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  • How to join a table in symfony (Propel) and retrieve object from both table with one query

    - by Jean-Philippe
    Hi, I'm trying to get an easy way to fetch data from two joined Mysql table using Propel (inside Symfony) but in one query. Let's say I do this simple thing: $comment = CommentPeer::RetrieveByPk(1); print $comment->getArticle()->getTitle(); //Assuming the Article table is joined to the Comment table Symfony will call 2 queries to get that done. The first one to get the Comment row and the next one to get the Article row linked to the comment one. Now, I am trying to find a way to make all that within one query. I've tried to join them using $c = new Criteria(); $c->addJoin(CommentPeer::ARTICLE_ID, ArticlePeer::ID); $c->add(CommentPeer::ID, 1); $comment = CommentPeer::doSelectOne($c); But when I try to get the Article object using $comment->getArticle() It will still issue the query to get the Article row. I could easily clear all the selected columns and select the columns I need but that would not give me the Propel object I'd like, just an array of the query's raw result. So how can I get a populated propel object of two (or more) joined table with only one query? Thanks, JP

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  • Open XML document ContentControls problem with signed id's

    - by willvv
    I have an application that generates Open XML documents with Content Controls. To create a new Content Control I use Interop and the method ContentControls.Add. This method returns an instance of the added Content Control. I have some logic that saves the id of the Content Control to reference it later, but in some computers I've been having a weird problem. When I access the ID property of the Content Control I just created, it returns a string with the numeric id, the problem is that when this value is too big, after I save the document, if I look through the document.xml in the generated document, the <w:id/> element of the <w:sdtPr/> element has a negative value, that is the signed equivalent of the value I got from the Id property of the generated control. For example: var contentControl = ContentControls.Add(...); var contentControlId = contentControl.ID; // the value of contentControlId is "3440157266" If I save the document and open it in the Package Explorer, the Id of the Content Control is "-854810030" instead of "3440157266". What have I figured out is this: ((int)uint.Parse("3440157266")).ToString() returns "-854810030" Any idea of why this happens? This issue is hard to replicate because I don't control the Id of the generated controls, the Id is automatically generated by the Interop libraries.

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  • Can a large transaction log cause cpu hikes to occur

    - by Simon Rigby
    Hello all, I have a client with a very large database on Sql Server 2005. The total space allocated to the db is 15Gb with roughly 5Gb to the db and 10 Gb to the transaction log. Just recently a web application that is connecting to that db is timing out. I have traced the actions on the web page and examined the queries that execute whilst these web operation are performed. There is nothing untoward in the execution plan. The query itself used multiple joins but completes very quickly. However, the db server's CPU hikes to 100% for a few seconds. The issue occurs when several simultaneous users are working on the system (when I say multiple .. read about 5). Under this timeouts start to occur. I suppose my question is, can a large transaction log cause issues with CPU performance? There is about 12Gb of free space on the disk currently. The configuration is a little out of my hands but the db and log are both on the same physical disk. I appreciate that the log file is massive and needs attending to, but I'm just looking for a heads up as to whether this may cause CPU spikes (ie trying to find the correlation). The timeouts are a recent thing and this app has been responsive for a few years (ie its a recent manifestation). Many Thanks,

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  • RSS feed generated by SharePoint has a stylesheet tag and how to remove that

    - by iHeartDucks
    The feed which SharePoint Generates is here (I copied it to pastie because I thought it would be clear there) However, the xml file comes with a style sheet tag. How do I remove that? Does SharePoint always generate that? Due to the presence of that tag, I am unable to apply another style sheet of my own using the XML WebPart. EDIT: I don't think the issue is related to the style sheet. If I copy the xml and paste it in the "Xml Editor" of the Web Part everything works just fine. If I provide the URL, that is when I do not see any data. This is my XSL file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" exclude-result-prefixes="x d ddwrt xsl msxsl" xmlns:x="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/dsp" xmlns:ddwrt="http://schemas.microsoft.com/WebParts/v2/DataView/runtime" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt"> <xsl:output method="html" version="1.0" encoding="iso-8859-1" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:value-of select="count(rss)" /> <xsl:value-of select="count(rss/channel)" /> <xsl:value-of select="count(rss/channel/item)" /> <xsl:for-each select="rss/channel/item"> <xsl:value-of select="title" /> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Pastie link

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  • How to run White + SL4 UATs through TeamCity?

