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  • How to speed up the reading of innerHTML in IE8?

    - by Dennis Cheung
    I am using JQuery with the DataTable plugin, and now I have a big performnce issue on the following line. aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 I have a ajax call, and result string in HTML format. I convert them into HTML nodes, and that part is ok. var $result = $('<div/>').html(result).find("*:first"); // simlar to $result=$(result) but much more faster in Fx Then I activate enable the result from a plain table to a sortable datatable. The speed is acceptable in Fx (around 4sec for 900 rows), but unacceptable in IE8 (more then 100 seconds). I check it deep using the buildin profiler, and found the above single line take all 99.9% of the time, how can I speed it up? anything I missed? nTrs = oSettings.nTable.getElementsByTagName('tbody')[0].childNodes; for ( i=0, iLen=nTrs.length ; i<iLen ; i++ ) { if ( nTrs[i].nodeName == "TR" ) { iThisIndex = oSettings.aoData.length; oSettings.aoData.push( { "nTr": nTrs[i], "_iId": oSettings.iNextId++, "_aData": [], "_anHidden": [], "_sRowStripe": '' } ); oSettings.aiDisplayMaster.push( iThisIndex ); aLocalData = oSettings.aoData[iThisIndex]._aData; nTds = nTrs[i].childNodes; jInner = 0; for ( j=0, jLen=nTds.length ; j<jLen ; j++ ) { if ( nTds[j].nodeName == "TD" ) { aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 jInner++; } } } }

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  • Scope of This JavaScript Variable

    - by dkris
    I have a question and an issue wrt the code below: My question is what is the scope of the variable loaded here. The reason why i ask this is the onload="if(loaded==1)inittextarea() code is working fine on Firefox and not IE8. Why is this happening? Is there something specific i need to do here? Or is it not a valid practice? <html> <head> <title>Some Page</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="../css/default.css" type="text/css"> <script type="text/javascript"> var loaded = 0; /*Point of interest*/ function jsLoaded() { loaded =1; } </script> <script type="text/javascript"> function inittextarea() { alert("test") tinyMCE.init({ elements : "content", theme : "advanced", readonly : true, mode : "exact", theme : "advanced", readonly : true, setup : function(ed) { ed.onInit.add(function() { tinyMCE.activeEditor.execCommand("mceToggleVisualAid"); }); } }); } </script> <script src="../js/tiny_mce/tiny_mce.js" onload="jsLoaded()" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body onload="if(loaded==1)inittextarea()"><!--Works on Firefox only--> *Usual stuff* </body></html> Any pointers please?

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  • Unexpected performance curve from CPython merge sort

    - by vkazanov
    I have implemented a naive merge sorting algorithm in Python. Algorithm and test code is below: import time import random import matplotlib.pyplot as plt import math from collections import deque def sort(unsorted): if len(unsorted) <= 1: return unsorted to_merge = deque(deque([elem]) for elem in unsorted) while len(to_merge) > 1: left = to_merge.popleft() right = to_merge.popleft() to_merge.append(merge(left, right)) return to_merge.pop() def merge(left, right): result = deque() while left or right: if left and right: elem = left.popleft() if left[0] > right[0] else right.popleft() elif not left and right: elem = right.popleft() elif not right and left: elem = left.popleft() result.append(elem) return result LOOP_COUNT = 100 START_N = 1 END_N = 1000 def test(fun, test_data): start = time.clock() for _ in xrange(LOOP_COUNT): fun(test_data) return time.clock() - start def run_test(): timings, elem_nums = [], [] test_data = random.sample(xrange(100000), END_N) for i in xrange(START_N, END_N): loop_test_data = test_data[:i] elapsed = test(sort, loop_test_data) timings.append(elapsed) elem_nums.append(len(loop_test_data)) print "%f s --- %d elems" % (elapsed, len(loop_test_data)) plt.plot(elem_nums, timings) plt.show() run_test() As much as I can see everything is OK and I should get a nice N*logN curve as a result. But the picture differs a bit: Things I've tried to investigate the issue: PyPy. The curve is ok. Disabled the GC using the gc module. Wrong guess. Debug output showed that it doesn't even run until the end of the test. Memory profiling using meliae - nothing special or suspicious. ` I had another implementation (a recursive one using the same merge function), it acts the similar way. The more full test cycles I create - the more "jumps" there are in the curve. So how can this behaviour be explained and - hopefully - fixed? UPD: changed lists to collections.deque UPD2: added the full test code UPD3: I use Python 2.7.1 on a Ubuntu 11.04 OS, using a quad-core 2Hz notebook. I tried to turn of most of all other processes: the number of spikes went down but at least one of them was still there.

