will also need to check master table (e.g. to acquire lock on master table); Some operation on master table acquires master table lock, but want to acquire lock on FooTable; (1) and (2) cause cycle lock which makes deadlock happen. My analysis correct? Any reproduce scenario? create PROCEDURE [dbo].[FooProc] ( @Param1 int ,@Param2 int ,@Param3 int ) AS DELETE FooTable WHERE Param1 = @Param1 INSERT INTO FooTable ( Param1 ,Param2 ,Param3 ) VALUES ( @Param1 ,@Param2 ,@Param3 ) DECLARE @ID bigint SET @ID = ISNULL(@@Identity,-1) IF @ID > 0 BEGIN SELECT IdentityStr FROM FooTable WHERE ID = @ID END thanks in advance, George

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  • Is a "factory" method the right pattern?

    - by jdt141
    Hey all - So I'm working to improve an existing implementation. I have a number of polymorphic classes that are all composed into a higher level container class. The problem I'm dealing with at the moment is that the higher level container class, well, sucks. It looks something like this, which I really don't have a problem with (as the polymorphic classes in the container should be public). My real issue is the constructor... /* * class1 and class 2 derive from the same superclass */ class Container { public: boost::shared_ptr<ComposedClass1> class1; boost::shared_ptr<ComposedClass2> class2; private: ... } /* * Constructor - builds the objects that we need in this container. */ Container::Container(some params) { class1.reset(new ComposedClass1(...)); class2.reset(new ComposedClass2(...)); } What I really need is to make this container class more re-usable. By hard-coding up the member objects and instantiating them, it basically isn't and can only be used once. A factory is one way to build what I need (potentially by supplying a list of objects and their specific types to be created?) Other ways to get around this problem? Seems like someone should have solved it before... Thanks!

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  • Can a large transaction log cause cpu hikes to occur

    - by Simon Rigby
    Hello all, I have a client with a very large database on Sql Server 2005. The total space allocated to the db is 15Gb with roughly 5Gb to the db and 10 Gb to the transaction log. Just recently a web application that is connecting to that db is timing out. I have traced the actions on the web page and examined the queries that execute whilst these web operation are performed. There is nothing untoward in the execution plan. The query itself used multiple joins but completes very quickly. However, the db server's CPU hikes to 100% for a few seconds. The issue occurs when several simultaneous users are working on the system (when I say multiple .. read about 5). Under this timeouts start to occur. I suppose my question is, can a large transaction log cause issues with CPU performance? There is about 12Gb of free space on the disk currently. The configuration is a little out of my hands but the db and log are both on the same physical disk. I appreciate that the log file is massive and needs attending to, but I'm just looking for a heads up as to whether this may cause CPU spikes (ie trying to find the correlation). The timeouts are a recent thing and this app has been responsive for a few years (ie its a recent manifestation). Many Thanks,

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  • How do I simulate the usage of a sequence of web pages?

    - by Rory Becker
    I have a simple sequence of web pages written in ASP.Net 3.5 SP1. Page1 - A Logon Form.... txtUsername, txtPassword and cmdLogon Page2 - A Menu (created using DevExpress ASP.Net controls) Page3 - The page redirected to by the server in the event that the user picks the right menu option in Page2 I would like to create a threaded program to simulate many users trying to use this sequence of pages. I have managed to create a host Winforms app which Launches a new thread for each "User" I have further managed to work out the basics of WebRequest enough to perform a request which retrieves the Logon page itself. Dim Request As HttpWebRequest = TryCast(WebRequest.Create("http://MyURL/Logon.aspx"), HttpWebRequest) Dim Response As HttpWebResponse = TryCast(Request.GetResponse(), HttpWebResponse) Dim ResponseStream As StreamReader = New StreamReader(Response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.GetEncoding(1252)) Dim HTMLResponse As String = ResponseStream.ReadToEnd() Response.Close() ResponseStream.Close() Next I need to simulate the user having entered information into the 2 TextBoxes and pressing logon.... I have a hunch this requires me to add the right sort of "PostData" to the request. before submitting. However I'm also concerned that "ViewState" may be an issue. Am I correct regarding the PostData? How do I add the postData to the request? Do I need to be concerned about Viewstate? Update: While I appreciate that Selenium or similar products are useful for acceptance testing , I find that they are rather clumsy for what amounts to load testing. I would prefer not to load 100 instances of Firefox or IE in order to simulate 100 users hitting my site. This was the reason I was hoping to take the ASPNet HttpWebRequest route.

