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  • Combo box in a scrollable panel causing problems

    - by Dennis
    I have a panel with AutoScroll set to true. In it, I am programmatically adding ComboBox controls. If I add enough controls to exceed the viewable size of the panel a scroll bar appears (so far so good). However, if I open one of the combo boxes near the bottom of the viewable area the combo list isn't properly displayed and the scrollable area seems to be expanded. This results in all of the controls being "pulled" to the new bottom of the panel with some new blank space at the top. If I continue to tap on the drop down at the bottom of the panel the scrollable area will continue to expand indefinitely. I'm anchoring the controls to the left, right and top so I don't think anchoring is involved. Is there something obvious that could be causing this? Update: It looks like the problem lies with anchoring the controls to the right. If I don't anchor to the right then I don't get the strange behavior. However, without right anchoring the control gets cut off by the scroll bar. Here's a simplified test case I built that shows the issue: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); Panel panel = new Panel(); panel.Size = new Size(80, 200); panel.AutoScroll = true; for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { ComboBox cb = new ComboBox(); cb.Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left | AnchorStyles.Right | AnchorStyles.Top; cb.Items.Add("Option 1"); cb.Items.Add("Option 2"); cb.Items.Add("Option 3"); cb.Items.Add("Option 4"); cb.Location = new Point(0, i * 24); panel.Controls.Add(cb); } Controls.Add(panel); } If you scroll the bottom of the panel and tap on the combo boxes near the bottom you'll notice the strange behavior.

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  • .NET Hashtable - "Same" key, different hashes

    - by Simon Lindgren
    Is it possible for two .net strings to have different hashes? I have a Hashtable with amongst others the key "path". When I loop through the elements in the table to print it, i can see that the key exists. When trying to looking it up however, there is no matching element. Debugging suggests that the string I'm looking for has a different hash than the one I'm supplying as the key. This code is in a Castle Monorail project, using brail as a view engine. The key I'm looking for is inserted by a brail line like this: UrlHelper.Link(node.CurrentPage.LinkText, {@params: {@path: "/Page1"}}) Then, in this method (in a custom IRoutingRule): public string CreateUrl(System.Collections.IDictionary parameters) { PrintDictionaryToLog(parameters); string url; if (parameters.Contains("path")) { url = (string)parameters["path"]; } else { return null; } } The key is printed to the log, but the function returns null. I didn't know this could even be a problem with .net strings, but I guess this is some kind of encoding issue? Oh, and this is running mono.

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  • Catching 'Last Record' in Coldfusion for IE javascript bug

    - by Simon Hume
    I'm using ColdFusion to pull UK postcodes into an array for display on a Google Map. This happens dynamically from a SQL database, so the numbers can range from 1 to 100+ the script works great, however, in IE (groan) it decides to display one point way off line, over in California somewhere. I fixed this issue in a previous webapp, this was due to the comma between each array item still being present at the end. Works fine in Firefox, Safari etc, but not IE. But, that one was using a set 10 records, so was easy to fix. I just need a little if statement to wrap around my comma to hide it when it hits the last record. I can't seem to get it right. Any tips/suggestions? here is the line of code in question: var address = [<cfloop query="getApplicant"><cfif getApplicant.dbHomePostCode GT ""><cfoutput>'#getApplicant.dbHomePostCode#',</cfoutput></cfif> </cfloop>]; Hopefully someone can help with this rather simple request. I'm just having a bad day at the office!

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  • Access cost of dynamically created objects with dynamically allocated members

    - by user343547
    I'm building an application which will have dynamic allocated objects of type A each with a dynamically allocated member (v) similar to the below class class A { int a; int b; int* v; }; where: The memory for v will be allocated in the constructor. v will be allocated once when an object of type A is created and will never need to be resized. The size of v will vary across all instances of A. The application will potentially have a huge number of such objects and mostly need to stream a large number of these objects through the CPU but only need to perform very simple computations on the members variables. Could having v dynamically allocated could mean that an instance of A and its member v are not located together in memory? What tools and techniques can be used to test if this fragmentation is a performance bottleneck? If such fragmentation is a performance issue, are there any techniques that could allow A and v to allocated in a continuous region of memory? Or are there any techniques to aid memory access such as pre-fetching scheme? for example get an object of type A operate on the other member variables whilst pre-fetching v. If the size of v or an acceptable maximum size could be known at compile time would replacing v with a fixed sized array like int v[max_length] lead to better performance? The target platforms are standard desktop machines with x86/AMD64 processors, Windows or Linux OSes and compiled using either GCC or MSVC compilers.

