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  • animated swap position of two buttons

    - by Jagat
    I am trying to swap the position of two buttons. my swapping code looks as below. private void exchangeButtons(Button btn1, Button btn2) { // Create the animation set AnimationSet exchangeAnimation = new AnimationSet(true); TranslateAnimation translate = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn2.getLeft(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn1.getLeft(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn2.getRight(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn1.getRight() ); translate.setDuration(500); exchangeAnimation.addAnimation(translate); // int fromX = btn1.getLeft(); // int fromY = btn1.getRight(); // int toX = btn2.getLeft(); // int toY = btn2.getRight(); Log.d("ArrangeMe", "view1 pos:" + btn1.getLeft() + ", " +btn1.getRight() + "view2 pos:" + btn2.getLeft() + ", " + btn2.getRight()); AnimationSet exchangeAnimation1 = new AnimationSet(true); TranslateAnimation translate1 = new TranslateAnimation( Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn1.getLeft(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn2.getLeft(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn1.getRight(), Animation.RELATIVE_TO_SELF, btn2.getRight() ); translate1.setDuration(500); exchangeAnimation1.addAnimation(translate1); // EXECUTE btn1.startAnimation(exchangeAnimation); btn2.startAnimation(exchangeAnimation1); } I call the code as below exchangeButtons(button1, button2); my layout looks as below what happens when i execute the code is, instead of the buttons exchanging their positions, they just disappear for sometime[may be 500 ms] and reappear as they were originally. how to resolve this problem ? will it work properly in device ? regards

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  • C# ASP.NET Binding Controls via Generic Method

    - by OverTech
    I have a few web applications that I maintain and I find myself very often writing the same block of code over and over again to bind a GridView to a data source. I'm trying to create a Generic method to handle data binding but I'm having trouble getting it to work with Repeaters and DataLists. Here is the Generic method I have so far: public void BindControl<T>(T control, SqlCommand sql) where T : System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl { cmd = sql; cn.Open(); SqlDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (dr.HasRows) { control.DataSource = dr; control.DataBind(); } dr.Close(); cn.Close(); } That way I can just define my CommandText then make a call to "BindControls(myGridView, cmd)" instead of retyping this same basic block of code every time I need to bind a grid. The problem is, this doesn't work with Repeaters or DataLists. Each of these controls inherit their respective "DataSource" and "DataBind" methods from different classes. Someone on another forum suggested that I implement an interface, but I'm not sure how to make that work either. The GridView, Datalist and Repeater get their respective "DataBind" methods from BaseDataBoundControl, BaseDataList, and Repeater classes. How would I go about creating a single interface to tie them all together? Or am I better off just using 3 overloads for this method? Dave

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  • What does the JS function 'postMessage()' do when called on an html object tag?

    - by Stephano
    I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. I found adobe talking about this method, but not really explaining it: HTML-PDF communication basics JavaScript in an HTML page can send a message to JavaScript in PDF content by calling the postMessage() method of the DOM object representing the PDF content. Any ideas how this is accomplished?

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  • Calling javascript function from android webview?

    - by Edmond Tamas
    I try to call a javascript function from directly form my application (webview.apk), in order to start a script which would autoplay a html5 video clip, I have tried to add itt right after webview loadURL but wwithout luck. Maybe someone could take a look at the code. What am I missing? Thanks! package tscolari.mobile_sample; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.webkit.WebSettings; import android.webkit.WebView; import android.webkit.WebViewClient; import android.webkit.WebChromeClient; import android.media.MediaPlayer; public class InfoSpotActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); WebView mainWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.mainWebView); WebSettings webSettings = mainWebView.getSettings(); webSettings.setJavaScriptEnabled(true); mainWebView.setWebChromeClient(new WebChromeClient()); mainWebView.setWebViewClient(new MyCustomWebViewClient()); mainWebView.setScrollBarStyle(View.SCROLLBARS_INSIDE_OVERLAY); mainWebView.loadUrl("http://server.info-spot.net"); mainWebView.loadUrl("javascript:playVideo()"); } private class MyCustomWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } } }

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  • Consuming WCF Web Service

