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  • What happens to existing workspaces after upgrading to TFS 2010

    - by e-mre
    Hi, I was looking for some insight about what happens to existing workspaces and files that are already checked-out on people, after an upgrade to TFS2010. Surprisingly enough I can not find any satisfactory information on this. (I am talking about upgrading on new hardware by the way. Fresh TFS instance, upgraded databases) I've checked TFS Installation guide, I searched through the web, all I could find is upgrade scenarios for the server side. Nobody even mentions what happens to source control clients. I've created a virtual machine to test the upgrade process, The upgrade was successful and all my files and workspaces exist in the new server too. The problem is: The new TFS installation has a new instanceID. When I redirected on the clients to the new server, the client seemed unable to match files and file states in the workspace with the ones on the new server. This makes me wonder if it will be possible to keep working after the production upgrade. As I mentioned above I can not find anything on this, it would be great if anyone could point me to some paper or blog post about this. Thanks in advance...

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  • PHP Preg_replace after a specific amount of characters with a conditional

    - by Marc Ripley
    I've been working on this for a bit, but my regex is weak. I need to check to see if a number is a whole number (single digit) and append a ".001" to it if so. The problem is, it's in the middle of a line with values separated by commas. MATERIALS,1,1,9999;1 4PL1 PB_Mel,,1,6,0.173,0.173,0.375,0,0.375,0,0,0,0,2,0,1,1 Needs to be MATERIALS,1,1,9999;1 4PL1 PB_Mel,,1.001,6,0.173,0.173,0.375,0,0.375,0,0,0,0,2,0,1,1 The line must start with "MATERIALS". There are more than one MATERIALS lines. The value will always be after 5 commas. I was trying something like this to even replace the number, but I don't think the approach is quite right: $stripped = preg_replace('/(MATERIALS)(,.*?){4}(,\d+?),/', '\2,', $stripped); I tried going through a preg_match_all for if process, to at least get the conditional working, but I still have to replace the lines. for($i=0;$i<sizeof($materialsLines[0]);$i++) { $section = explode(",",$materialsLines[0][$i]); if (strlen($section[5]) == 1) { $section[5] .= ".001"; } $materialsLines[0][$i] = implode(",",$section); }

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  • OpenGLES - Rendering a background image only once and not wiping it

    - by chaosbeaker
    Hello, first time asking a question here but been watching others answers for a while. My own question is one for improving the performance of my program. Currently I'm wiping the viewFrameBuffer on each pass through my program and then rendering the background image first followed by the rest of my scene. I was wondering how I go about rendering the background image once, and only wiping the rest of the scene for updating/re-rendering. I tried using a seperate buffer but I'm not sure how to present this new buffer to the render buffer. // Set the current EAGLContext and bind to the framebuffer. This will direct all OGL commands to the // framebuffer and the associated renderbuffer attachment which is where our scene will be rendered [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); // Define the viewport. Changing the settings for the viewport can allow you to scale the viewport // as well as the dimensions etc and so I'm setting it for each frame in case we want to change i glViewport(0, 0, screenBounds.size.width , screenBounds.size.height); // Clear the screen. If we are going to draw a background image then this clear is not necessary // as drawing the background image will destroy the previous image glClearColor(0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); // Setup how the images are to be blended when rendered. This could be changed at different points during your // render process if you wanted to apply different effects glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); switch (currentViewInt) { case 1: { [background render:CGPointMake(240, 0) fromTopLeftBottomRightCenter:@"Bottom"]; // Other Rendering Code }} // Bind to the renderbuffer and then present this image to the current context glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, viewRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; Hopefully by solving this I'll also be able to implement another buffer just for rendering particles as I can set them to always use a black background as their alpha source. Any help is greatly appreciated

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  • Problem in Building mplsh-run in lshkit