    - by Duncan Bayne
    After experiencing a series of unpleasant issues with TFS, including source code orruption and project management inflexibility, we (meaning the project team of which I'm a part) have decided to move from TFS 2010 to TeamCity + SVN + V1. I've managed to get our MSTest component and unit tests running as part of every build. However, our UATs are failing, and I was hoping for some advice from the TeamCity community as to best practices w.r.t. running web servers and interacting with the desktop. Each of our UAT fixtures starts a web server to host the site, like this: public static void StartWebServer() { var pathToSite = @"C:\projects\myproject\FrontEnd\MyProject.FrontEnd.Web"; var webServer = new Process { StartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo { Arguments = string.Format("/port:9150 /path:\"{0}\"", pathToSite), FileName = @"C:\Program Files (x86)\Common Files\microsoft shared\DevServer\10.0\WebDev.WebServer40.EXE" } }; webServer.Start(); } Needless to say, this doesn't work when running through TeamCity, as the pathToSite value is different each time. I'm hoping there is a way of determining the path into which the the code is checked out prior to building? That would allow me to point the web server at the right place. The other issue is that our UATs use White to drive the Silverlight UI through an instance of Internet Explorer: _browserWindow = InternetExplorer.Launch("http://localhost:9150/index.html#/Home", "Home - Windows Internet Explorer"); _document = _browserWindow.SilverlightDocument; I've ensured that the TeamCity service is granted the ability to interact with the desktop, and I've set the build agent machine up to log in automatically (an open session is a pre-requisite for White to work properly). Is that all I need to do or are there additional steps required?

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  • Creating Multiple TextFields in runtime AS2

    - by ortho
    Hi lads, I have an issue generating multiple text fields in AS2. My AS2 Flash application calls database (via PHP) and then receives XML file that contains a few objects. All I want to do is to loop throught this XML objects and then create a TextField (actually a Component that contains graphics and TextField, but this will come later) based on the information from XML object. I know that I can create something like: _root.createTextField("myText1",1,0,0,100,20); myText1.text = "this is text ONE"; _root.createTextField("myText2",2,0,30,100,20); myText2.text = "this is text TWO"; which will result in 2 text fields, but the problem is when I try to create it dynamicly (e.g. I have item: myNode[0].attributes.name (but when I use it in: _root.createTextField(myNode[0].attributes.name, 1, 0, 0, 100, 20), then I got compile error). var myXML:XML = new XML(); myXML.ignoreWhite=true; myXML.load("tekst.xml"); var tekst:String = new String(); myXML.onLoad = function(success){ if (success){ var myNode = myXML.firstChild.childNodes; for (i=0; i trace("height: "+myNode[i].attributes.height); trace("color: "+myNode[i].attributes.color); trace(myNode[i].firstChild.nodeValue); } } } This actualy traces the values and I can actualy use them when creating the component, but it doesn't create the component that has the same name (obviously both instances point to the same object so the last is only visible). Please help, I tried many things, but no joy. Thank you in advance.

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  • Broken ssl, what to do

    - by TIT
    I have a site and i implemented ssl there. but when i browse it, the security seals dont come. i asked to godaddy, they replaid: Thank you for contacting online support. I cannot replicate the issue you have described. The error you described is caused by the way your site has been designed. If you receive this error, you have a combination of secure and non-secure objects on the page. For example, if your secure website was https://www.domain.tld and you added an object (an image, script, flash file, etc.) to that page that was located at http://www.domain.tld/image.jpg, you would break the seal. You will need to change your design to link to objects using https (ie https://www.domain.tld/image.jpg) or modify your site design to use relative paths (/image.jpg). This error can only be corrected by modifying your site design. Please contact your web designer or the manufacturer of your web design software if you require additional assistance modifying your site design. but the problem is i made everything,all my images javascripts are unders https, but the seal still not coming, saying: some content insecure. what is the problem.