    - by Debby
    Hi, I have a simple web service running and I have a console application client consuming the service. I did have issues getting this running and I had been helped by some wonderful people in this community. I have another problem: if I want to call the service from the client in a loop, it doesn't work. It works only for the first time and then it just keeps waiting. Why is this happening and how can I resolve it. The code: namespace WebService { [ServiceContract] public interface IService { [OperationContract(Name="Result")] [WebGet(UriTemplate = "/")] Stream Result(); } public class Service:IService { public Stream Result() { // read a file from the server and return it as stream } } } The client: namespace WebServiceClient { [ServiceContract] public interface IService { [OperationContract(Name="Result")] [WebGet(UriTemplate = "/")] Stream Result(); } } static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("Press enter when the service is available"); Console.ReadLine(); // creating factory HttpChunkingBinding binding = new HttpChunkingBinding(); binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = 0x7fffffffL; ChannelFactory<WebServiceClient.IService> factory = new ChannelFactory<WebServiceClient.IService> (binding, new EndpointAddress("http://localhost/WebService/Service")); WebServiceClient.IService service = factory.CreateChannel(); for(int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { Stream s = service.Result(); // write this stream to a file and close the stream } //Closing our channel. ((IClientChannel)service).Close(); } Thanks,

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  • What scenarios are possible where the VS C# compiler would not compile a reference of a reference?

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm probably asking this question wrong (and that may be why Google isn't helping), but here goes: In Visual Studio I am compiling a C# project (let's call it Project A, the startup project) which has a reference to Project B. Project B has a reference to a Project C, so when A gets built, the dlls for B gets placed in the bin directory of A, as does the dll for C (because B requires C, and A requires B). However, I have apparently made some change recently so that the dll for Project C does not go into the bin directory of Project A when rebuilding the solution. I have no idea what I've done to make this happen. I have not modified the setup of the solution itself, and I have only added additional references to the project files. Code wise, I have commented out most of the actual code in Project B that references classes in Project C, but did not remove the reference from the project itself (I don't think this matters). I was told that perhaps the C# compiler was optimizing somehow so that it was not building Project C, but really I'm out of ideas. I would think someone has run into something similar before Any thoughts? Thanks!

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  • Does Perl auto-vivify variables used as references in subroutine calls?

    - by FM
    I've declared 2010 to be the year of higher-order programming, so I'm learning Haskell. The introduction has a slick quick-sort demo, and I thought, "Hey, that's easy to do in Perl". It turned to be easier than I expected. Note that I don't have to worry about whether my partitions ($less and $more) are defined. Normally you can't use an undefined value as an array reference. use strict; use warnings; use List::MoreUtils qw(part); my @data = (5,6,7,4,2,9,10,9,5,1); my @sorted = qsort(@data); print "@sorted\n"; sub qsort { return unless @_; my $pivot = shift @_; my ($less, $more) = part { $_ < $pivot ? 0 : 1 } @_; # Works, even though $less and $more are sometimes undefined. return qsort(@$less), $pivot, qsort(@$more); } As best I can tell, Perl will auto-vivify a variable that you try to use as a reference -- but only if you are passing it to a subroutine. For example, my call to foo() works, but not the attempted print. use Data::Dumper qw(Dumper); sub foo { print "Running foo(@_)\n" } my ($x); print Dumper($x); # Fatal: Can't use an undefined value as an ARRAY reference. # print @$x, "\n"; # But this works. foo(@$x); # Auto-vivification: $x is now []. print Dumper($x); My questions: Am I understanding this behavior correctly? What is the explanation or reasoning behind why Perl does this? Is this behavior explained anywhere in the docs?

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  • NSTimer to smooth out playback position

    - by Michael
    I have an audio player and I want to show the current time of the the playback. I'm using a custom play class. The app downloads the mp3 to a file then plays from the file when 5% has been downloaded. I have a progress view update as the file plays and update a label on each call to the progress view. However, this is jerky... sometimes even going backward a digit or two. I was considering using an NSTimer to smooth things out. I would be fired every second to a method and pass the percentage played figure to the method then update the label. First, does this seem reasonable? Second, how do I pass the percentage (a float) over to the target of the timer. Right now I am putting the percent played into a dictionary but this seems less than optimal. This is what is called update the progress bar: -(void)updateAudioProgress:(Percentage)percent { audio = percent; if (!seekChanging) slider.value = percent; NSMutableDictionary *myDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [myDictionary setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:percent] forKey:@"myPercent"]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5 target:self selector:@selector(myTimerMethod:) userInfo:myDictionary repeats:YES]; [myDictionary release]; } This is called first after 5 seconds but then updates each time the method is called. As always, comments and pointers appreciated.