    - by Yijinsei
    Hi guy, been trying out this for quite some time but I'm still unable to built mplsh-run from lshkit Not sure if this would help to explain my situation during the building process /tmp/cc17kth4.o: In function `lshkit::MultiProbeLshRecallTable::reset(lshkit::MultiProbeLshModel, unsigned int, double, double)': mplsh-run.cpp:(.text._ZN6lshkit24MultiProbeLshRecallTable5resetENS_18MultiProbeLshModelEjdd[lshkit::MultiProbeLshRecallTable::reset(lshkit::MultiProbeLshModel, unsigned int, double, double)]+0x230): undefined reference to `lshkit::MultiProbeLshModel::recall(double) const' /tmp/cc17kth4.o: In function `void lshkit::MultiProbeLshIndex<unsigned int>::query_recall<lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> > >(float const*, float, lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> >&) const': mplsh-run.cpp:(.text._ZNK6lshkit18MultiProbeLshIndexIjE12query_recallINS_11TopkScannerINS_6MatrixIfE8AccessorENS_6metric5l2sqrIfEEEEEEvPKffRT_[void lshkit::MultiProbeLshIndex<unsigned int>::query_recall<lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> > >(float const*, float, lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> >&) const]+0x2c4): undefined reference to `lshkit::MultiProbeLsh::genProbeSequence(float const*, std::vector<unsigned int, std::allocator<unsigned int> >&, unsigned int) const' /tmp/cc17kth4.o: In function `void lshkit::MultiProbeLshIndex<unsigned int>::query<lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> > >(float const*, unsigned int, lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> >&)': mplsh-run.cpp:(.text._ZN6lshkit18MultiProbeLshIndexIjE5queryINS_11TopkScannerINS_6MatrixIfE8AccessorENS_6metric5l2sqrIfEEEEEEvPKfjRT_[void lshkit::MultiProbeLshIndex<unsigned int>::query<lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> > >(float const*, unsigned int, lshkit::TopkScanner<lshkit::Matrix<float>::Accessor, lshkit::metric::l2sqr<float> >&)]+0x4a): undefined reference to `lshkit::MultiProbeLsh::genProbeSequence(float const*, std::vector<unsigned int, std::allocator<unsigned int> >&, unsigned int) const' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status the command that i used to built mplsh-run is g++ -I./lshkit/include -L/usr/lib -lm -lgsl -lgslcblas -lboost_program_options-mt mplsh-run.cpp Do you guys have any clue on how I could solve this?

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  • jQuery removing elements from DOM put still reporting as present

    - by RyanP13
    Hi, I have an address finder system whereby a user enters a postcode, if postcode is validated then an address list is returned and displayed, they then select an address line, the list dissappears and then the address line is split further into some form inputs. The issue i am facing is when they have been through the above process then cleared the postcode form field, hit the find address button and the address list re-appears. Event though the list and parent tr have been removed from the DOM it is still reporting it is present as length 1? My code is as follows: jQuery // when postcode validated display box var $addressList = $("div#selectAddress > ul").length; // if address list present show the address list if ($addressList != 0) { $("div#selectAddress").closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } // address list hidden by default // if coming back to modify details then display address inputs var $customerAddress = $("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); var $addressInputs = $.cookies.get('cpqbAddressInputs'); if ($addressInputs) { if ($addressInputs == 'visible') { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); } } else { $($customerAddress).closest("tr").addClass("hide"); } // Need to change form action URL to call post code web service $("input.findAddress").live('click', function(){ var $postCode = encodeURI($("input#customerPostcode").val()); if ($postCode != "") { var $formAction = "customerAction.do?searchAddress=searchAddress&custpc=" + $postCode; $("form#detailsForm").attr("action", $formAction); } else { alert($addressList);} }); // darker highlight when li is clicked // split address string into corresponding inputs $("div#selectAddress ul li").live('click', function(){ $(this).removeClass("addressHover"); //$("li.addressClick").removeClass("addressClick"); $(this).addClass("addressClick"); var $splitAddress = $(this).text().split(","); $($customerAddress).each(function(){ var $inputCount = $(this).index("form#detailsForm input[name*='customerAddress']"); $(this).val($splitAddress[$inputCount]); }); $($customerAddress).closest("tr").removeClass("hide"); $.cookies.set('cpqbAddressInputs', 'visible'); $(this).closest("tr").fadeOut(250, function() { $(this).remove(); }); });

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  • How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

    - by theog
    I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

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  • How can I determine PerlLogHandler performance impact?

