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  • Passing IDisposable objects through constructor chains

    - by Matt Enright
    I've got a small hierarchy of objects that in general gets constructed from data in a Stream, but for some particular subclasses, can be synthesized from a simpler argument list. In chaining the constructors from the subclasses, I'm running into an issue with ensuring the disposal of the synthesized stream that the base class constructor needs. Its not escaped me that the use of IDisposable objects this way is possibly just dirty pool (plz advise?) for reasons I've not considered, but, this issue aside, it seems fairly straightforward (and good encapsulation). Codes: abstract class Node { protected Node (Stream raw) { // calculate/generate some base class properties } } class FilesystemNode : Node { public FilesystemNode (FileStream fs) : base (fs) { // all good here; disposing of fs not our responsibility } } class CompositeNode : Node { public CompositeNode (IEnumerable some_stuff) : base (GenerateRaw (some_stuff)) { // rogue stream from GenerateRaw now loose in the wild! } static Stream GenerateRaw (IEnumerable some_stuff) { var content = new MemoryStream (); // molest elements of some_stuff into proper format, write to stream content.Seek (0, SeekOrigin.Begin); return content; } } I realize that not disposing of a MemoryStream is not exactly a world-stopping case of bad CLR citizenship, but it still gives me the heebie-jeebies (not to mention that I may not always be using a MemoryStream for other subtypes). It's not in scope, so I can't explicitly Dispose () it later in the constructor, and adding a using statement in GenerateRaw () is self-defeating since I need the stream returned. Is there a better way to do this? Preemptive strikes: yes, the properties calculated in the Node constructor should be part of the base class, and should not be calculated by (or accessible in) the subclasses I won't require that a stream be passed into CompositeNode (its format should be irrelevant to the caller) The previous iteration had the value calculation in the base class as a separate protected method, which I then just called at the end of each subtype constructor, moved the body of GenerateRaw () into a using statement in the body of the CompositeNode constructor. But the repetition of requiring that call for each constructor and not being able to guarantee that it be run for every subtype ever (a Node is not a Node, semantically, without these properties initialized) gave me heebie-jeebies far worse than the (potential) resource leak here does.

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  • How do I set up FirePHP version 1.0?

    - by jay
    I love FirePHP and I've been using it for a while, but they've put out this massive upgrade and I'm completely flummoxed trying to get it to work. I think I'm copying the "Quick Start" code (kind of guessing at whatever changes are necessary for my server configuration), but for some reason, FirePHP's "primary" function, FirePHP::to() isn't doing anything. Can anyone please help me figure out what I'm doing wrong? Thanks. <?php define('INSIGHT_IPS', '*'); define('INSIGHT_AUTHKEYS', '290AA9215205F24E5104F48D61B60FFC'); define('INSIGHT_PATHS', __DIR__); define('INSIGHT_SERVER_PATH', '/doc_root/hello_firephp2.php'); set_include_path(get_include_path . ":/home8/jayharri/php/FirePHP/lib"); // path to FirePHP library require_once('FirePHP/Init.php'); $inpector = FirePHP::to('page'); var_dump($inspector); $console = $inspector->console(); $console->log('hello firephp'); ?> Output: NULL Fatal error: Call to a member function console() on a non-object in /home8/jayharri/public_html/if/doc_root/hello_firephp2.php on line 14

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  • Can't log in with a valid password using Authlogic and Ruby on Rails?