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  • Javascript doesnt update

    - by Trikam
    Hi all, I have a function that passes a parameter which is a function call and then i use setTimeout to call this passed function call. now i tried two methods with setTimout to raise the event and i used function.call(). When this passed parameter function call was raised none of the javascript was being updated, below is the javascript which im using to raise the event and the javascript which is supposed to be updated: The function being passed is [context] - function() { ErrorMessageFileSelect('diverrortextchoosechannal','The file chosen is to big, you must choose a file less than 1MB'); } function FileSizeOnLoad(contentLength,context) { if (context != null) { // context.call(); setTimeout(context,0); // or context.call(); } else { $('#inputHiddenFileSizeField').val(contentLength); DisplayChoseFileInformation(contentLength); } } //this is where the update should happen function ErrorMessageFileSelect(className, errorMessage) { $('div.' + className).text(errorMessage); alert($('div.' + className).text()); } Is there somthing im missing, can someone help me with this issue please. Thanks

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  • Use a vector to index a matrix without linear index

    - by David_G
    G'day, I'm trying to find a way to use a vector of [x,y] points to index from a large matrix in MATLAB. Usually, I would convert the subscript points to the linear index of the matrix.(for eg. Use a vector as an index to a matrix in MATLab) However, the matrix is 4-dimensional, and I want to take all of the elements of the 3rd and 4th dimensions that have the same 1st and 2nd dimension. Let me hopefully demonstrate with an example: Matrix = nan(4,4,2,2); % where the dimensions are (x,y,depth,time) Matrix(1,2,:,:) = 999; % note that this value could change in depth (3rd dim) and time (4th time) Matrix(3,4,:,:) = 888; % note that this value could change in depth (3rd dim) and time (4th time) Matrix(4,4,:,:) = 124; Now, I want to be able to index with the subscripts (1,2) and (3,4), etc and return not only the 999 and 888 which exist in Matrix(:,:,1,1) but the contents which exist at Matrix(:,:,1,2),Matrix(:,:,2,1) and Matrix(:,:,2,2), and so on (IRL, the dimensions of Matrix might be more like size(Matrix) = (300 250 30 200) I don't want to use linear indices because I would like the results to be in a similar vector fashion. For example, I would like a result which is something like: ans(time=1) 999 888 124 999 888 124 ans(time=2) etc etc etc etc etc etc I'd also like to add that due to the size of the matrix I'm dealing with, speed is an issue here - thus why I'd like to use subscript indices to index to the data. I should also mention that (unlike this question: Accessing values using subscripts without using sub2ind) since I want all the information stored in the extra dimensions, 3 and 4, of the i and jth indices, I don't think that a slightly faster version of sub2ind still would not cut it..

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  • How to make an entity out of a join table without primary key