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  • How to properly use references with variadic templates

    - by Hippicoder
    I have something like the following code: template<typename T1, typename T2, typename T3> void inc(T1& t1, T2& t2, T3& t3) { ++t1; ++t2; ++t3; } template<typename T1, typename T2> void inc(T1& t1, T2& t2) { ++t1; ++t2; } template<typename T1> void inc(T1& t1) { ++t1; } I'd like to reimplement it using the proposed variadic templates from the upcoming standard. However all the examples I've seen so far online seem to be printf like examples, the difference here seems to be the use of references. I've come up with the following: template<typename T> void inc(T&& t) { ++t; } template<typename T,typename ... Args> void inc(T&& t, Args&& ... args) { ++t inc(args...); } What I'd like to know is: Should I be using r-values instead of references? Possible hints or clues as to how to accomplish what I want correctly. What guarantees does the new proposed standard provide wrt the issue of the recursive function calls, is there some indication that the above variadic version will be as optimal as the original? (should I add inline or some-such?)

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  • C# Byte[] to Url Friendly String

    - by LorenVS
    Hello, I'm working on a quick captcha generator for a simple site I'm putting together, and I'm hoping to pass an encrypted key in the url of the page. I could probably do this as a query string parameter easy enough, but I'm hoping not too (just because nothing else runs off the query string)... My encryption code produces a byte[], which is then transformed using Convert.ToBase64String(byte[]) into a string. This string, however, is still not quite url friendly, as it can contain things like '/' and '='. Does anyone know of a better function in the .NET framework to convert a byte array to a url friendly string? I know all about System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode() and its equivalents, however, they only work properly with query string parameters. If I url encode an '=' inside of the path, my web server brings back a 400 Bad Request error. Anyways, not a critical issue, but hoping someone can give me a nice solution **EDIT: Just to be absolutely sure exactly what I'm doing with the string, I figured I would supply a little more information. The byte[] that results from my encryption algorithm should be fed through some sort of algorithm to make it into a url friendly string. After this, it becomes the content of an XElement, which is then used as the source document for an XSLT transformation, and is used as a part of the href attribute for an anchor. I don't believe the xslt transformation is causing the issues, since what is coming through on the path appears to be an encoded query string parameter, but causes the HTTP 400 I've also tried HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode() on a base64 string, but that doesn't seem to do the trick either (I still end up with '/'s in my url)**

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  • FileSystemWatcher does not fire when using C++ std::ofstream

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to add a log monitor to an in-house test utility for a windows service I'm working on. The service is written in C++ (win32) and the utility is in .NET (C#) The log monitor works for many other C++ apps I've written, but not for my service. The only main difference I can see is that the other apps use the older ::WriteFile() to output to the log, whereas in the service I'm using std::ofstream like this: std::ofstream logFile; logFile.open("C:\\mylog.log"); logFile << "Hello World!" << std::endl; logFile.flush(); From my utility I use FileSystemWatcher like this: FileSystemWatcher fsw = new FileSystemWatcher(@"C:\", "mylog.log"); fsw.Changed += new FileSystemEventHandler(fsw_Handler); fsw.EnableRaisingEvents = true; But for the service, it never gets any change events as the log is updated. I've found that any example code using FileSystemWatcher I've come across online has the same exact issue as well... But, I know the events should be available because other log monitor apps (like BareTail) work fine with the service log file. I'd rather get the C# code for the utility to just work so it works with anything, but if I have to change the logging code for the service I will. Does anyone see what's going wrong here?

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  • jQuery inconsistent .remove by class on element with multiple classes

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a page where messages and associated elements (responses, forwards, etc) all share a class based on the database id of the parent. For example this is a message this is another message this is a comment this is another comment tim posted a new message sara forwarded a message to john at times I need to remove all elements with the same id, so I originally had jQuery('div#'+id).remove(); but that would sometimes not remove all the ids because ids are supposed to be unique. So I added the id as a class. now I use jQuery('div.'+id).remove(); but this seems to be about 80% effective, and sometimes the divs aren't being removed. I'm not sure if the issue is because the div has more than one class, but I need the classes because that is how I refer to the elements when somebody clicks. For instance, jQuery('div.message').click(function(){ get the id, send it to the server and get the message }); is there something wrong I'm doing here? or is there a better way to do this?