    - by kbighorse
    We support a bit of an unusual scheme. We don't require a password on User creation, and use password_resets to add a password to the user later, on demand. The problem is, once a password is created, the console indicates the password is valid: user.valid_password? 'test' = true but in my UserSessions controller, @user_session.save returns false using the same password. What am I not seeing? Kimball UPDATE: Providing more details, here is the output when saving the new password: Processing PasswordResetsController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2011-01-31 14:01:12) [PUT] Parameters: {"commit"="Update password", "action"="update", "_method"="put", "authenticity_token"="PQD4+eIREKBfHR3/fleWuQSEtZd7RIvl7khSYo5eXe0=", "id"="v3iWW5eD9P9frbEQDvxp", "controller"="password_resets", "user"={"password"="johnwayne"}} The applicable SQL is: UPDATE users SET updated_at = '2011-01-31 22:01:12', crypted_password = 'blah', perishable_token = 'blah', password_salt = 'blah', persistence_token = 'blah' WHERE id = 580 I don't see an error per se, @user_session.save just returns false, as if the password didn't match. I skip validating passwords in the User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic do |c| c.validate_password_field = false end Here's the simplified controller code: def create logger.info("SAVED SESSION? #{@user_session.save}") end which outputs: Processing UserSessionsController#create (for 127.0.0.1 at 2011-01-31 14:16:59) [POST] Parameters: {"commit"="Login", "user_session"={"remember_me"="0", "password"="johnwayne", "email"="[email protected]"}, "action"="create", "authenticity_token"="PQD4+eIREKBfHR3/fleWuQSEtZd7RIvl7khSYo5eXe0=", "controller"="user_sessions"} User Columns (2.2ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM users User Load (3.7ms) SELECT * FROM users WHERE (users.email = '[email protected]') ORDER BY email ASC LIMIT 1 SAVED SESSION? false CACHE (0.0ms) SELECT * FROM users WHERE (users.email = '[email protected]') ORDER BY email ASC LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://localhost:3000/login Lastly, the console indicates that the new password is valid: $ u.valid_password? 'johnwayne' = true Would love to do it all in the console, is there a way to load UserSession controller and call methods directly? Kimball

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • Problem with setVisible (true)

    - by Jessy
    The two examples shown below are same. Both are supposed to produce same result e.g. generate the coordinates of images displayed on JPanel. Example 1, works perfectly (print the coordinates of images), however example 2 returning 0 for the coordinate. I was wondering why because, I have put the setvisible (true) after adding the panel, in both examples. The only difference is that example 1 used extends JPanel and example 2 extends JFrame EXAMPLE 1: public class Grid extends JPanel{ public static void main(String[] args){ JFrame jf=new JFrame(); jf.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); final Grid grid = new Grid(); jf.add(grid); jf.pack(); Component[] components = grid.getComponents(); for (Component component : components) { System.out.println("Coordinate: "+ component.getBounds()); } jf.setVisible(true); } } EXAMPLE 2: public class Grid extends JFrame { public Grid () { setLayout(new GridBagLayout()); GridBagLayout m = new GridBagLayout(); Container c = getContentPane(); c.setLayout (m); GridBagConstraints con = new GridBagConstraints(); //construct the JPanel pDraw = new JPanel(); ... m.setConstraints(pDraw, con); pDraw.add (new GetCoordinate ()); // call new class to generate the coordinate c.add(pDraw); pack(); setVisible(true); } public static void main(String[] args) { new Grid(); } }

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  • ASP.NET MVC Newbie: why isn't my model available when creating a strongly-typed view?

    - by Rax Olgud
    I'm starting with ASP.NET MVC, and working with NerdDinner as reference. I did the following: Created a new project Added a couple of tables Created LINQ to SQL for them Created a new controller My Models directory now contains MyModel.dbml, under which I have MyModel.designer.cs, that contains classes for models relating to both of my tables (let's call them Categories and Products). Now, under my new controller, I would like to create a strongly typed view. So for example I have the following code in my controller (for my application I must work by name, and the "Name" field is unique): public ActionResult Details(string name) { MyModelDataContext db = new MyModelDataContext(); Product user = db.Products.Single(t => t.Name == name); return View(user); } I would like to create a strongly-typed view. So I right-click the line "return View(user)", and choose "Add View...". I click "Create a strongly-typed view". When I click the dropdown of "View data class", I don't see my models, but only: MyProject.Controllers.AccountMembershipService MyProject.Controllers.FormsAuthenticationService What am I missing?