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  • Does somebody know something about Flash-CS5' "multiple copies" bug?

    - by Slav
    I'm, generally, complaining, not asking, but if somebody will be able (Adobe isn't) to help - it will be perfect. I use Flash-CS5 IDE to compose .swc files to import it, then, into FlashDevelop. Evetyrhing works fine until SOMETIMES. About each 10th "Ctrl+S" (save) click Flash-CS5 duplicates ALL images (loaded .bmp, .jpg, .png... files) and names them like "Copy ..." where "..." is incrementing number. Furhtermore, Flash-CS5 creates duplications of some layers - other layers have duplications of items which put on them. Restoring project's state to previous (not copied) state - is the hell. This bug is not reproducible but it happens each 2 hours or so - both right after project's opening and after several hours of work. It happens on different machines - I know at least 5 people which told me that they also run into this issue and do not know how to escape it. Did somebody experienced it? Does somebody know how to handle it?

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  • Does Android XML Layout's 'include' Tag Really Work?

    - by Eric Burke
    I am unable to override attributes when using <include> in my Android layout files. When I searched for bugs, I found Declined Issue 2863: "include tag is broken (overriding layout params never works)" Since Romain indicates this works in the test suites and his examples, I must be doing something wrong. My project is organized like this: res/layout buttons.xml res/layout-land receipt.xml res/layout-port receipt.xml The buttons.xml contains something like this: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal"> <Button .../> <Button .../> </LinearLayout> And the portrait and landscape receipt.xml files look something like: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical"> ... <!-- Overridden attributes never work. Nor do attributes like the red background, which is specified here. --> <include android:id="@+id/buttons_override" android:background="#ff0000" android:layout_width="fill_parent" layout="@layout/buttons"/> </LinearLayout> What am I missing?

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  • HTML to 'pretty' text conversion for printing on text only printer (dot matrix)

    - by Gala101
    Hi, I have a web-site that generates some simple tabular data as html tables, many of my users print the web-page on a laser/inkjet printer; however some like to print on legacy Dot Matrix printers (text only) and there-in lies the problem. When giving Print from web-browser onto dot-matrix printer, the printer actually perceives data as 'graphic'/image and proceeds to print it dot-by-dot. i.e If printing a character 'C', printer slices it horizontally and prints in 3-4 passes. Same printer prints a text from an ASCII file (say from notepad) as complete characters in single pass, thereby being 5 times faster and much quieter than when printing a web-page. (Even tried 'generic text-only driver' but Mozilla Firefox has a know bug that it does not print anything over this particular driver since 2.0+) So is there some clean way of formatting an already generated HTML (say method takes the entire html table as string) and generates a corresponding text file with properly aligned columns? I have tried stripping the html tags, but the major issue there is performing good 'wrapping' of a cell's data and maintaining integrity of other cells' data (from same row). eg: ( '|' and '_' not really required) Col1 | Col2 | Colum_Name3 | Col4 | _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 1 | this cell | this column | smaller | | is in three| spans 2 rows | | | rows | | | - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 2 | smaller now| this also | but this| | | | cell's | | | | data is | | | | now | | | | bigger | _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Could you please suggest preferred approach? I've thought of using xslt and somehow outputting text (instead of more prevalent pdf), but Apache FOP's text renderer is really broken and perhaps forgotten in development path. Commercial one's are way too costly.

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  • Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

    - by Noah Goodrich
    I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

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  • Moq, a translator and an expression

    - by jeriley
    I'm working with an expression within a moq-ed "Get Service" and ran into a rather annoying issue. In order to get this test to run correctly and the get service to return what it should, there's a translator in between that takes what you've asked for, sends it off and gets what you -really- want. So, thinking this was easy I attempt this ... the fakelist is the TEntity objects (translated, used by the UI) and TEnterpriseObject is the actual persistance. mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>> expression) => { var items = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(); var translator = (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>) ObjectFactory.GetInstance(typeof (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>)); fakeList.ForEach(fake => items.Add(translator.ToEnterpriseObject(fake))); items = items.Where(expression); var result = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(items); fakeList.Clear(); result.ForEach(item => translator.ToEntity(item)); return items; }); I'm getting the red squigglie under there items.where(expression) -- says it can't be infered from usage (confused between <Func<TEnterpriseObject,bool>> and <Func<TEnterpriseObject,int,bool>>) A far simpler version works great ... mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>> expression) => fakeList.AsQueryable().Where(expression)); so I'm not sure what I'm missing... ideas?