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  • How do I load an XML document, add and remove nodes, then apply it to a ASP DataGrid control?

    - by JFOX
    I have a pretty simple operation but am struggling with how to implement it. I am loading XML from an external data source using a DataSet.ReadXml(), the creating a new XMLDataDocument from that data set, then syncing the Dataset back to the XMLDataDocument like so: doc = new XmlDataDocument(dsDataSet); dsDataSet.EnforceConstraints = false; dsDataSet= doc.DataSet; Once loaded I do two things to the XmlDataDocument: Loop through and check if a purely meta node, count, exists right beneath the root node and if so remove it. a thumb node exists in a second level nodelist and if not, create and append it. This is all going a expected because the result of doc.save() looks correct. Where I'm having an issue is updating the Dataset, which is being applied as the data source for an ASP DataGrid. Once all the above XMLDoc manipaulation is done I do this: dsDataSet.Merge(doc.DataSet); dsDataSet.AcceptChanges(); I then apply the data set to the grid control: dgList.DataSource = dsDataSet; dgList.DataBind(); But, when I do this I get this error on the site: System.Web.HttpException: DataBinding: 'System.Data.DataRowView' does not contain a property with the name 'thumb'. What did I miss?

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  • 404 Not Found When Requesting URI With Encoded Patameters

    - by Richard Knop
    I am pretty sure this is some problem with the Apache configuration because it used to work on the previous hosting provider with the same PHP/MySQL configuration. In my application, users are able to delete photos by going to URIs like this: http://example.com/my-account/remove-media/id/9/ret/my-account%252Fedit-album%252Fid%252F1 The paramater id is an id of a photo to be removed, the parameter ret is a relative URL where user should be redirected after the removal of the photo but after clicking on a link like that I get 404 Not Found error with the text: Not Found The requested URL /public/my-account/remove-media/id/9/ret/my-account/edit-album/id/1 was not found on this server. Though it used to work on my previous hosting provider so I guess it is just some easy Apache configuration issue? One more thing, there is a htaccess file that changes the document root to /public: RewriteEngine On php_value upload_max_filesize 15M php_value post_max_size 15M php_value max_execution_time 200 php_value max_input_time 200 # Exclude some directories from URI rewriting #RewriteRule ^(dir1|dir2|dir3) - [L] RewriteRule ^\.htaccess$ - [F] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ="" RewriteRule ^.*$ /public/index.php [NC,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/public/.*$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /public/$1 RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^public/.*$ /public/index.php [NC,L] In the public folder there is a second htaccess file for MVC: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ /index.php [NC,L] # Turn off magic quotes #php_flag magic_quotes_gpc off

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  • export and import utf8 data in mysql: best practices

    - by ChrisRamakers
    We're often faced with the need to send a data file to one of our clients with data from the database he/she needs to translate. Most of the time this export is CSV or XLS. Most of the time we create a csv dump with phpmyadmin and get an xls file in return with the translated data. The problem is that most of the time the data is UTF8 and when the file is returned as xls each and every time we load the data into mysql again we end up with utf8 problems, characters not being displayed properly, etc ... We've already doublechecked everything in mysql from my.conf to column charactersets and everything is set correctly to UTF8. My question is not how to fix the encoding issue since that's been solved but how we would best proceed in the future handling this situation? What export format should we hand over? How should we import (just mysql load data infile or our own processing scripts). What is the general consensus on how to handle this situation? We would like to continue using excel if possible since that's the format almost everybody expects including our clients' translation agencies. Our clients' ease of use is the most important factor here, without overloading us with major issues each time. The best of both worlds :)

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  • Django 'ImproperlyConfigured' error after deployment on google app engine