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  • How to pass dynamic values using MVC AJax.BeginForm

    - by Arthur
    I'm using MVC and AJax.BeginForm to do some ajax updating of my page. The BeginForm code looks something like: using (Ajax.BeginForm("HandleCrop", "Card", new { accept = true, id = Model.ImageUpload.ID, file = Model.ImageUpload.File, imageCropX = Model.CropInfo.X, imageCropY = Model.CropInfo.Y, imageCropWidth = Model.CropInfo.Width, imageCropHeight = Model.CropInfo.Height }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "ConfirmCompleted", OnSuccess = "ReloadUpload", OnFailure = "Failure" }, null)) The Model.CropInfo is being put in as hidden fields like so: <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.X) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Y) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Width) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Height) %> However, these values are being dynamically modified by some client side javascript, and these values need to be posted through the Ajax call back to the server. The above code will obviously not work as the imageCrop.. parameters in the Ajax form are being filled when the page is rendered (therefore being all 0). My question is: what is the correct way to approach this situation?

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  • Stored Procedure Does Not Fire Last Command

    - by jp2code
    On our SQL Server (Version 10.0.1600), I have a stored procedure that I wrote. It is not throwing any errors, and it is returning the correct values after making the insert in the database. However, the last command spSendEventNotificationEmail (which sends out email notifications) is not being run. I can run the spSendEventNotificationEmail script manually using the same data, and the notifications show up, so I know it works. Is there something wrong with how I call it in my stored procedure? [dbo].[spUpdateRequest](@packetID int, @statusID int output, @empID int, @mtf nVarChar(50)) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @id int SET @id=-1 -- Insert statements for procedure here SELECT A.ID, PacketID, StatusID INTO #act FROM Action A JOIN Request R ON (R.ID=A.RequestID) WHERE (PacketID=@packetID) AND (StatusID=@statusID) IF ((SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #act)=0) BEGIN -- this statusID has not been entered. Continue SELECT ID, MTF INTO #req FROM Request WHERE PacketID=@packetID WHILE (0 < (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #req)) BEGIN SELECT TOP 1 @id=ID FROM #req INSERT INTO Action (RequestID, StatusID, EmpID, DateStamp) VALUES (@id, @statusID, @empID, GETDATE()) IF ((@mtf IS NOT NULL) AND (0 < LEN(RTRIM(@mtf)))) BEGIN UPDATE Request SET MTF=@mtf WHERE ID=@id END DELETE #req WHERE ID=@id END DROP TABLE #req SELECT @id=@@IDENTITY, @statusID=StatusID FROM Action SELECT TOP 1 @statusID=ID FROM Status WHERE (@statusID<ID) AND (-1 < Sequence) EXEC spSendEventNotificationEmail @packetID, @statusID, 'http:\\cpweb:8100\NextStep.aspx' END ELSE BEGIN SET @statusID = -1 END DROP TABLE #act END Idea of how the data tables are connected:

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  • C: 8x8 -> 16 bit multiply precision guaranteed by integer promotions?

    - by craig-blome
    I'm trying to figure out if the C Standard (C90, though I'm working off Derek Jones' annotated C99 book) guarantees that I will not lose precision multiplying two unsigned 8-bit values and storing to a 16-bit result. An example statement is as follows: unsigned char foo; unsigned int foo_u16 = foo * 10; Our Keil 8051 compiler (v7.50 at present) will generate a MUL AB instruction which stores the MSB in the B register and the LSB in the accumulator. If I cast foo to a unsigned int first: unsigned int foo_u16 = (unsigned int)foo * 10; then the compiler correctly decides I want a unsigned int there and generates an expensive call to a 16x16 bit integer multiply routine. I would like to argue beyond reasonable doubt that this defensive measure is not necessary. As I read the integer promotions described in 6.3.1.1, the effect of the first line shall be as if foo and 10 were promoted to unsigned int, the multiplication performed, and the result stored as unsigned int in foo_u16. If the compiler knows an instruction that does 8x8-16 bit multiplications without loss of precision, so much the better; but the precision is guaranteed. Am I reading this correctly? Best regards, Craig Blome