    - by tputkonen
    I'm trying to generate JPA entities out of an existing database having an "interesting" design. Database has a table called UserSet, which can have links to several other UserSets. There is a one to many relation between UserSets and LinkedUserSets. LinkedUserSets also has one to one relation to UserSets. I tried to generate a JPA Entity out of the database structure using Dali JPA Tools. The resulting entity Linkeduserset misses @Id or @EmbeddedId annotation and thus failes to compile. As the resulting entity contains only two @JoinColumns (which cannot be marked as @Id), I have not so far found a way around this issue. Database structure can not be modified in any way. Is there a way to overcome this somehow? Relevant pars of create table statements: CREATE TABLE `LinkedUserSets` ( `UsrSetID` INT(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0' , `ChildID` INT(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0' , CONSTRAINT `fk_LinkedUserSets_UserSet1` FOREIGN KEY (`UsrSetID` ) REFERENCES `UserSet` (`UsrSetID` )); CREATE TABLE `UserSet` ( `UsrSetID` INT(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`UsrSetID`), CONSTRAINT `fk_UserSet_LinkedUserSets1` FOREIGN KEY (`UsrSetID` ) REFERENCES `LinkedUserSets` (`ChildID` )); Generated entities: @Entity @Table(name="linkedusersets") public class Linkeduserset { //bi-directional many-to-one association to Userset @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="UsrSetID") private Userset userset1; //bi-directional one-to-one association to Userset @OneToOne @JoinColumn(name="ChildID") private Userset userset2; } @Entity @Table(name="userset") public class Userset { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column(name="UsrSetID") private int jngSetID; //bi-directional many-to-one association to Linkeduserset @OneToMany(mappedBy="userset1") private Set<Linkeduserset> linkedusersets; //bi-directional one-to-one association to Linkeduserset @OneToOne(mappedBy="userset2") private Linkeduserset linkeduserset; } Error message: Entity "Linkeduserset" has no Id or EmbeddedId

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  • Renaming TurboGears 2's Repoze Fields with TGAdmin

    - by William Chambers
    I've been working on renaming TurboGears 2's Repoze 'groups' field to 'roles' to free the namespace and db tables for other purposes. Also roles makes much more sense to me then groups because I have a strong Drupal background. Now I have found some of the docs to do this such as these: http://www.turbogears.org/2.1/docs/main/Auth/Customization.html#customizing-the-model-structure-assumed-by-the-quickstart http://code.gustavonarea.net/repoze.what-quickstart/#customizing-the-model-definition However these only go part of the way. I have made (I'm pretty sure at least, I've double checked a few times.) all the changes required as you can see in this diff. This seems to work fine however I've ran into a rather major issue with the TurboGears Admin system. I've tried http://turbogears.org/2.0/docs/main/Extensions/Admin/index.html and it didn't seem to make any difference, however I'm not 100% sure I did it correctly. The problem occurs when I attempt to go to localhost/admin/permissions/. It causes a Internal Server Error and outputs the following error. http://pastebin.com/YWMH3SiU This error does not happen on the Roles/Users pages and the permissions /edit/1 also works. I'm running kubuntu 10.04 with TG 2.1b2. (I'm running the beta mostly for easier mako support which is really important.) Any help would be very appreciated.

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  • How do I add a comment to an image using jQuery

    - by marcamillion
    So I am trying to replicate Facebook's picture tagging functionality, and I have the functionality that onClick, a box is created and there is a comment box. Now the issue is that I want to be able to (without doing any back-end processing) take the input from the input field and add it in some form to the underlying image area that they have selected. I would also like to add a small image to that area, that shows that a comment is there. How do I do that? See the code below for what I have for the comment box: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var tag_box = $("<div>").appendTo("body").css({ "width": "40px", "height":"40px", "border":"4px solid #000000", "position":"absolute", "display":"none", "padding":"15px" }); var comment_box = $("<form action='#'><input id='comment' type='text' name='comment' placeholder='Add comment'></form>").appendTo(tag_box).css({"position":"absolute"}); $("#image-wrapper").live('click', function(e){ tag_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 40, "top": e.pageY - 40, "display": "block" }) .after(comment_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 65, "top": e.pageY + 40 })); }); }); </script> Now...whenever the user presses enter, the info in the comment box is appended to the URL like so: .html?comment=comment value# Thanks

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  • HttpServletResponse encoding problem @ WebSphere 6.1