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  • Zend Framework :: Is this code good for user login (Its begining- because that I want to know if its

    - by Yosef
    Hi, I new in Zend. Main Question: Is this code good for user login (Its beginning- because that I want to know if its can be improve)? Code understanding question: Is every time that in action call to his view- code execution in action not going to next row until view request? (I asking about IndexAction that I write down) Thanks view index.phtml <? echo $this->form controller IndexAction.php public function indexAction() { $form=new Application_Form_Login(); $this->view->form = $form; if ($this->getRequest()->isPost()) { $formData = $this->getRequest()->getPost(); if ($form->isValid($formData)) { echo " test value username: ".$form->getValue('username'); } } } form Login.php public function init() { $this->setMethod('post'); $this->setName('user login'); $username = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('username'); $username->setLabel("username") ->setRequired(true) ->addFilter('StripTags') ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator('NotEmpty'); $password = new Zend_Form_Element_Password('password'); $password->setLabel('password') ->setRequired(true) ->addFilter('StripTags') ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator('NotEmpty'); $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $this->addElements(array($username, $password, $submit)); }

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • How can I automatically elevate a COM interface used for automation?

    - by Jim Flood
    I have a Windows service built with ATL to expose a LocalServer32 COM interface for a set of admin commands used for configuring the service, and these can be used from VBScript for example: Set myObj = WScript.CreateObject("MySvc.Administrator") myObj.DoSomething() I want DoSomething to run elevated, and I would like the UAC prompt to come up automatically when this is called by the VBScript. Is this possible? I know I can run the script in an elevated command shell, and that I can use objShell.ShellExecute WScript.FullName, Chr(34) & WScript.ScriptFullName & Chr(34), vbNullString, "runas" for example, to run the VBScript itself elevated, and either of those work fine -- the COM method finds itself elevated. However, AFAIK getting an elevated Explorer window on the desktop is convoluted (it's not as simple as right-clicking Start/Accessories/Windows Explorer/Run as Administrator, which doesn't actually elevate.) I want a user in the local admin group to be able to drag-and-drop files and folders onto the script, and then have the script call the admin COM interface with those pathnames as arguments. (And I am hoping for something simpler than monkeying around with the args and using ShellExecute "runas".) I've tried setting UAC Execution Level to requireAdministrator in the service EXE's manifest, and setting Elevated/Enabled = 1 and LocalizedString in the registry for the MySvc.Administrator class, and these don't do the trick.

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • How to make Web Storage persistent in Cordova using JS?

    - by ett
    I have a small quiz app, which is a cross-platform mobile app, that I plan for it to run on Android, iOS, and WP8. I want to store a local highscore, where it will keep track how many points the user had, and if he/she does better than the already stored highscore, update the current highscore. Though, I want the highscore to be persistent, what I mean is, every time the user opens the app I want the last highscore to be present and it to be compared with the new quiz score. Meaning, I don't want the highscore to be deleted after each time the app is closed. I also want for the first time when the app is ran, the highscore to be set to 0, so obviously the first time the user finishes the quiz gets a new highscore. I have those codes so far: scoredb.js // Wait for device API libraries to load document.addEventListener("deviceready", initScoreDB, false); // Device APIs are available function initScoreDB() { window.localStorage.setItem("score", 0); highscore = window.localStorage.getItem("score"); } main.js var correct = 0; var highscore; // In between I have some code that keeps incrementing // correct variable for each correct answer. if (correct > highscore) { window.localStorage.setItem("score", correct); highscore = correct; } It does seem to work okay once the app is started. I did the quiz three times, in the simulator, and it keeps the score as it should. Though, each time I open the app, highscore is reseted to 0. I guess it is due to the fact that I call initScoreDB when the device is ready, and I initialize the score to 0 there and give that value to highscore. Can someone help me to initialize the score to 0 only when the app is ran for the first time, and all the other times to keep the latest highscore as the current highscore and compare it each time with the score that is achieved when the quiz is finished. If someone can help me, I would be glad.