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  • Jasmine testing coffeescript expect(setTimeout).toHaveBeenCalledWith

    - by Lee Quarella
    In the process of learning Jasmine, I've come to this issue. I want a basic function to run, then set a timeout to call itself again... simple stuff. class @LoopObj constructor: -> loop: (interval) -> #do some stuff setTimeout((=>@loop(interval)), interval) But I want to test to make sure the setTimeout was called with the proper args describe "loop", -> xit "does nifty things", -> it "loops at a given interval", -> my_nifty_loop = new LoopObj interval = 10 spyOn(window, "setTimeout") my_nifty_loop.loop(interval) expect(setTimeout).toHaveBeenCalledWith((-> my_nifty_loop.loop(interval)), interval) I get this error: Expected spy setTimeout to have been called with [ Function, 10 ] but was called with [ [ Function, 10 ] ] Is this because the (-> my_nifty_loop.loop(interval)) function does not equal the (=>@loop(interval)) function? Or does it have something to do with the extra square brackets around the second [ [ Function, 10 ] ]? Something else altogther? Where have I gone wrong?

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  • Template compiling errors on iPhone SDK 3.2

    - by Didier Malenfant
    I'm porting over some templated code from Windows and I'm hitting some compiler differences on the iPhone 3.2 SDK. Original code inside a class template's member function is: return BinarySearch<uint32, CSimpleKey<T> >(key); where BinarySearch is a method inherited from another template. This produces the following error: csimplekeytable.h:131: error: no matching function for call to 'BinarySearch(NEngine::uint32&)' The visual studio compiler seems to walk up the template hierarchy fine but gcc needs me to fully qualify where the function comes from (I have verified this by fixing the same issues with template member variables that way). So I now need to change this into: return CSimpleTable<CSimpleKey<T> >::BinarySearch<uint32, CSimpleKey<T> >(key); Which now produces the following error: csimplekeytable.h:132: error: expected primary-expression before ',' token csimplekeytable.h:132: error: expected primary-expression before '>' token After some head scratching, I believe what's going on here is that it's trying to resolve the '<' before BinarySearch as a 'Less Than' operator for some reason. So two questions: - Am I on the right path with my interpretation of the error? - How do I fix it? -D

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  • Getting 404 Not Found connecting to webDAV

    - by Cragly
    I am trying to connect to a secure webDAV folder and download a file. I am having problems just trying to get a response from the server and as it keeps giving me a 404 Not Found error as soon as I call Request.GetResponse(). I can connect to the webDAV folder using Windows Explorer by mapping a drive but cannot seem to do this in code. I have looked at other post on this site and others online but most seem to concentrate on connecting to Outlook. Has anybody else had this issue? The code I am using is as follows: string URI = "https://transfer.mycompany.com/myDirectory/myFile.csv"; string username = "username"; string password = "password"; Request = (HttpWebRequest) WebRequest.Create(URI); Request.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(username, password); Request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Get; Request.Headers.Add("Translate", "f"); Response = (HttpWebResponse) Request.GetResponse(); contentLength = Convert.ToInt64(Response.GetResponseHeader("Content-Length"));

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  • Iframe/Popup redirecting opener window

    - by Bara
    Hello all, I have a page located at x.com. On this page is a button that, when clicked, will launch a new window (using javascript's window.open() method) to a page that is located at z.com. The popup does a few things, then redirects the original window (the opener, x.com) to a different page based on some parameters defined in the popup. This works fine in Firefox/Chrome, but not in IE. In IE (8 specifically, but I believe 7 also has this problem) the original window (the opener) is not redirected. Instead, a new window comes up and THAT window is redirected. I've tried many different methods to try and get this to work, including changing the popup to an iframe loaded on the page and having a function on the opener that the popup/iframe call. The problem seems to be that IE refuses to allow cross-domain sites to talk to each other via javascript. Is there a way around this? How can I get the parent window to redirect to a page based on parameters in a popup or iframe? Bara