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  • Removing PDF attachments via itext

    - by r00fus
    I'm trying to remove attachments from a number of my pdf files (I can extract via pdftk, so preserving them is not an issue). I coded the following based on an example found from a google search: import java.io.FileOutputStream; import java.io.IOException; import com.lowagie.text.*; import com.lowagie.text.pdf.*; class pdfremoveattachment { public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException, DocumentException { if (args.length < 2) { System.out.println("Usage: java PDFremoveAttachments source.pdf target.pdf"); System.exit(1); } PdfReader sourcePDF = new PdfReader(args[0]); removeAttachments(sourcePDF); FileOutputStream targetFOS = new FileOutputStream(args[1]); PdfStamper targetPDF = new PdfStamper(sourcePDF,targetFOS); targetPDF.close(); } public static void removeAttachments(PdfReader reader) { PdfDictionary catalog = reader.getCatalog(); // System.out.println(catalog.getAsDict(PdfName.NAME)); // this would print "null" PdfDictionary names = (PdfDictionary)PdfReader.getPdfObject(catalog.get(PdfName.NAMES)); // System.out.println(names.toString()); //this returns NPE if( names != null) { PdfDictionary files = (PdfDictionary) PdfReader.getPdfObject(names.get(PdfName.FILEATTACHMENT)); if( files!= null ){ for( Object key : files.getKeys() ){ files.remove((PdfName)key); } files = (PdfDictionary) PdfReader.getPdfObject(names.get(PdfName.EMBEDDEDFILES)); } if( files!= null ){ for( Object key : files.getKeys() ){ files.remove((PdfName)key); } reader.removeUnusedObjects(); } } } } If anyone knows how I might be able to remove attachments, I'd greatly appreciate a reply.

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  • TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

    - by Wind Chimez
    I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common. I uploaded the fla, here ( http://tinyurl.com/249e95p ), for reference.It may not be working , since the included/refered video files and all are not there, but reviwing the action code/movie clips will be possible. Please let me know if somebody will be able to trace the issue exactly.

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  • Aggregating / Collecting AJAX requests

    - by Ganesh Shankar
    I have situation where a user can manipulate a large set of data (presented in a table) by using a bunch of filters represented as checkboxes. The page is AJAXed up so the user doesn't have to wait for a full page refresh every time they click a filter. The way it's currently implemented is by having an event handler watch all the checkboxes and request filtered data from the server when a click event is triggered. This works fine. However, there is a usability & performance issue with doing it this way. For example, if a user clicks 6 checkboxes, 6 AJAX requests are triggered and they all come back at various intervals causing the page to be updated 6 times. This will most probably annoy the user and seems rather inefficient. I want to put some kind of timeout on the event handler to do something like this: "Wait for 1 second and if there are no more filters clicked trigger the AJAX request". However, at the moment I've only been able to delay all 6 requests by 1 second. I'm not sure how to aggregate / collect the filter info into 1 AJAX request. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated!

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  • How do I reset a form in an ajax callback?

    - by B.Gordon
    I am sending a form using simple ajax and returning the results in a div above the form. The problem is that after the form is submitted and validated, I display a thank you and want to reset the form so they don't just press the submit button again... Can't seem to find the right code to do this... <form id="myForm" target="sendemail.php" method="post"> <div id="results"></div> <input type="text" name="value1"> <input type="text" name="value2"> <input type="submit" name="submit"> </form> So, my sendemail.php validation errors and success messages appear in #results without problems. But... when I try to send back a javascript form reset command, it does not work. Naturally I cannot see it in the source code since it is an AJAX callback so I don't know if that is the issue or if I am just using the wrong syntax. echo "<p>Thank you. Your message has been accepted for delivery.</p>"; echo "<script type=\"text/javascript\">setTimeout('document.getElementById('myForm').reset();',1000);</script>"; Any ideas gurus?