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  • Access 2007 DAO VBA Error 3381 causes objects in calling methods to "break".

    - by MT
    ---AFTER FURTHER INVESTIGATION--- "tblABC" in the below example must be a linked table (to another Access database). If "tblABC" is in the same database as the code then the problem does not occur. Hi, We have recently upgraded to Office 2007. We have a method in which we have an open recordset (DAO). We then call another sub (UpdatingSub below) that executes SQL. This method has its own error handler. If error 3381 is encountered then the recordset in the calling method becomes "unset" and we get error 3420 'Object invalid or no longer set'. Other errors in UpdatingSub do not cause the same problem. This code works fine in Access 2003. Private Sub Whatonearth() Dim rs As dao.Recordset set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("tblLinkedABC") Debug.Print rs.RecordCount UpdatingSub "ALTER TABLE tblTest DROP Column ColumnNotThere" 'Error 3240 occurs on the below line even though err 3381 is trapped in the calling procedure 'This appears to be because error 3381 is encountered when calling UpdatingSub above Debug.Print rs.RecordCount End Sub Private Sub WhatonearthThatWorks() Dim rs As dao.Recordset set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("tblLinkedABC") Debug.Print rs.RecordCount 'Change the update to generate a different error UpdatingSub "NONSENSE SQL STATEMENT" 'Error is trapped in UpdatingSub. Next line works fine. Debug.Print rs.RecordCount End Sub Private Sub UpdatingSub(strSQL As String) On Error GoTo ErrHandler: CurrentDb.Execute strSQL ErrHandler: 'LogError' End Sub Any thoughts? We are running Office Access 2007 (12.0.6211.1000) SP1 MSO (12.0.6425.1000). Perhaps see if SP2 can be distributed? Sorry about formatting - not sure how to fix that.

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  • How do I work with constructs in PHPUnit?

    - by Ben Dauphinee
    I am new into PHPUnit, and just digging through the manual. I cannot find a decent example of how to build a complete test from end to end though, and so, am left with questions. One of these is how can I prep my environment to properly test my code? I am trying to figure out how to properly pass various configuration values needed for both the test setup/teardown methods, and the configs for the class itself. // How can I set these variables on testing start? protected $_db = null; protected $_config = null; // So that this function runs properly? public function setUp(){ $this->_acl = new acl( $this->_db, // The database connection for the class passed // from whatever test construct $this->_config // Config values passed in from construct ); } // Can I just drop in a construct like this, and have it work properly? // And if so, how can I set the construct call properly? public function __construct( Zend_Db_Adapter_Abstract $db, $config = array(), $baselinedatabase = NULL, $databaseteardown = NULL ){ $this->_db = $db; $this->_config = $config; $this->_baselinedatabase = $baselinedatabase; $this->_databaseteardown = $databaseteardown; } // Or is the wrong idea to be pursuing?

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  • Dynamically added JTable not displaying

    - by Graza
    Java Newbie here. I have a JFrame that I added to my netbeans project, and I've added the following method to it, which creates a JTable. Problem is, for some reason when I call this method, the JTable isn't displayed. Any suggestions? public void showFromVectors(Vector colNames, Vector data) { jt = new javax.swing.JTable(data, colNames); sp = new javax.swing.JScrollPane(jt); //NB: "this" refers to my class DBGridForm, which extends JFrame this.add(sp,java.awt.BorderLayout.CENTER); this.setSize(640,480); } The method is called in the following context: DBGridForm gf = new DBGridForm(); //DBGridForm extends JFrame DBReader.outMatchesTable(gf); gf.setVisible(true); ... where DBReader.outMatchesTable() is defined as static public void outMatchesTable(DBGridForm gf) { DBReader ddb = new DBReader(); ddb.readMatchesTable(null); gf.showFromVectors(ddb.lastRsltColNames, ddb.lastRsltData); } My guess is I'm overlooking something, either about the swing classes I'm using, or about Java. Any ideas?