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  • Dynamic expression tree how to

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hello everybody! Implemented a generic repository with several Methods. One of those is this: public IEnumerable<T> Find(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where) { return _objectSet.Where(where); } Given to be it is easy to call this like this: Expression<Func<Culture, bool>> whereClause = c => c.CultureId > 4 ; return cultureRepository.Find(whereClause).AsQueryable(); But now i see (realize) that this kind of quering is "limiting only to one criteria". What i would like to do is this: in the above example c is of type Culture. Culture has several properties like CultureId, Name, Displayname,... How would i express the following: CultureId 4 and Name.contains('de') and in another execution Name.contains('us') and Displayname.contains('ca') and .... Those queries should be created dynamically. I had a look in Expression trees (as i thought this to be a solution to my problem - btw i never used them before) but i cannot find anything which points to my requirement. How can this be costructed? Thanks in advance

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  • Ditching Django's models for Ajax/Web Services

    - by Igor Ganapolsky
    Recently I came across a problem at work that made me rethink Django's models. The app I am developing resides on a Linux server. Its a simple model/view/controller app that involves user interaction and updating data in the database. The problem is that this data resides in a MS SQL database on a Windows machine. So in order to use Django's models, I would have to leverage an ODBC driver on linux, and the use a python add-on like pyodbc. Well, let me tell you, setting up a reliable and functional ODBC connection on linux is no easy feat! So much so, that I spent several hours maneuvering this on my CentOS with no luck, and was left with frustration and lots of dumb system errors. In the meantime I have a deadline to meet, and suddenly the very agile and rapid Django application is a roadblock rather than a pleasure to work with. Someone on my team suggested writing this app in .NET. But there are a few problems with that: it won't be deployable on a linux machine, and I won't be able to work on it since I don't know ASP.net. Then a much better suggestion was made: keep the app in django, but instead of using models, do straight up ajax/web services calls in the template. And then it dawned on me - what a great idea. Django's models seem like a nuissance and hindrance in this case, and I can just have someone else write .Net services on their side, that I can call from my template. As a result my app will be leaner and more compact. So, I was wondering if you guys ever came across a similar dillema and what you decided to do about it.

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  • Blackberry invalidate field not causing a repaint

    - by Michaela
    I'm writing a Blackberry app. I have a custom list field where I can select an item in the list which pushes the edit screen onto the stack. I edit the item and save, and when I pop that screen off so I am back on my list screen, I want to view the update I just made reflected in the list. I have done this on other screens which just had LabelFields and it worked fine. However, with the list screen, calling invalidate() seems to do nothing. I know the value has saved correctly through print lines, and I see the paint() method in the listfield is getting called. But the only way I can get the list field to update is to delete it from the screen and re-add it. That seems wrong. What am I doing wrong? public class ListTasksScreen extends MainScreen{ private TaskList tasks; private CustomListField taskListField; public ListTasksScreen (TaskList tasks){ super(); this.tasks = tasks; Vector incompleteTasks = tasks.getIncompleteTasks(); taskListField = new CustomListField(incompleteTasks, tasks); add(taskListField); } public void updateTaskList(TaskList t) { Vector incompleteTasks = t.getIncompleteTasks(); taskListField= new TaskListField(incompletetTasks, t); //I just want to call taskListField.invalidate() here. //the only thing that seems to work is deleting taskListField //and re-adding this.delete(taskListField); add(taskListField); } }

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  • qtruby, QUiLoader and respond_to?