    - by oreon
    Hello, I'm currently trying to get my first django project running on Google App Engine. I followed the instructions given here http://www.allbuttonspressed.com/projects/djangoappengine as best I could. Unfortunately I have run into some issues. Locally everything runs fine, no problems. I then tried to deploy my project to the cloud. This is where I'm totally stuck. I always receive 500 Server Errors coupled with google.appengine.runtime.DeadlineExceededError's. Every now and then I get the following error message in my logs, which I think is the root of the problem : <class 'django.core.exceptions.ImproperlyConfigured'>: ImportError projectyalanda.pricecompare: No module named projectyalanda.pricecompare Obviously something is wrong in the way I reference my django app. Why this is only an issue in the cloud is a mystery to me. The interesting part in the settings.py file is setup as following: INSTALLED_APPS = ( 'djangotoolbox', # 'django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'projectyalanda.pricecompare', ) I absolutely can't figure out why django/appengine wouldn't be able to find the module, especially since everything works perfectly locally. So where else can I look? The local folder structure is of course also correct as automatically done by django, so maybe something is messed up during deployment? How would I be able to find out? Please help me ;-) Thanks

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  • Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

    - by Noah Goodrich
    I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

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  • How do I exclude data from local table schema_migrations from being pushed to Heroku DB?

    - by Thierry Lam
    I was able to push my Ruby on Rails app with MySQL(local dev) to the Heroku server along with migrating my model with the command heroku rake db:migrate. I have also read the documentation on Database Import/Export. Is that doc referring to pushing actual data from my local dev DB to whichever Heroku's DB? Do I need to modify anything in the file database.yml to make it happen? I ran the following command: heroku db:push and I am getting the error: Sending data 2 tables, 3 records !!! Caught Server Exception | ETA: --:--:-- Taps Server Error: PGError ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "unique_schema_migrations" I have 2 tables, one I create for my app and the other schema_migrations. The total number of entries among the 2 tables is 3. I'm also printing the number of entries I have in the table I have created and it's showing 0. Any ideas what I might be missing or what I am doing wrong? EDIT: I figured out the above, Heroku's DB already have schema_migrations the moment I ran migrate. New question: Does anyone know how I can exclude data from a specific table from being pushed to Heroku DB. The table to exclude in this case will be schema_migrations. Not so good solution: I googled around and someone else was having the same issue. He suggested naming the schema_migrations table to zschema_migrations. In this way data from the other tables will be pushed properly until it fails on the last table. It's a pretty bad solution but will do for the time being. A better solution will be to use an existing Rails command which can reset a specific table from a database. I don't think Rake can do that.

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  • How do I reset a form in an ajax callback?

    - by B.Gordon
    I am sending a form using simple ajax and returning the results in a div above the form. The problem is that after the form is submitted and validated, I display a thank you and want to reset the form so they don't just press the submit button again... Can't seem to find the right code to do this... <form id="myForm" target="sendemail.php" method="post"> <div id="results"></div> <input type="text" name="value1"> <input type="text" name="value2"> <input type="submit" name="submit"> </form> So, my sendemail.php validation errors and success messages appear in #results without problems. But... when I try to send back a javascript form reset command, it does not work. Naturally I cannot see it in the source code since it is an AJAX callback so I don't know if that is the issue or if I am just using the wrong syntax. echo "<p>Thank you. Your message has been accepted for delivery.</p>"; echo "<script type=\"text/javascript\">setTimeout('document.getElementById('myForm').reset();',1000);</script>"; Any ideas gurus?

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  • Rails ActiveRecord::MultiparameterAssignmentErrors

    - by Neil Middleton
    I have the following code in my model: attr_accessor :expiry_date validates_presence_of :expiry_date, :on => :create, :message => "can't be blank" and the following in my view: <%= date_select :account, :expiry_date, :discard_day => true, :start_year => Time.now.year, :end_year => Time.now.year + 15, :order => [:month, :year] %> However, when I submit my form I get: ActiveRecord::MultiparameterAssignmentErrors in SignupController#create /Users/x/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.8.6-p383/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:3073:in `execute_callstack_for_multiparameter_attributes' /Users/x/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.8.6-p383/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:3028:in `assign_multiparameter_attributes' /Users/x/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.8.6-p383/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2750:in `attributes=' /Users/x/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.8.6-p383/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2438:in `initialize' Any ideas as to what the problem might be? I've looked at #93277 with no joy, so am kinda stuck. Adding day to the select does NOT resolve the issue. Any ideas?