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  • Grails UrlMappings with .html

    - by Glennn
    I'm developing a Grails web application (mainly as a learning exercise). I have previously written some standard Grails apps, but in this case I wanted to try creating a controller that would intercept all requests (including static html) of the form: <a href="/testApp/testJsp.jsp">test 1</a> <a href="/testApp/testGsp.gsp">test 2</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtm.htm">test 3</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtml.html">test 4</a> The intent is to do some simple business logic (auditing) each time a user clicks a link. I know I could do this using a Filter (or a range of other methods), however I thought this should work too and wanted to do this using a Grails framework. I set up the Grail UrlMappings.groovy file to map all URLs of that form (/$myPathParam?) to a single controller: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { } } "/$path?" (controller: 'auditRecord', action: 'showPage') "500"(view:'/error') } } In that controller (in the appropriate "showPage" action) I've been printing out the path information, for example: def showPage = { println "params.path = " + params.path ... render(view: resultingView) } The results of the println in the showPage action for each of my four links are testJsp.jsp testGsp.gsp testHtm.htm testHtml Why is the last one "testHtml", not "testHtml.html"? In a previous (Stack Overflow query) Olexandr encountered this issue and was advised to simply concatenate the value of request.format - which, indeed, does return "html". However request.format also returns "html" for all four links. I'm interested in gaining an understanding of what Grails is doing and why. Is there some way to configure Grails so the params.path variable in the controller shows "testHtml.html" rather than stripping off the "html" extension? It doesn't seem to remove the extension for any other file type (including .htm). Is there a good reason it's doing this? I know that it is a bit unusual to use a controller for static html, but still would like to understand what's going on.

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  • How to disable mod_security2 rule (false positive) for one domain on centos 5

    - by nicholas.alipaz
    Hi I have mod_security enabled on a centos5 server and one of the rules is keeping a user from posting some text on a form. The text is legitimate but it has the words 'create' and an html <table> tag later in it so it is causing a false positive. The error I am receiving is below: [Sun Apr 25 20:36:53 2010] [error] [client 76.171.171.xxx] ModSecurity: Access denied with code 500 (phase 2). Pattern match "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" at ARGS:body. [file "/usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf"] [line "352"] [id "300015"] [rev "1"] [msg "Generic SQL injection protection"] [severity "CRITICAL"] [hostname "www.mysite.com"] [uri "/node/181/edit"] [unique_id "@TaVDEWnlusAABQv9@oAAAAD"] and here is /usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf (line 352) #Generic SQL sigs SecRule ARGS "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" "id:1,rev:1,severity:2,msg:'Generic SQL injection protection'" The questions I have are: What should I do to "whitelist" or allow this rule to get through? What file do I create and where? How should I alter this rule? Can I set it to only be allowed for the one domain, since it is the only one having the issue on this dedicated server or is there a better way to exclude table tags perhaps? Thanks guys

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  • How do you implement a good profanity filter?

    - by Ben Throop
    Many of us need to deal with user input, search queries, and situations where the input text can potentially contain profanity or undesirable language. Oftentimes this needs to be filtered out. Where can one find a good list of swear words in various languages and dialects? Are there APIs available to sources that contain good lists? Or maybe an API that simply says "yes this is clean" or "no this is dirty" with some parameters? What are some good methods for catching folks trying to trick the system, like a$$, azz, or a55? Bonus points if you offer solutions for PHP. :) Edit: Response to answers that say simply avoid the programmatic issue: I think there is a place for this kind of filter when, for instance, a user can use public image search to find pictures that get added to a sensitive community pool. If they can search for "penis", then they will likely get many pictures of, yep. If we don't want pictures of that, then preventing the word as a search term is a good gatekeeper, though admittedly not a foolproof method. Getting the list of words in the first place is the real question. So I'm really referring to a way to figure out of a single token is dirty or not and then simply disallow it. I'd not bother preventing a sentiment like the totally hilarious "long necked giraffe" reference. Nothing you can do there. :)

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  • Images in database vs file system

    - by Jesse
    We have a project coming up where we will be building a whole backend CMS system that will power our entire extranet and intranet with one package. The question I have been trying to find an answer to is which is better: storing images in the database (SQL Server 2005) so we may have integrity, single replication plan, etc OR storing on the file system? One issue we have is that we have multiple servers load balanced that require to have the same data at all times. As of now we have SQL replication taking care of that but file replication seems to be a little tougher. Another concern we have is that we would like to have multiple resolutions of the same image, we are not sure if creating and storing each version on the file system would be best or maybe dynamically pulling and creating the resolution image we would like upon request. Our concerns are the with the following: Data integrity Data replication Multiple resolutions Speed of database vs file system Overhead load of database vs file system Data management and backup Does anyone have a similar situation or have any input on what would be recommended? Thanks in advance for the help!