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  • Memory Leak Looping cfmodule inside cffunction

    - by orangepips
    Hoping someone else can confirm or tell me what I'm doing wrong. I am able to consistently reproduce an OOM running by calling the file oom.cfm (shown below). Using jconsole I am able to see the request consumes memory and never releases it until complete. The issue appears to be calling <cfmodule> inside of <cffunction>, where if I comment out the <cfmodule> call things are garbage collected while the request is running. ColdFusion version: 9,0,1,274733 JVM Arguments java.home=C:/Program Files/Java/jdk1.6.0_18 java.args=-server -Xms768m -Xmx768m -Dsun.io.useCanonCaches=false -XX:MaxPermSize=512m -XX:+UseParallelGC -Xbatch -Dcoldfusion.rootDir={application.home}/ -Djava.security.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/coldfusion.policy -Djava.security.auth.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/neo_jaas.policy -Xdebug -Xrunjdwp:transport=dt_socket,server=y,suspend=n,address=56033 Test Case oom.cfm (this calls template.cfm below) <cffunction name="fun" output="false" access="public" returntype="any" hint=""> <cfset var local = structNew()/> <!--- comment out cfmodule and no OOM ---> <cfmodule template="template.cfm"> </cffunction> <cfset size = 1000 * 200> <cfloop from="1" to="#size#" index="idx"> <cfset fun()> <cfif NOT idx mod 1000> <cflog file="se-err" text="#idx# of #size#"> </cfif> </cfloop> template.cfm <!--- I am empty! --->

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  • Avoiding Multiple Dialog Calls with htaccess

    - by Jeffrey J Weimer
    OK, I'm new to this, so pardon if the question is already a FAQ. Searching multiple places still leaves me dumbfounded. I have a Web site generated with iWeb09/Mac hosting on an ISP. To secure certain pages, I am trying to set up .htaccess + .htpasswd files. The basic directory structure is ... Main index.html Images.html Images (some css, js stuff) Media Image01 Image01.jpeg ... Image02 Image02.jpeg ... I want to password protect access to the Images directory and all the files therein. The index.html file has a link to the Images.html file that contains the layout for the files in the Images directory. I have put a basic .htaccess file at the Main level that restricts access via ... <Files "Images.html"> AuthType Basic AuthName "Images" AuthUserFile /Main/.htpasswd AuthGroupFile /dev/null Require valid-user </Files> I have then created a valid .htpasswd file. All works at the start, however after the first call to set up the Images.html page, the secure login prompt is displayed multiple times, presumably once for every sub-sub-directory Images/Media/ImageXX (with multiple sub-directories, I just give up after two or three times). I have also tried placing the .htaccess file inside the Images directory with the same problem. Recommendations I have seen suggest a better convention is needed in the basic .htaccess file itself. Alternatively, perhaps a companion .htaccess is needed in the Images directory. So, how do I fix this problem? -- JJW

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  • Scapy install issues. Nothing seems to actually be installed?

    - by Chris
    I have an apple computer running Leopard with python 2.6. I downloaded the latest version of scapy and ran "python setup.py install". All went according to plan. Now, when I try to run it in interactive mode by just typing "scapy", it throws a bunch of errors. What gives! Just in case, here is the FULL error message.. INFO: Can't import python gnuplot wrapper . Won't be able to plot. INFO: Can't import PyX. Won't be able to use psdump() or pdfdump(). ERROR: Unable to import pcap module: No module named pcap/No module named pcapy ERROR: Unable to import dnet module: No module named dnet Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/runpy.py", line 122, in _run_module_as_main "__main__", fname, loader, pkg_name) File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/runpy.py", line 34, in _run_code exec code in run_globals File "/Users/owner1/Downloads/scapy-2.1.0/scapy/__init__.py", line 10, in <module> interact() File "scapy/main.py", line 245, in interact scapy_builtins = __import__("all",globals(),locals(),".").__dict__ File "scapy/all.py", line 25, in <module> from route6 import * File "scapy/route6.py", line 264, in <module> conf.route6 = Route6() File "scapy/route6.py", line 26, in __init__ self.resync() File "scapy/route6.py", line 39, in resync self.routes = read_routes6() File "scapy/arch/unix.py", line 147, in read_routes6 lifaddr = in6_getifaddr() File "scapy/arch/unix.py", line 123, in in6_getifaddr i = dnet.intf() NameError: global name 'dnet' is not defined

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  • Using jQuery tools from within GWT -- is there a way to allow exchanges?