    - by Timmy
    I want to create a custom Apache2 log handler, and the template that is found on the apache site is: #file:MyApache2/LogPerUser.pm #--------------------------- package MyApache2::LogPerUser; use strict; use warnings; use Apache2::RequestRec (); use Apache2::Connection (); use Fcntl qw(:flock); use File::Spec::Functions qw(catfile); use Apache2::Const -compile => qw(OK DECLINED); sub handler { my $r = shift; my ($username) = $r->uri =~ m|^/~([^/]+)|; return Apache2::Const::DECLINED unless defined $username; my $entry = sprintf qq(%s [%s] "%s" %d %d\n), $r->connection->remote_ip, scalar(localtime), $r->uri, $r->status, $r->bytes_sent; my $log_path = catfile Apache2::ServerUtil::server_root, "logs", "$username.log"; open my $fh, ">>$log_path" or die "can't open $log_path: $!"; flock $fh, LOCK_EX; print $fh $entry; close $fh; return Apache2::Const::OK; } 1; What is the performance cost of the flocks? Is this logging process done in parallel, or in serial with the HTTP request? In parallel the performance would not matter as much, but I wouldn't want the user to wait another split second to add something like this.

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  • Remove this URL string when login fails and simply show div error

    - by Anagio
    My developer built our registration page to display a div when logins failed based on a string in the URL. When logins fail this is added to the URL /login?msg=invalid The PHP in my login.phtml which displays the error messages based on the msg= parameter is <?php $msg = ""; $msg = $_GET['msg']; if($msg==""){ $showMsg = ""; } elseif($msg=="invalid"){ $showMsg = ' <div class="alert alert-error"> <a class="close" data-dismiss="alert">×</a> <strong>Error!</strong> Login or password is incorrect! </div>'; } elseif($msg=="disabled"){ $showMsg = "Your account has been disabled."; } elseif($msg==2){ $showMsg = "Your account is not activated. Please check your email."; } ?> In the controller the redirect to that URL is else //email id does not exist in our database { //redirecting back with invalid email(invalid) msg=invalid. $this->_redirect($url."?msg=invalid"); } I know there are a few other validation types for disabled accounts etc. I'm in the process of redesigning the entire interface and would like to get rid of this kind of validation so that the div tags display when logins fail but not show the URL strings. If it matters the new div I want to display is <div class="alert alert-error alert-login"> Email or password incorrect </div> I'd like to replace the php my self in my login.phtml and controller but not a good programmer. What can I replace $this->_redirect($url."?msg=invalid"); with so that no strings are added to the URL and display the appropriate div tags? Thanks

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  • How to insert zeros between bits in a bitmap?

    - by anatolyg
    I have some performance-heavy code that performs bit manipulations. It can be reduced to the following well-defined problem: Given a 13-bit bitmap, construct a 26-bit bitmap that contains the original bits spaced at even positions. To illustrate: 0000000000000000000abcdefghijklm (input, 32 bits) 0000000a0b0c0d0e0f0g0h0i0j0k0l0m (output, 32 bits) I currently have it implemented in the following way in C: if (input & (1 << 12)) output |= 1 << 24; if (input & (1 << 11)) output |= 1 << 22; if (input & (1 << 10)) output |= 1 << 20; ... My compiler (MS Visual Studio) turned this into the following: test eax,1000h jne 0064F5EC or edx,1000000h ... (repeated 13 times with minor differences in constants) I wonder whether i can make it any faster. I would like to have my code written in C, but switching to assembly language is possible. Can i use some MMX/SSE instructions to process all bits at once? Maybe i can use multiplication? (multiply by 0x11111111 or some other magical constant) Would it be better to use condition-set instruction (SETcc) instead of conditional-jump instruction? If yes, how can i make the compiler produce such code for me? Any other idea how to make it faster? Any idea how to do the inverse bitmap transformation (i have to implement it too, bit it's less critical)?