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  • Moq, a translator and an expression

    - by jeriley
    I'm working with an expression within a moq-ed "Get Service" and ran into a rather annoying issue. In order to get this test to run correctly and the get service to return what it should, there's a translator in between that takes what you've asked for, sends it off and gets what you -really- want. So, thinking this was easy I attempt this ... the fakelist is the TEntity objects (translated, used by the UI) and TEnterpriseObject is the actual persistance. mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEnterpriseObject, bool>> expression) => { var items = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(); var translator = (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>) ObjectFactory.GetInstance(typeof (IEntityTranslator<TEntity, TEnterpriseObject>)); fakeList.ForEach(fake => items.Add(translator.ToEnterpriseObject(fake))); items = items.Where(expression); var result = new List<TEnterpriseObject>(items); fakeList.Clear(); result.ForEach(item => translator.ToEntity(item)); return items; }); I'm getting the red squigglie under there items.where(expression) -- says it can't be infered from usage (confused between <Func<TEnterpriseObject,bool>> and <Func<TEnterpriseObject,int,bool>>) A far simpler version works great ... mockGet.Setup(mock => mock.Get(It.IsAny<Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>>>())).Returns( (Expression<Func<TEntity, bool>> expression) => fakeList.AsQueryable().Where(expression)); so I'm not sure what I'm missing... ideas?

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  • Cocoa-Created PDF Not Rendering Correctly

    - by Matthew Roberts
    I've created a PDF on the iPad, but the problem is when you have a line of text greater than 1 line, the content just goes off the page. This is my code: void CreatePDFFile (CGRect pageRect, const char *filename) { CGContextRef pdfContext; CFStringRef path; CFURLRef url; CFMutableDictionaryRef myDictionary = NULL; path = CFStringCreateWithCString (NULL, filename, kCFStringEncodingUTF8); url = CFURLCreateWithFileSystemPath (NULL, path, kCFURLPOSIXPathStyle, 0); CFRelease (path); myDictionary = CFDictionaryCreateMutable(NULL, 0, &kCFTypeDictionaryKeyCallBacks, &kCFTypeDictionaryValueCallBacks); NSString *foos = @"Title"; const char *text = [foos UTF8String]; CFDictionarySetValue(myDictionary, kCGPDFContextTitle, CFSTR(text)); CFDictionarySetValue(myDictionary, kCGPDFContextCreator, CFSTR("Author")); pdfContext = CGPDFContextCreateWithURL (url, &pageRect, myDictionary); CFRelease(myDictionary); CFRelease(url); CGContextBeginPage (pdfContext, &pageRect); CGContextSelectFont (pdfContext, "Helvetica", 12, kCGEncodingMacRoman); CGContextSetTextDrawingMode (pdfContext, kCGTextFill); CGContextSetRGBFillColor (pdfContext, 0, 0, 0, 1); NSString *body = @"text goes here"; const char *text = [body UTF8String]; CGContextShowTextAtPoint (pdfContext, 30, 750, text, strlen(text)); CGContextEndPage (pdfContext); CGContextRelease (pdfContext);} Now the issue lies within me writing the text to the page, but the problem is that I can't seem to specify a multi-line "text view".

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  • Passing an object as parameter from Andriod to web service using ksoap

    - by user3718626
    I have an object called User which implements KvmSerializable. Would like to pass this object to the webservice. PropertyInfo pi = new PropertyInfo(); pi.setName("obj"); pi.setValue(user); pi.setType(user.getClass()); request.addProperty(pi); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); envelope.addMapping(NAMESPACE, "User",User.class); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); I get the following error.... SoapFault - faultcode: 'soapenv:Server' faultstring: 'Unknow type {http://users.com}User' faultactor: 'null' detail: org.kxml2.kdom.Node@53263024 at org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapSerializationEnvelope.parseBody(SoapSerializationEnvelope.java:141) at org.ksoap2.SoapEnvelope.parse(SoapEnvelope.java:140) at org.ksoap2.transport.Transport.parseResponse(Transport.java:118) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:272) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:118) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:113) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.getQuestion(WebServiceCallTask.java:114) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.doInBackground(WebServiceCallTask.java:53) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.doInBackground(WebServiceCallTask.java:1) at android.os.AsyncTask$2.call(AsyncTask.java:287) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:234) at android.os.AsyncTask$SerialExecutor$1.run(AsyncTask.java:230) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1080) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:573) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:856) Appreciate if any one can point me to an sample code or can direct me what is the issue. Thanks.