    - by user295509
    My application is working fine with JBOSS 4.2.2 application server. However when I deploy same application at WebSphere 6.1. I get HttpServletResponse encoding problem. I am getting response on web browser as shown below:- ??][s?8?~N??0?uRY?d;?H?e??e??d6?%??A"yH????????M??x?? ??&A??h??ntCT???????UM??BW???H?T?4???????t??G?f =l?&5[?j?B{???6???V???6???7???????(???5?4????.?!????j??i?V????? X?Q??^<??????????sK????h?{y1?] [??T??- ?Dm?_?7????P??<*??VvQ?:6?KCc? 6?]????V_?zPC?c???Ÿ???zsW????_y?*???2? ??)?r?~?L%^?M???kzduY??BW4? ?.?????V????{??O????/?l?ii8?S?Q?cJ?56GAogp?w???7'??9vf???E?,??? 9?q?x???z?H????????;????4?? ?5?????iWF??l????o^??Fy?|?d???????zMa,????y??e \<?J???M?:miz????z?Z5???????^/???e?:?j7??'??~?@?V?V???nN?&??Q%}(??????*u???#???S?BO??Lð????+??x?8?/?E??????6_k?1)?@q. ?S%??5?=?$?CSBt?c ????+hX??2?>t?s?+?M????????nv$??13m??? I would like to mentioned that this encoding problem is not arise when I have less data (or HTML element). Means even at WebSphere, It is working fine when there are up to approximately 300 HTML element are render. When HTML elements over than certain number then web page is shown with encoded form. Moreover at Jboss 4.2.2 application is working fine up to long -long html element. I set content type as: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> This issue is reproducible at FF 3.6 and IE 7 and 8 browser. Can anyone help me out? Am I missing some setting?

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  • Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' when compiling web site

    - by ahsteele
    I have been using Windows 7 for a while but have not had to work with a particular legacy intranet application since my upgrade. Unfortunately, this application is setup as an ASP.NET Website project hosted on a remote server. When I have the website open in Visual Studio 2008 and try to debug it: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed To resolve this issue on Windows Vista machines I would change the machine's .NET Security Configuration to trust the local intranet. I believe this configuration utility relied upon the mscorcfg.msc which from some cursory research appears to be apart of the .NET 2.0 SDK. I have tried to follow the instructions from this Microsoft Support article running the command below to no avail. Drive:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\caspol.exe -m -ag 1 -url "file:////\\computername\sharename\*" FullTrust -exclusive on Presently, I have the following .NET and ASP.NET components installed on my machine Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 2.0 SP2 Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 3.5 Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Client Profile Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Extended Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Multi-Targeting Pack Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2008 Tools Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2010 Tools Do I need to install the .NET 2.0 SDK? Am I issuing the caspol command incorrectly? Is there something else that I am missing?

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  • Set up Gitosis, but can't clone

    - by Tim Rupe
    I've set up Gitosis on a remote Ubuntu box which I will refer to as linuxserver as my host in the following commands. I'm also connecting from a Windows box using Cygwin. I followed the instructions according to: http://scie.nti.st/2007/11/14/hosting-git-repositories-the-easy-and-secure-way I had no problems up until I needed to clone the gitosis-admin repository to my local machine git clone git@linuxserver:gitosis-admin.git When I do this, the command executes, but hangs there displaying nothing until I ctrl-c to get back to a command prompt. No messages are displayed at all. I'm pretty sure I have my ssh keys set up properly, because logging in using "ssh linuxserver" into my regular account works perfectly without asking for a password. Edit: Over the weekend I set up a near identical Ubuntu box at home, and had no problem setting up Gitosis. The only difference was that I was connecting from OSX instead of Cygwin. Edit: I've also discovered that when using the Bash Shell provided with "Git Extensions", I have no problems, so the issue definitely seems to be some kind of Cygwin conflict. Edit: Just an update, but about a month after posting this question, I switched to Mercurial, and found that I prefer it much more than git. Thanks for the suggestions, but I don't plan on going back to git to try any of them out.