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  • Page_PreRender fires twice on first load in session

    - by awe
    I have an issue when I access the application, I notice that Page_PreRender is fired twice. This only happens the first time in a new session. It does not happen if I refresh the page, or on postbacks. I use .NET framework 3.5 and the built in ajax functionality. I think the problem is not related to img tag with empty src attribute as I have seen other posts has mentioned, because I see this in both FireFox and IE. The posts I saw about this stated that this was not a problem in IE. I have also searched and found no img tags with empty src in the generated page source, so it should not be this. I have also made a simple test page where I have included some of the functionality, and this does not happen. Here I have also tried to reproduce the empty src bug by including <img src="" /> on the page, but this does not trigger this problem. Have anyone any suggestions on what happens? Note: It is the entire page cycle that is firing twice, not just render.

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  • rake test not copying development postgres db with sequences

    - by Robert Crida
    I am trying to develop a rails application on postgresql using a sequence to increment a field instead of a default ruby approach based on validates_uniqueness_of. This has proved challenging for a number of reasons: 1. This is a migration of an existing table, not a new table or column 2. Using parameter :default = "nextval('seq')" didn't work because it tries to set it in parenthesis 3. Eventually got migration working in 2 steps: change_column :work_commencement_orders, :wco_number_suffix, :integer, :null => false#, :options => "set default nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq')" execute %{ ALTER TABLE work_commencement_orders ALTER COLUMN wco_number_suffix SET DEFAULT nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq'); } Now this would appear to have done the correct thing in the development database and the schema looks like: wco_number_suffix | integer | not null default nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq'::regclass) However, the tests are failing with PGError: ERROR: null value in column "wco_number_suffix" violates not-null constraint : INSERT INTO "work_commencement_orders" ("expense_account_id", "created_at", "process_id", "vo2_issued_on", "wco_template", "updated_at", "notes", "process_type", "vo_number", "vo_issued_on", "vo2_number", "wco_type_id", "created_by", "contractor_id", "old_wco_type", "master_wco_number", "deadline", "updated_by", "detail", "elective_id", "authorization_batch_id", "delivery_lat", "delivery_long", "operational", "state", "issued_on", "delivery_detail") VALUES(226, '2010-05-31 07:02:16.764215', 728, NULL, E'Default', '2010-05-31 07:02:16.764215', NULL, E'Procurement::Process', NULL, NULL, NULL, 226, NULL, 276, NULL, E'MWCO-213', '2010-06-14 07:02:16.756952', NULL, E'Name 4597', 220, NULL, NULL, NULL, 'f', E'pending', NULL, E'728 Test Road; Test Town; 1234; Test Land') RETURNING "id" The explanation can be found when you inspect the schema of the test database: wco_number_suffix | integer | not null So what happened to the default? I tried adding task: template: smmt_ops_development to the database.yml file which has the effect of issuing create database smmt_ops_test template = "smmt_ops_development" encoding = 'utf8' I have verified that if I issue this then it does in fact copy the default nextval. So clearly rails is doing something after that to suppress it again. Any suggestions as to how to fix this? Thanks Robert

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  • AJAX Submit to PHP still loading page after preventDefault()

    - by dannyburrows
    I have a webpage that I am using .ajax to send variables to a php script. The php page is loading into the browser as if I was navigating to it. The script is loading the data correctly, so my issue is stopping the navigation and keeping the user on the original page. The code for my form is here: echo "<form method='post' action='addTask.php' id='myform'>\n"; echo "<input name='addtask' id='addtask' maxlength='64'/><br/>\n"; echo "<input type='submit' name='submit' id='submit' value='Add Task'/>\n"; echo "</form>\n"; The code for my jquery is here: $(function(){ $('#myform').submit(function(e){ e.stopPropagation(); $.ajax({ url: 'addTask.php', type: 'POST', data: {}, success: alert("Success") }); }); }); I have tried: e.preventDefault(), e.stopPropagation() and return false. Any help is appreciated. $("#submit").click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "addtask.php", data: { } }) .done(function() { alert( "success" ); }) .fail(function() { alert( "error" ); }); and $(function(){ $('#myform').submit(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ url: 'addTask.php', type: 'POST', data: {}, success: function(){alert("Success")} }); }); });

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  • HttpServletResponse encoding problem @ WebSphere 6.1