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  • Passing Variable Length Arrays to a function

    - by David Bella
    I have a variable length array that I am trying to pass into a function. The function will shift the first value off and return it, and move the remaining values over to fill in the missing spot, putting, let's say, a -1 in the newly opened spot. I have no problem passing an array declared like so: int framelist[128]; shift(framelist); However, I would like to be able to use a VLA declared in this manner: int *framelist; framelist = malloc(size * sizeof(int)); shift(framelist); I can populate the arrays the same way outside the function call without issue, but as soon as I pass them into the shift function, the one declared in the first case works fine, but the one in the second case immediately gives a segmentation fault. Here is the code for the queue function, which doesn't do anything except try to grab the value from the first part of the array... int shift(int array[]) { int value = array[0]; return value; } Any ideas why it won't accept the VLA? I'm still new to C, so if I am doing something fundamentally wrong, let me know.

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  • How do I simulate the usage of a sequence of web pages?

    - by Rory Becker
    I have a simple sequence of web pages written in ASP.Net 3.5 SP1. Page1 - A Logon Form.... txtUsername, txtPassword and cmdLogon Page2 - A Menu (created using DevExpress ASP.Net controls) Page3 - The page redirected to by the server in the event that the user picks the right menu option in Page2 I would like to create a threaded program to simulate many users trying to use this sequence of pages. I have managed to create a host Winforms app which Launches a new thread for each "User" I have further managed to work out the basics of WebRequest enough to perform a request which retrieves the Logon page itself. Dim Request As HttpWebRequest = TryCast(WebRequest.Create("http://MyURL/Logon.aspx"), HttpWebRequest) Dim Response As HttpWebResponse = TryCast(Request.GetResponse(), HttpWebResponse) Dim ResponseStream As StreamReader = New StreamReader(Response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.GetEncoding(1252)) Dim HTMLResponse As String = ResponseStream.ReadToEnd() Response.Close() ResponseStream.Close() Next I need to simulate the user having entered information into the 2 TextBoxes and pressing logon.... I have a hunch this requires me to add the right sort of "PostData" to the request. before submitting. However I'm also concerned that "ViewState" may be an issue. Am I correct regarding the PostData? How do I add the postData to the request? Do I need to be concerned about Viewstate? Update: While I appreciate that Selenium or similar products are useful for acceptance testing , I find that they are rather clumsy for what amounts to load testing. I would prefer not to load 100 instances of Firefox or IE in order to simulate 100 users hitting my site. This was the reason I was hoping to take the ASPNet HttpWebRequest route.

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  • Reading and writing XML over an SslStream

    - by Mark
    I want to read and write XML data over an SslStream. The data (written and read) consists of objects serialized by an XmlSerializer. I have tried the following; (left some details out for clarity!) TcpClient tcpClient = new TcpClient(server, port); SslStream sslStream = new SslStream(tcpClient.GetStream(), true, new RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(ValidateServerCertificate), null); sslStream.AuthenticateAsClient(server); XmlReader xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(sslStream,readerSettings); XmlWriter xmlWriter = XmlWriter.Create(sslStream,writerSettings); myClass c = new myClass (); XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(myClass)); serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, c); myClass c2 = (myClass )serializer.Deserialize(xmlReader); First of all, it appears that writing to the stream succeeds. But the XmlSerializer throws an error because of invalid XML. It appears that the first character read from the stream is '00' or a null-character. (I have googled this problem, and see a million people with the same 'problem', but no viable solution.) I can work around this 'issue' by using a StreamReader, read everything into a string and then use that string as input for another stream that the serializer can use. (Very dirty, but it works.) Second problem is, that when I try to use the same SslStream to write a second request, I do not get a response from the Reader. (The server DOES send a valid XML response though!) So the serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, c3) works, but reading from the stream yields no results. I have tried several different classes that implement Stream. (StreamReader, XmlTextReader, etc.) Anyone has an idea how reading and writing XML data to and from an SslStream is supposed to work? Thanks in advance!

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