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  • Using libcurl to create a valid POST

    - by Haraldo
    static int get( const char * cURL, const char * cParam ) { CURL *handle; CURLcode result; std::string buffer; char errorBuffer[CURL_ERROR_SIZE]; //struct curl_slist *headers = NULL; //headers = curl_slist_append(headers, "Content-Type: Multipart/Related"); //headers = curl_slist_append(headers, "type: text/xml"); // Create our curl handle handle = curl_easy_init(); if( handle ) { curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_ERRORBUFFER, errorBuffer); //curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); //curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headers); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, cParam); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDSIZE, strlen(cParam)); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_WRITEFUNCTION, Request::writer); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_WRITEDATA, &buffer); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "libcurl-agent/1.0"); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_URL, cURL); result = curl_easy_perform(handle); curl_easy_cleanup(handle); } if( result == CURLE_OK ) { return atoi( buffer.c_str() ); } return 0; } Hi there, first of all I'm having trouble debugging this in visual studio express 2008 so I'm unsure what buffer.c_str() might actually be returning but I am outputting 1 or 0 to the web page being posted to. Therefore I'm expecting the buffer to be one or the other, however I seem to only be returning 0 or equivalent. Does the code above look like it will return what I expect or should my variable types be different? The conversion using "atoi" may be an issue. Any thought would be much appreciated.

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  • SQL Server Index cost

    - by yellowstar
    I have read that one of the tradeoffs for adding table indexes in SQL Server is the increased cost of insert/update/delete queries to benefit the performance of select queries. I can conceptually understand what happens in the case of an insert because SQL Server has to write entries into each index matching the new rows, but update and delete are a little more murky to me because I can't quite wrap my head around what the database engine has to do. Let's take DELETE as an example and assume I have the following schema (pardon the pseudo-SQL) TABLE Foo col1 int ,col2 int ,col3 int ,col4 int PRIMARY KEY (col1,col2) INDEX IX_1 col3 INCLUDE col4 Now, if I issue the statement DELETE FROM Foo WHERE col1=12 AND col2 > 34 I understand what the engine must do to update the table (or clustered index if you prefer). The index is set up to make it easy to find the range of rows to be removed and do so. However, at this point it also needs to update IX_1 and the query that I gave it gives no obvious efficient way for the database engine to find the rows to update. Is it forced to do a full index scan at this point? Does the engine read the rows from the clustered index first and generate a smarter internal delete against the index? It might help me to wrap my head around this if I understood better what is going on under the hood, but I guess my real question is this. I have a database that is spending a significant amount of time in delete and I'm trying to figure out what I can do about it. When I display the execution plan for the deletion, it just shows an entry for "Clustered Index Delete" on table Foo which lists in the details section the other indices that need to be updated but I don't get any indication of the relative cost of these other indices. Are they all equal in this case? Is there some way that I can estimate the impact of removing one or more of these indices without having to actually try it?

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  • Combo box in a scrollable panel causing problems

    - by Dennis
    I have a panel with AutoScroll set to true. In it, I am programmatically adding ComboBox controls. If I add enough controls to exceed the viewable size of the panel a scroll bar appears (so far so good). However, if I open one of the combo boxes near the bottom of the viewable area the combo list isn't properly displayed and the scrollable area seems to be expanded. This results in all of the controls being "pulled" to the new bottom of the panel with some new blank space at the top. If I continue to tap on the drop down at the bottom of the panel the scrollable area will continue to expand indefinitely. I'm anchoring the controls to the left, right and top so I don't think anchoring is involved. Is there something obvious that could be causing this? Update: It looks like the problem lies with anchoring the controls to the right. If I don't anchor to the right then I don't get the strange behavior. However, without right anchoring the control gets cut off by the scroll bar. Here's a simplified test case I built that shows the issue: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); Panel panel = new Panel(); panel.Size = new Size(80, 200); panel.AutoScroll = true; for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { ComboBox cb = new ComboBox(); cb.Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left | AnchorStyles.Right | AnchorStyles.Top; cb.Items.Add("Option 1"); cb.Items.Add("Option 2"); cb.Items.Add("Option 3"); cb.Items.Add("Option 4"); cb.Location = new Point(0, i * 24); panel.Controls.Add(cb); } Controls.Add(panel); } If you scroll the bottom of the panel and tap on the combo boxes near the bottom you'll notice the strange behavior.