    - by Tim Sylvester
    I'm writing a simple Qt4 application in Ruby (using qtruby) to teach myself both. Mostly it has gone well, but in trying to use Ruby's "duck typing" I've run into a snag; respond_to? doesn't seem to reflect reality. irb(main):001:0> require 'rubygems' => true irb(main):002:0> require 'Qt4' => true irb(main):003:0> require 'qtuitools' => true irb(main):004:0> Qt::Application.new(ARGV) => #<Qt::Application:0xc3c9a08 objectName="ruby"> irb(main):005:0> file = Qt::File.new("dlg.ui") { open(Qt::File::ReadOnly) } => #<Qt::File:0xc2e1748 objectName=""> irb(main):006:0> obj = Qt::UiLoader.new().load(file, nil) => #<Qt::Dialog:0xc2bf650 objectName="dlg", x=0, y=0, width=283, height=244> irb(main):007:0> obj.respond_to?('children') => false irb(main):008:0> obj.respond_to?(:children) => false irb(main):009:0> obj.children => [#<Qt::FormInternal::TranslationWatcher:0xc2a1980 objectName="">, ... As you can see, when I check to ensure that the object I get back from loading the UI file has a children accessor I get false. If call that accessor, however, I get an array rather than a NoMethodError. So, is this a bug or have I incorrectly understood respond_to?? This looks like the problem described here, but I thought I would get an expert opinion before filing a bug against the project.

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  • How does the socket API accept() function work?

    - by Eli Bendersky
    The socket API is the de-facto standard for TCP/IP and UDP/IP communications (that is, networking code as we know it). However, one of its core functions, accept() is a bit magical. To borrow a semi-formal definition: accept() is used on the server side. It accepts a received incoming attempt to create a new TCP connection from the remote client, and creates a new socket associated with the socket address pair of this connection. In other words, accept returns a new socket through which the server can communicate with the newly connected client. The old socket (on which accept was called) stays open, on the same port, listening for new connections. How does accept work? How is it implemented? There's a lot of confusion on this topic. Many people claim accept opens a new port and you communicate with the client through it. But this obviously isn't true, as no new port is opened. You actually can communicate through the same port with different clients, but how? When several threads call recv on the same port, how does the data know where to go? I guess it's something along the lines of the client's address being associated with a socket descriptor, and whenever data comes through recv it's routed to the correct socket, but I'm not sure. It'd be great to get a thorough explanation of the inner-workings of this mechanism.

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  • Read file:// URLs in IE XMLHttpRequest

    - by Dan Fabulich
    I'm developing a JavaScript application that's meant to be run either from a web server (over http) or from the file system (on a file:// URL). As part of this code, I need to use XMLHttpRequest to load files in the same directory as the page and in subdirectories of the page. This code works fine ("PASS") when executed on a web server, but doesn't work ("FAIL") in Internet Explorer 8 when run off the file system: <html><head> <script> window.onload = function() { var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.open("GET", window.location.href, false); xhr.send(null); if (/TestString/.test(xhr.responseText)) { document.body.innerHTML="<p>PASS</p>"; } } </script> <body><p>FAIL</p></body> Of course, at first it fails because no scripts can run at all on the file system; the user is prompted a yellow bar, warning that "To help protect your security, Internet Explorer has restricted this webpage from running scripts or ActiveX controls that could access your computer." But even once I click on the bar and "Allow Blocked Content" the page still fails; I get an "Access is Denied" error on the xhr.open call. This puzzles me, because MSDN says that "For development purposes, the file:// protocol is allowed from the Local Machine zone." This local file should be part of the Local Machine Zone, right? How can I get code like this to work? I'm fine with prompting the user with security warnings; I'm not OK with forcing them to turn off security in the control panel. EDIT: I am not, in fact, loading an XML document in my case; I'm loading a plain text file (.txt).

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  • Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

    - by user292662
    Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

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  • Using jQuery tools from within GWT -- is there a way to allow exchanges?