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  • Passing an object as parameter from Andriod to web service using ksoap

    - by user3718626
    I have an object called User which implements KvmSerializable. Would like to pass this object to the webservice. PropertyInfo pi = new PropertyInfo(); pi.setName("obj"); pi.setValue(user); pi.setType(user.getClass()); request.addProperty(pi); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); envelope.addMapping(NAMESPACE, "User",User.class); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); I get the following error.... SoapFault - faultcode: 'soapenv:Server' faultstring: 'Unknow type {http://users.com}User' faultactor: 'null' detail: org.kxml2.kdom.Node@53263024 at org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapSerializationEnvelope.parseBody(SoapSerializationEnvelope.java:141) at org.ksoap2.SoapEnvelope.parse(SoapEnvelope.java:140) at org.ksoap2.transport.Transport.parseResponse(Transport.java:118) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:272) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:118) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:113) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.getQuestion(WebServiceCallTask.java:114) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.doInBackground(WebServiceCallTask.java:53) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.doInBackground(WebServiceCallTask.java:1) at android.os.AsyncTask$2.call(AsyncTask.java:287) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:234) at android.os.AsyncTask$SerialExecutor$1.run(AsyncTask.java:230) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1080) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:573) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:856) Appreciate if any one can point me to an sample code or can direct me what is the issue. Thanks.

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  • Selecting a good SQL Server 2008 spatial index with large polygons

    - by andynormancx
    I'm having some fun trying to pick a decent SQL Server 2008 spatial index setup for a data set I am dealing with. The dataset is polygons, representing contours over the whole globe. There are 106,000 rows in the table, the polygons are stored in a geometry field. The issue I have is that many of the polygons cover a large portion of the globe. This seems to make it very hard to get a spatial index that will eliminate many rows in the primary filter. For example, look at the following query: SELECT "ID","CODE","geom".STAsBinary() as "geom" FROM "dbo"."ContA" WHERE "geom".Filter( geometry::STGeomFromText('POLYGON ((-142.03193662573682 59.53396984952896, -142.03193662573682 59.88928136451884, -141.32743833481925 59.88928136451884, -141.32743833481925 59.53396984952896, -142.03193662573682 59.53396984952896))', 4326) ) = 1 This is querying an area which intersects with only two of the polygons in the table. No matter what combination of spatial index settings I chose, that Filter() always returns around 60,000 rows. Replacing Filter() with STIntersects() of course returns just the two polygons I want, but of course takes much longer (Filter() is 6 seconds, STIntersects() is 12 seconds). Can anyone give me any hints on whether there is a spatial index setup that is likely to improve on 60,000 rows or is my dataset just not a good match for SQL Server's spatial indexing ?

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  • Python Regular Expressions: Capture lookahead value (capturing text without consuming it)

    - by Lattyware
    I wish to use regular expressions to split words into groups of (vowels, not_vowels, more_vowels), using a marker to ensure every word begins and ends with a vowel. import re MARKER = "~" VOWELS = {"a", "e", "i", "o", "u", MARKER} word = "dog" if word[0] not in VOWELS: word = MARKER+word if word[-1] not in VOWELS: word += MARKER re.findall("([%]+)([^%]+)([%]+)".replace("%", "".join(VOWELS)), word) In this example we get: [('~', 'd', 'o')] The issue is that I wish the matches to overlap - the last set of vowels should become the first set of the next match. This appears possible with lookaheads, if we replace the regex as follows: re.findall("([%]+)([^%]+)(?=[%]+)".replace("%", "".join(VOWELS)), word) We get: [('~', 'd'), ('o', 'g')] Which means we are matching what I want. However, it now doesn't return the last set of vowels. The output I want is: [('~', 'd', 'o'), ('o', 'g', '~')] I feel this should be possible (if the regex can check for the second set of vowels, I see no reason it can't return them), but I can't find any way of doing it beyond the brute force method, looping through the results after I have them and appending the first character of the next match to the last match, and the last character of the string to the last match. Is there a better way in which I can do this? The two things that would work would be capturing the lookahead value, or not consuming the text on a match, while capturing the value - I can't find any way of doing either.

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