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  • Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

    - by prodigitalson
    Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

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  • asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Handling Errors in PHP

    - by Mike
    I have a custom class that, when called, will redirect to a page and send a 'message_type' and 'message' variable via GET. When the page opens it checks for these variables and displays a 'success', 'warning', or 'error' message depending on the 'message_type' variable. I made it so the user thinks they stay on the same page. It also allows for other variables to be passed along with the message. Is this good practice, or should I just start using exceptions? Example: //Call a static function that will redirect to a page, with an error message RedirectWithMessage::go('somepage.php', MessageType::ERROR, 'Error message here.'); The following checkMessage() function is an include file: function checkMessage() { if((isset($_GET['message_type']) && strlen($_GET['message_type'])) && (isset($_GET['message']) && strlen($_GET['message_type']))) { DisplayMessage::display($_GET['message_type'], $_GET['message']); return true; } return false; } On the page that is redirected to, call checkMessage(); //If a message is received, display it. If not, do nothing checkMessage(); I know this might be vague, and I can supply more code if necessary. I guess the issue is that I don't have much experience using exceptions, but I think they seem cumbersome (writing try-catch blocks everywhere). Please let me know if I am making this more difficult for myself or if there is a better solution. Thanks! Mike

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  • Aggregating / Collecting AJAX requests

    - by Ganesh Shankar
    I have situation where a user can manipulate a large set of data (presented in a table) by using a bunch of filters represented as checkboxes. The page is AJAXed up so the user doesn't have to wait for a full page refresh every time they click a filter. The way it's currently implemented is by having an event handler watch all the checkboxes and request filtered data from the server when a click event is triggered. This works fine. However, there is a usability & performance issue with doing it this way. For example, if a user clicks 6 checkboxes, 6 AJAX requests are triggered and they all come back at various intervals causing the page to be updated 6 times. This will most probably annoy the user and seems rather inefficient. I want to put some kind of timeout on the event handler to do something like this: "Wait for 1 second and if there are no more filters clicked trigger the AJAX request". However, at the moment I've only been able to delay all 6 requests by 1 second. I'm not sure how to aggregate / collect the filter info into 1 AJAX request. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated!

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  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

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  • HTML to 'pretty' text conversion for printing on text only printer (dot matrix)

    - by Gala101
    Hi, I have a web-site that generates some simple tabular data as html tables, many of my users print the web-page on a laser/inkjet printer; however some like to print on legacy Dot Matrix printers (text only) and there-in lies the problem. When giving Print from web-browser onto dot-matrix printer, the printer actually perceives data as 'graphic'/image and proceeds to print it dot-by-dot. i.e If printing a character 'C', printer slices it horizontally and prints in 3-4 passes. Same printer prints a text from an ASCII file (say from notepad) as complete characters in single pass, thereby being 5 times faster and much quieter than when printing a web-page. (Even tried 'generic text-only driver' but Mozilla Firefox has a know bug that it does not print anything over this particular driver since 2.0+) So is there some clean way of formatting an already generated HTML (say method takes the entire html table as string) and generates a corresponding text file with properly aligned columns? I have tried stripping the html tags, but the major issue there is performing good 'wrapping' of a cell's data and maintaining integrity of other cells' data (from same row). eg: ( '|' and '_' not really required) Col1 | Col2 | Colum_Name3 | Col4 | _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 1 | this cell | this column | smaller | | is in three| spans 2 rows | | | rows | | | - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 2 | smaller now| this also | but this| | | | cell's | | | | data is | | | | now | | | | bigger | _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Could you please suggest preferred approach? I've thought of using xslt and somehow outputting text (instead of more prevalent pdf), but Apache FOP's text renderer is really broken and perhaps forgotten in development path. Commercial one's are way too costly.