    - by culov
    I have a GWT web-app with a nearly full page Google map window. Inside the the map, I have infowindows which include links. What I want to do is use jquery tools overlays (http://flowplayer.org/tools/overlay/apple.html) to open the overlay and display it on top of the map once the link inside the info window is clicked. Now, the link source is generated dynamically, and it is hosted on a different server, so i have to open it in an iframe and set the source of the iframe before it opens. this seems simple enough since i only have 1 iframe on the page: function changeSource(url){ $("#menuIFrame").attr("src",url); } To call this before opening the overlay (which is done on mouse release), i create the following element in the google maps infowindow via GWT: <a href="http://whatever.com/menu/" onClick="changeSource('http://whatever.com/menu/');" rel=#menu"> View menu </a> Jquery tools works by opening whatever div has the id assigned to the value of 'rel', but because i have my javascript/jquery on my LandingPage.html in GWT, there appears to be some sort of disconnect between the two because the changeSource function is never called AND the overlay is never added to the window. Here's my app: http://truxmapper.appspot.com/ As you can see, the other overlays will work fine, but once you click an infowindow and try to view the menu, it will simply use the href to open the url in that window. Does anyone know of a solution that will allow me to accomplish my goal? Thanks!

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  • How do you organise your MVC controller tests?

    - by Andrew Bullock
    I'm looking for tidy suggestions on how people organise their controller tests. For example, take the "add" functionality of my "Address" controller, [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Add() { var editAddress = new DTOEditAddress(); editAddress.Address = new Address(); editAddress.Countries = countryService.GetCountries(); return View("Add", editAddress); } [RequireRole(Role = Role.Write)] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Add(FormCollection form) { // save code here } I might have a fixture called "when_adding_an_address", however there are two actions i need to test under this title... I don't want to call both actions in my Act() method in my fixture, so I divide the fixture in half, but then how do I name it? "When_adding_an_address_GET" and "When_adding_an_address_POST"? things just seems to be getting messy, quickly. Also, how do you deal with stateless/setupless assertions for controllers, and how do you arrange these wrt the above? for example: [Test] public void the_requesting_user_must_have_write_permissions_to_POST() { Assert.IsTrue(this.SubjectUnderTest.ActionIsProtectedByRole(c => c.Add(null), Role.Write)); } This is custom code i know, but you should get the idea, it simply checks that a filter attribute is present on the method. The point is it doesnt require any Arrange() or Act(). Any tips welcome! Thanks

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  • Manage multiple UDP calls

    - by rayman
    Hi all, I would like to have an advice for this issue: I am using Jbos 5.1.0, EJB3.0 I have system, which sending requests via UDP'S to remote modems, and suppose to wait for an answer from the target modem. the remote modems support only UDP calls, therefor I o design asynchronous mechanism. (also coz I want to request X modems parallel) this is what I try to do: all calls are retrieved from Data Base, then each call will be added as a message to JMS QUE. let's say i will set X MDB'S on that que, so I can work asynchronous. now each MDB will send UDP request to the IP-address(remote modem) which will be parsed from the que message. so basicly each MDB, which takes a message is sending a udp request to the remote modem and [b]waiting [/b]for an answer from that modem. [u]now here is the BUG:[/u] could happen a scenario where MDB will get an answer, but not from the right modem( which it requested in first place). that bad scenario cause two wrong things: a. the sender which sent the message will wait forever since the message never returned to him(it got accepted by another MDB). b. the MDB which received the message is not the right one, and probablly if it was on a "listener" mode, then it supposed to wait for an answer from diffrent sender.(else it wouldnt get any messages) so ofcourse I can handle everything with a RETRY mechanisem. so both mdb's(the one who got message from the wrong sender, and the one who never got the answer) will try again, to do thire operation with a hope that next time it will success. This is the mechanism, mybe you could tell me if there is any design pattren, or any other effective solution for this problem? Thanks, ray.