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  • Browser freezes when try to call a JS function along with submission of a form.

    - by Waseem
    I have form in my view like following 1 <div> 2 <% form_tag facebook_user_path do %> 3 <label>Use my photo and name from facebook?</label><br /> 4 <%= check_box_tag 'use_name_and_photo', 'yes', true %> 5 <img src="<%= @user.pic %>" /><% @user.name %> 6 7 <%= submit_tag "Finish", :id => "use_name_and_photo_submit" %> 8 <% end %> 9 </div> I have attached some JS handlers using Jquery to this form. 1 var fb = { 2 extendedPermissions: function () { 3 $("#use_name_and_photo_submit").click(function (event) { 4 FB.Connect.showPermissionDialog("email,read_stream,publish_stream", function (perms) { 5 if (!perms) { 6 alert("You have to grant facebook extended permissions to further browse the application."); 7 } else { 8 $("form").submit(function () { 9 $.post($(this).attr("action"), $(this).serialize(), null, "script"); 10 }); 11 } 12 }); 13 event.preventDefault(); 14 return false; 15 }); 16 } 17 }; 18 19 $(document).ready(function () { 20 fb.extendedPermissions(); 21 }); What I want is that when the user clicks on the "Finish" button, he is prompted for the facebook permissions dialogue and when he gives the permissions, the form is submitted to FacebookUsersController. Right now when I click the "Finish" button, facebook permissions dialogue is initiated but before I am prompted for the actual permission submission window, the browser freezes. Just like I have pressed Esc during the process. In fact status bar of the browser says "Stopped". Any help is highly appreciated.

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  • Utility of List<T>.Sort() versus List<T>.OrderBy() for a member of a custom container class

    - by ccomet
    I've found myself running back through some old 3.5 framework legacy code, and found some points where there are a whole bunch of lists and dictionaries that must be updated in a synchronized fashion. I've determined that I can make this process infinitely easier to both utilize and understand by converging these into custom container classes of new custom classes. There are some points, however, where I came to concerns with organizing the contents of these new container classes by a specific inner property. For example, sorting by the ID number property of one class. As the container classes are primarily based around a generic List object, my first instinct was to write the inner classes with IComparable, and write the CompareTo method that compares the properties. This way, I can just call items.Sort() when I want to invoke the sorting. However, I've been thinking instead about using items = items.OrderBy(Func) instead. This way it is more flexible if I need to sort by any other property. Readability is better as well, since the property used for sorting will be listed in-line with the sort call rather than having to look up the IComparable code. The overall implementation feels cleaner as a result. I don't care for premature or micro optimization, but I like consistency. I find it best to stick with one kind of implementation for as many cases as it is appropriate, and use different implementations where it is necessary. Is it worth it to convert my code to use the LINQ OrderBy instead of using List.Sort? Is it a better practice to stick with the IComparable implementation for these custom containers? Are there any significant mechanical advantages offered by either path that I should be weighing the decision on? Or is their end-functionality equivalent to the point that it just becomes coder's preference?

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  • How to inherit the current path when invoking Maven's exec-maven-plugin?