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  • Visual Studio 2008: Can't connect to known good TFS 2010 beta 2

    - by p.campbell
    A freshly installed TFS 2010 Beta 2 is at http://serverX:8080/tfs. A Windows 7 developer machine with VS 2008 Pro SP1 and the VS2008 Team Explorer (no SP). The TFS 2008 Service Pack 1 didn't work for me - "None of the products that are addressed by this software update are installed on this computer." The developer machine is able to browse the TFS site at the above URL. The Issue is around trying to add the TFS server into the Team Explorer window in Visual Studio 2008. Here's a screenshot showing the error: unable to connect to this Team Foundation Server. Possible reasons for failure include: The Team Foundation Server name, port number or protocol is incorrect. The Team Foundation Server is offline. Password is expired or incorrect. The TFS server is up and running properly. Firewall ports are open, and is accessible via the browser on the dev machine!! larger image Question: how can you connect from VS 2008 Pro to a TFS 2010 Beta 2 server? Resolution Here's how I solved this problem: installed VS 2008 Team Explorer as above. re-install VS 2008 Service Pack 1 when adding a TFS server to Team Explorer, you MUST specify the URL as such: http://[tfsserver]:[port]/[vdir]/[projectCollection] in my case above, it was http://serverX:8080/tfs/AppDev-TestProject you cannot simply add the TFS server name and have VS look for all Project Collections on the server. TFS 2010 has a new URL (by default) and VS 2008 doesn't recognize how to gather that list.

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  • ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

    - by Jarek Waliszko
    Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

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  • Query on object id in VQL

    - by Banang
    I'm currently working with the versant object database (using jvi), and have a case where I need to query the database based on an object id. What I'm trying to achieve is something along the lines of Employee employee = new Employee("Mr. Pickles"); session.commit(); FundVQLQuery q = new FundVQLQuery(session, "select * from Employee employee where employee = $1"); q.bind(employee); q.execute(); However, I'm finding out the hard way (I get an EVJ_NOT_A_VALID_KEY_TYPE error thrown at me) that this is infact not the way to do it. Anyone got any experience in working with VQL? Your help is much apreciated! A small clarification: The problem is I'm running some performance tests on the database using the pole position framework, and one of the tests in that framework requires me to fetch an object from the database using either an object reference or a low level object id. Thus, I'm not allowed to reference specific fields in the employee object, but must perform the query on the object in its entirety. So, it's not allowed for me to go "select * from Employee e where e.id = 4", I need it to use the entire object. Accepted answer: Since there is some sort of lunacy magic built into SO that prevents me to mark an accepted answer after a bounty has run out, readers should know that the answer posted by Chris Holmes solves this issue. Readers are encouraged to up-vote his post to further signalize the correctness of his answer to any future readers of this thread.

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  • TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

    - by Wind Chimez
    I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common. I uploaded the fla, here ( http://tinyurl.com/249e95p ), for reference.It may not be working , since the included/refered video files and all are not there, but reviwing the action code/movie clips will be possible. Please let me know if somebody will be able to trace the issue exactly.

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  • Control Oracle Forms with outside program

    - by user256893
    I work at a company that uses the Forms based Oracle 11i. A lot of employees complain of the redundancy of data entry and I want to write a program that will ease some of that pain since all attempts to ask IT to do it have failed. The problem is, since Oracle Forms are Java based there are no "controls" as there would be on say a windows application or an HTML based form. Does anyone know of a way to tell the PC to (example only) click edit field 3 on the RMA creation form and then enter the data? The only way I can programmatically navigate Oracle is with hotkeys and it's very unreliable. I'm not concerned about the language or learning a new application to resolve this issue. I currently know (elementary to Intermediate levels) Java, VB.NET and will be taking C++ in school. Is there a tool, bridge, element spy of some sort that will allow me to send commands to elements on the forms? edit APC sez: Oracle Forms over the web run as a Java applet. I mention this because it may be relevant to your responses.

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