    - by user295509
    My application is working fine with JBOSS 4.2.2 application server. However when I deploy same application at WebSphere 6.1. I get HttpServletResponse encoding problem. I am getting response on web browser as shown below:- ??][s?8?~N??0?uRY?d;?H?e??e??d6?%??A"yH????????M??x?? ??&A??h??ntCT???????UM??BW???H?T?4???????t??G?f =l?&5[?j?B{???6???V???6???7???????(???5?4????.?!????j??i?V????? X?Q??^<??????????sK????h?{y1?] [??T??- ?Dm?_?7????P??<*??VvQ?:6?KCc? 6?]????V_?zPC?c???Ÿ???zsW????_y?*???2? ??)?r?~?L%^?M???kzduY??BW4? ?.?????V????{??O????/?l?ii8?S?Q?cJ?56GAogp?w???7'??9vf???E?,??? 9?q?x???z?H????????;????4?? ?5?????iWF??l????o^??Fy?|?d???????zMa,????y??e \<?J???M?:miz????z?Z5???????^/???e?:?j7??'??~?@?V?V???nN?&??Q%}(??????*u???#???S?BO??Lð????+??x?8?/?E??????6_k?1)?@q. ?S%??5?=?$?CSBt?c ????+hX??2?>t?s?+?M????????nv$??13m??? I would like to mentioned that this encoding problem is not arise when I have less data (or HTML element). Means even at WebSphere, It is working fine when there are up to approximately 300 HTML element are render. When HTML elements over than certain number then web page is shown with encoded form. Moreover at Jboss 4.2.2 application is working fine up to long -long html element. I set content type as: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> This issue is reproducible at FF 3.6 and IE 7 and 8 browser. Can anyone help me out? Am I missing some setting?

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  • How do I exclude data from local table schema_migrations from being pushed to Heroku DB?

    - by Thierry Lam
    I was able to push my Ruby on Rails app with MySQL(local dev) to the Heroku server along with migrating my model with the command heroku rake db:migrate. I have also read the documentation on Database Import/Export. Is that doc referring to pushing actual data from my local dev DB to whichever Heroku's DB? Do I need to modify anything in the file database.yml to make it happen? I ran the following command: heroku db:push and I am getting the error: Sending data 2 tables, 3 records !!! Caught Server Exception | ETA: --:--:-- Taps Server Error: PGError ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "unique_schema_migrations" I have 2 tables, one I create for my app and the other schema_migrations. The total number of entries among the 2 tables is 3. I'm also printing the number of entries I have in the table I have created and it's showing 0. Any ideas what I might be missing or what I am doing wrong? EDIT: I figured out the above, Heroku's DB already have schema_migrations the moment I ran migrate. New question: Does anyone know how I can exclude data from a specific table from being pushed to Heroku DB. The table to exclude in this case will be schema_migrations. Not so good solution: I googled around and someone else was having the same issue. He suggested naming the schema_migrations table to zschema_migrations. In this way data from the other tables will be pushed properly until it fails on the last table. It's a pretty bad solution but will do for the time being. A better solution will be to use an existing Rails command which can reset a specific table from a database. I don't think Rake can do that.

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  • Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

    - by Doug Kavendek
    In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

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  • asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • How to perform Linq select new with datetime in SQL 2008

    - by kd7iwp
    In our C# code I recently changed a line from inside a linq-to-sql select new query as follows: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Year.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Month.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Day.ToString() : "") To: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") The change makes the line smaller and cleaner. It also works fine with our SQL 2008 database in our development environment. However, when the code deployed to our production environment which uses SQL 2005 I received an exception stating: Nullable Type must have a value. For further analysis I copied (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") into a string (outside of a Linq statement) and had no problems at all, so it only causes an in issue inside my Linq. Is this problem just something to do with SQL 2005 using different date formats than from SQL 2008? Here's more of the Linq: dt = FilteredOrders.Where(x => x != null).Select(p => new { Order = p.OrderId, link = "/order/" + p.OrderId.ToString(), StudentId = (p.PersonId.HasValue ? p.PersonId.Value : 0), FirstName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.FirstName, LastName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.LastName, DeliverBy = p.DeliverBy, OrderDate = p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : ""}).ToDataTable(); This is selecting from a List of Order objects. The FilteredOrders list is from another linq-to-sql query and I call .AsEnumerable on it before giving it to this particular select new query. Doing this in regular code works fine: if (o.OrderDate.HasValue) tempString += " " + o.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd");

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  • How do I load an XML document, add and remove nodes, then apply it to a ASP DataGrid control?