    - by wishihadabettername
    I have an <exec-maven-plugin> which calls an external command (in this case, svnversion). The command is in the path for the current user. However, when a separate shell is spawned by the plugin, the path is not initialized. I don't want to hardcode or define a variable for each external command (there would be too much to maintain, especially that there are both Windows and *nix users). My pom.xml contains the following: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.1</version> <executions> <execution> <id>svnversion-exec</id> <phase>process-resources</phase> <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <configuration> <executable>svnversion</executable> <arguments> <argument><![CDATA[ >version.txt ]]></argument> </arguments> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> Currently I get the following output: [INFO] [exec:exec {execution: svnversion-exec}] 'svnversion' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. [ERROR] BUILD ERROR: Result of cmd.exe /X /C "svnversion >version.txt" execution is: '1'. Thank you!

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  • XMLHttpRequst return null on Chrome

    - by BoltBait
    I have the following code that works fine in IE: <HTML> <BODY> <script language="JavaScript"> text=""; req = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (req) { req.onreadystatechange = processStateChange; req.open("GET", "http://www.boltbait.com", true); req.send(); } function processStateChange() { // is the data ready for use? if (req.readyState == 4) { // process my data alert(req.status); alert(req.responseText); } } </script> </BODY> </HTML> In IE, the first alert returns 200, the second returns the web page. However, in Chrome the first alert returns 0 and the second returns the empty string. My intent is to grab a web page into a string for processing. If I'm not doing this right, how should I be doing this? Thanks.

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  • Is the Java classpath final after JVM startup?

    - by Jens
    Hi, I have read a lot about the Java class loading process lately. Often I came across texts that claimed that it is not possible to add classes to the classpath during runtime and load them without class loader hackery (URLClassLoaders etc.) As far as I know classes are loaded dynamically. That means their bytecode representation is only loaded and transformed to a java.lang.Class object when needed. So shouldn't it be possible to add a JAR or *.class file to the classpath after the JVM started and load those classes, provided they haven't been loaded yet? (To be clear: In this case the classpath is simple folder on the filesystem. "Adding a JAR or *.class file" simply means dropping them in this folder.) And if not, does that mean that the classpath is searched on JVM startup and all fully qualified names of the found classes are cached in an internal "list"? It would be nice of you if you could point me to some sources in your answers. Preferably the offical SUN documentation: Sun JVM Spec. I have read the spec but could not find anything about the classpath and if it's finalized on JVM startup. P.s. This is a theoretical question. I just want to know if it is possible. There is nothing practical I want to achieve. There is just my thirst for knowledge :)

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  • ArrayCollection loop through for matching items

    - by charlie
    Hi I hope someone can help me..... i am trying to build a dynamic form for a questionnaire module. Building on some previous posts I am using the process similar to that in question "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/629021/how-to-generate-a-formmxform-dynamically-in-flex" i have managed to prove out the fact of extending the XML to include a calendar, combobox etc. my problem is that now need to get the data from an ArrayCollection rather than from an xml file. I am looking to loop through the AC and where type = "text" render a textinput field, where a type ="calendar" render a Calendar etc etc. my code so far just looking at a textinput field (and sorry for all the comments included ;) is:- [Bindable] public var AC:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection( [ {type:'text', direction:'horizontal', tooltip:'test tooltip', label:'my textbox label', id:'1'}, {type:'text', direction:'horizontal', tooltip:'another tooltip', label:'another label', id:'2'} ]); private function init():void { var form:Form = new Form(); for each(var elements:XML in AC) { switch( [email protected]()) { case "text": var fi:FormItem = new FormItem(); // fi.toolTip = elements.tooltip.toString(); // fi.required = getglobalprofile.required.toString(); // fi.direction = getglobalprofileb[i].@direction; var li:Label = new Label(); // li.text = getglobalprofileb[i].@label; // li.width = 100; var ti:TextInput = new TextInput(); ti.text = "test"; ti.width = 200; form.addChild(fi); fi.addChild(li); fi.addChild(ti); // break; } } this.addChild( form); } ]] <mx:Form id="form" name="form"> </mx:Form> if you are interested in the working xml version (rendering only) let me know and i will post this as well