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  • How to pass dynamic parameters to .pde file

    - by Kalpana
    class Shape contains two methods drawCircle() and drawTriangle(). Each function takes different set of arguments. At present, I invoke this by calling the pde file directly. How to pass these arguments from a HTML file directly if I have to control the arguments being passed to the draw function? 1) Example.html has (current version) <script src="processing-1.0.0.min.js"></script> <canvas data-processing-sources="example.pde"></canvas> 2) Example.pde has class Shape { void drawCircle(intx, int y, int radius) { ellipse(x, y, radius, radius); } void drawTriangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2, int x3, int y3) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2, x3, y3); } } Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 40, 70); I am looking to do something like this in my HTML file, so that I can move all the functions into a separate file and call them with different arguments to draw different shapes (much similar to how you would do it in Java) A.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 10, 3); </script> B.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawTriangle(30, 75, 58, 20, 86, 75); </script> 2) Iam using Example2.pde has void setup() { size(200,200); background(125); fill(255); } void rectangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2); } My Example2.html has var processingInstance; processingInstance.rectangle(30, 20, 55, 55); but this is not working. How to pass these parameters dynamically from html.

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  • How to create custom omniauth provider (how to return data)

    - by user2803917
    I searched all around the net, how to create a custom provider for omniauth.. and i succedded partly.. I created a gem, and it worked perfectly, except the part, that i cant understand how to return the gathered data to sessions controller, like other providers do.. here is the code in auth gem: require 'multi_json' require 'digest/md5' require 'rest-client' module OmniAuth module Strategies class Providername < OmniAuth::Strategies::OAuth attr_accessor :app_id, :api_key, :auth def initialize(app, app_id = nil, api_key = nil, options = {}) super(app, :providername) @app_id = app_id @api_key = api_key end protected def request_phase redirect "http://valid_url" end def callback_phase if request.params['code'] && request.params['status'] == 'ok' response = RestClient.get("http://valid_url2/?code=#{request.params['auth_code']}") auth = MultiJson.decode(response.to_s) unless auth['error'] @auth_data = auth if @auth_data @return_data = OmniAuth::Utils.deep_merge(super, { 'uid' => @auth_data['uid'], 'nickname' => @auth_data['nick'], 'user_info' => { 'first_name' => @auth_data['name'], 'last_name' => @auth_data['surname'], 'location' => @auth_data['place'], }, 'credentials' => { 'apikey' => @auth_data['apikey'] }, 'extra' => {'user_hash' => @auth_data} }) end end else fail!(:invalid_request) end rescue Exception => e fail!(:invalid_response, e) end end end end and here i call it in my initializers: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider "providername", Settings.providers.providername.app_id, Settings.providers.providername.app_secret end in this code, everything works fine so far, the provider gets called, i get the info from provider, i create a hash (@auth_data) with info, but how do i return it

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  • Silverlight 3 data-binding child property doesn't update

    - by sonofpirate
    I have a Silverlight control that has my root ViewModel object as it's data source. The ViewModel exposes a list of Cards as well as a SelectedCard property which is bound to a drop-down list at the top of the view. I then have a form of sorts at the bottom that displays the properties of the SelectedCard. My XAML appears as (reduced for simplicity): <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Cards}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedCard, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.Name}" /> <ListBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.PendingTransactions}" /> </StackPanel> I would expect the TextBlock and ListBox to update whenever I select a new item in the ComboBox, but this is not the case. I'm sure it has to do with the fact that the TextBlock and ListBox are actually bound to properties of the SelectedCard so it is listening for property change notifications for the properties on that object. But, I would have thought that data-binding would be smart enough to recognize that the parent object in the binding expression had changed and update the entire binding. It bears noting that the PendingTransactions property (bound to the ListBox) is lazy-loaded. So, the first time I select an item in the ComboBox, I do make the async call and load the list and the UI updates to display the information corresponding to the selected item. However, when I reselect an item, the UI doesn't change! For example, if my original list contains three cards, I select the first card by default. Data-binding does attempt to access the PendingTransactions property on that Card object and updates the ListBox correctly. If I select the second card in the list, the same thing happens and I get the list of PendingTransactions for that card displayed. But, if I select the first card again, nothing changes in my UI! Setting a breakpoint, I am able to confirm that the SelectedCard property is being updated correctly. How can I make this work???

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