    - by JFOX
    I have a pretty simple operation but am struggling with how to implement it. I am loading XML from an external data source using a DataSet.ReadXml(), the creating a new XMLDataDocument from that data set, then syncing the Dataset back to the XMLDataDocument like so: doc = new XmlDataDocument(dsDataSet); dsDataSet.EnforceConstraints = false; dsDataSet= doc.DataSet; Once loaded I do two things to the XmlDataDocument: Loop through and check if a purely meta node, count, exists right beneath the root node and if so remove it. a thumb node exists in a second level nodelist and if not, create and append it. This is all going a expected because the result of doc.save() looks correct. Where I'm having an issue is updating the Dataset, which is being applied as the data source for an ASP DataGrid. Once all the above XMLDoc manipaulation is done I do this: dsDataSet.Merge(doc.DataSet); dsDataSet.AcceptChanges(); I then apply the data set to the grid control: dgList.DataSource = dsDataSet; dgList.DataBind(); But, when I do this I get this error on the site: System.Web.HttpException: DataBinding: 'System.Data.DataRowView' does not contain a property with the name 'thumb'. What did I miss?

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  • PInvokeStackImbalance -- C# with offreg.dll ( windows ddk7 )

    - by user301185
    I am trying to create an offline registry in memory using the offreg.dll provided in the windows ddk 7 package. You can find out more information on the offreg.dll here: MSDN Currently, while attempted to create the hive using ORCreateHive, I receive the following error: "Managed Debugging Assistant 'PInvokeStackImbalance' has detected a problem. This is likely because the managed PInvoke signature does not match the unmanaged target signature. Check that the calling convention and parameters of the PInvoke signature match the target unmanaged signature." Here is the offreg.h file containing ORCreateHive: typedef PVOID ORHKEY; typedef ORHKEY *PORHKEY; VOID ORAPI ORGetVersion( __out PDWORD pdwMajorVersion, __out PDWORD pdwMinorVersion ); DWORD ORAPI OROpenHive ( __in PCWSTR lpHivePath, __out PORHKEY phkResult ); DWORD ORAPI ORCreateHive ( __out PORHKEY phkResult ); DWORD ORAPI ORCloseHive ( __in ORHKEY Handle ); The following is my C# code attempting to call the .dll and create the pointer for future use. using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace WindowsFormsApplication6 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } [DllImport("offreg.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, EntryPoint = "ORCreateHive", SetLastError=true, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern IntPtr ORCreateHive2(); private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { IntPtr myHandle = ORCreateHive2(); } catch (Exception r) { MessageBox.Show(r.ToString()); } } } } I have been able to create pointers in the past with no issue utilizing user32.dll, icmp.dll, etc. However, I am having no such luck with offreg.dll. Thank you.

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  • Java: Exception in thread main java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError

    - by cath
    I am trying to get the Red5 Flash Media Server working on my computer. I have installed it, but when I run the server I get this error Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/red5/server/Bootstrap Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.red5.server.Bootstrap at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:217) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:205) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:321) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:294) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:266) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:334) Could not find the main class: org.red5.server.Bootstrap. Program will exit. I came across this link where someone had the same issue: http://trac.red5.org/ticket/762 It looks like they ran this command: export CLASSPATH=3D$RED5_HOME/lib/slf4j-api-1.5.10.jar:$RED5_HOME/lib/logback- core-0.9.18.jar:$RED5_HOME/lib/logback-classic-0.9.18.jar I have red5 installed in /usr/share/red5, so I ran this: export CLASSPATH=3D$/usr/share/red5/lib/slf4j-api-1.5.10.jar:$/usr/share/red5/lib/logback-core-0.9.18.jar:$/usr/share/red5/lib/logback-classic-0.9.18.jar Yet despite all this I am still seeing the same error message.

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  • Completely bizarre Firefox CSS bug

    - by Jason
    I've been doing front end development for a long time, and I have NEVER come across a bug like this before... Save the following HTML to a file and view it in Firefox (mine is 3.6.3): <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <style type="text/css"> body { font-family: Helvetica, Sans-Serif;} h2 {font-weight: normal;} </style> </head> <body> <h2>Some normal text <strong>some bold text</strong> weird huh?</h2> </body> </html> If you don't want to give it a shot the output is like your cat walked across your keyboard while character map was turned on, except in the strong tags. I feel like this may be a font issue? When I get rid of font-weight: normal it goes back to normal, but I don't want everything to be bolded in my h2... Anyone have any ideas? More importantly, is anyone able to reproduce this?? Thanks.

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  • ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

    - by Jarek Waliszko
    Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

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