    - by culov
    I have a GWT web-app with a nearly full page Google map window. Inside the the map, I have infowindows which include links. What I want to do is use jquery tools overlays (http://flowplayer.org/tools/overlay/apple.html) to open the overlay and display it on top of the map once the link inside the info window is clicked. Now, the link source is generated dynamically, and it is hosted on a different server, so i have to open it in an iframe and set the source of the iframe before it opens. this seems simple enough since i only have 1 iframe on the page: function changeSource(url){ $("#menuIFrame").attr("src",url); } To call this before opening the overlay (which is done on mouse release), i create the following element in the google maps infowindow via GWT: <a href="http://whatever.com/menu/" onClick="changeSource('http://whatever.com/menu/');" rel=#menu"> View menu </a> Jquery tools works by opening whatever div has the id assigned to the value of 'rel', but because i have my javascript/jquery on my LandingPage.html in GWT, there appears to be some sort of disconnect between the two because the changeSource function is never called AND the overlay is never added to the window. Here's my app: http://truxmapper.appspot.com/ As you can see, the other overlays will work fine, but once you click an infowindow and try to view the menu, it will simply use the href to open the url in that window. Does anyone know of a solution that will allow me to accomplish my goal? Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Create a Task list, with tasks without executing

    - by Ernesto Araya Eguren
    I have an async method private async Task DoSomething(CancellationToken token) a list of Tasks private List<Task> workers = new List<Task>(); and I have to create N threads that runs that method public void CreateThreads(int n) { tokenSource = new CancellationTokenSource(); token = tokenSource.Token; for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) { workers.Add(DoSomething(token)); } } but the problem is that those have to run at a given time public async Task StartAllWorkers() { if (0 < workers.Count) { try { while (0 < workers.Count) { Task finishedWorker = await Task.WhenAny(workers.ToArray()); workers.Remove(finishedWorker); finishedWorker.Dispose(); } if (workers.Count == 0) { tokenSource = null; } } catch (OperationCanceledException) { throw; } } } but actually they run when i call the CreateThreads Method (before the StartAllWorkers). I searched for keywords and problems like mine but couldn't find anything about stopping the task from running. I've tried a lot of different aproaches but anything that could solve my problem entirely. For example, moving the code from DoSomething into a workers.Add(new Task(async () => { }, token)); would run the StartAllWorkers(), but the threads will never actually start. There is another method for calling the tokenSource.Cancel().

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  • PHP: Best solution for links breaking in a mod_rewrite app

    - by psil
    I'm using mod rewrite to redirect all requests targeting non-existent files/directories to index.php?url=* This is surely the most common thing you do with mod_rewrite yet I have a problem: Naturally, if the page url is "mydomain.com/blog/view/1", the browser will look for images, stylesheets and relative links in the "virtual" directory "mydomain.com/blog/view/". Problem 1: Is using the base tag the best solution? I see that none of the PHP frameworks out there use the base tag, though. I'm currently having a regex replace all the relative links to point to the right path before output. Is that "okay"? Problem 2: It is possible that the server doesn't support mod_rewrite. However, all public files like images, stylesheets and the requests collector index.php are located in the directory /myapp/public. Normally mod_rewrite points all request to /public so it seems as if public was actually the root directory too all users. However if there is no mod_rewrite, I then have to point the users to /public from the root directory with a header() call. That means, however that all links are broken again because suddenly all images, etc. have to be called via /public/myimage.jpg Additional info: When there is no mod_rewrite the above request would look like this: mydomain.com/public/index.php/blog/view/1 What would be the best solutions for both problems?

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  • Why page_load is called twice in my web application?

    - by harisri786
    Hi, I have already gone through some of the posts in many websites regarding page_load being called twice but my problem is little bit different from those. My problem is with the landing page of my web application. Initially in my website page_load for the landing page was getting called twice every time when it is loaded. Since my application is an upgraded one (from VS 2003 to VS 2005/2008), I commented the "this.load" event in InitializeComponent. Now it works fine, when user first logs in, into my web application. But then, whenever user navigates to this page from any other page in my application, page_load gets called twice. Does anybody have any idea about why this could be happening. I tried to track the call stack for this, but VS 2008 was showing that this was getting called from external code. Also, I am using frames in my web application. I wonder if this problem has anything to do with frames. Any help is deeply appreciated. Regards, Hari

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