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  • How to enter text into the "Write something..." box on Facebook and click Submit

    - by Peter Payne
    Hello, I am trying to manipulate Facebook pages in various ways, using Javascript browser elements. I'd need to be able to insert some text into the top "Type something..." box that shows on my site's fan page (or alternately, "click into" the field and I can type the text using GUI scripting), then click the "submit" button as if i'd done it by hand. It's tricky since the page is very Ajax heavy and I can't find the names of the elements I need to manipulate, let alone how to manipulate them as they're not using traditional form fields I'm used to. Can anyone help me figure out how to do this with javascript commands, which I'd be calling from Applescript on the Mac? Many thanks in advance. UPDATE Thanks for the comments below. Believe me, I am not trying to do anything spammy or douchy, mainly posting links to products that have gone live on page facebook page, but do it during the business day when people are on rather than at strange hours of the day. I am located in Japan so my sleep period is right when people are using FB. The solution I came up with for clicking the button was got using UI Browser, an outstanding tool if you're trying to script on the Mac. The script that clicked the button for me was: tell application "Safari" activate set thename to name of (get current tab of window 1) delay 3 tell application "System Events" tell process "Safari" try click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 3 of window thename -- this one works on the mini? on error click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 2 of window thename -- did not work end try end tell end tell end tell Hope this is useful to anyone.

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  • Can the Subversion client (svn) derefence symbolic links as if they were files?

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    I have a directory on a Linux system that mostly contains symlinks to files on a different filesystem. I'd like to add the directory to a Subversion repository, dereferencing the symlinks in the process (treating them as the files they point to, rather than links). Generally, I'd like to be able to handle any working-copy operations with this behavior, but the 'svn add' command is where it starts, I think. The SVN client utility doesn't appear to have any options related to symlink dereferencing in the working copy. I didn't find any references to this in the manual (http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.5/index.html), either. I found a poster on the SVN users mailing list who asked the same question but never received an answer, here: http://markmail.org/message/ngchfnzlmm43yj7h (That poster ended up using hard links instead of symlinks. That technique is not an option, in my case, because the real underlying files reside on a separate filesystem.) I'm using Subversion v1.6.1 on Fedora 11. For what it's worth, I know that there are alternative tools/techniques that could help approximate this behavior, but which I have to discard for various reasons. I've already considered [and dust-binned] these possibilities: - a "union" mount, merging all of the the directories containing the real files, with the SVN working-copy directory as the "top" layer in the union; - copying/moving the real files to the same filesystem as the SVN working-copy, and using hardlinks instead of symlinks; - non-SVN version control systems. These were all neat ideas, and I'm sure they are good solutions to other problems, but they won't work given the constraints of this environment and situation.

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  • A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

    - by Ben
    I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

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  • How to redirect registry access of a dll loaded by my program

    - by dummzeuch
    I have got a dll that I load in my program which reads and writes its settings to the registry (hkcu). My program changes these settings prior to loading the dll so it uses the settings my program wants it to use which works fine. Unfortunately I need to run several instances of my program with different settings for the dll. Now the approach I have used so far no longer works reliably because it is possible for one instance of the program to overwrite the settings that another instance just wrote before the dll has a chance to read them. I haven't got the source of the dll in question and I cannot ask the programmer who wrote it to change it. One idea I had, was to hook registry access functions and redirect them to a different branch of the registry which is specific to the instance of my program (e.g. use the process id as part of the path). I think this should work but maybe you have got a different / more elegant. In case it matters: I am using Delphi 2007 for my program, the dll is probably written in C or C++.

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  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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  • Can I run a JavaScript function AFTER Google Loader has run?

    - by thatryan
    I am loading Google API using google.load() and I need to process some of what is built by it, but I need to run the JavaScript after it has already completely loaded, is there a way to ensure that happens? Here is how I build the list of images, I need to add an attribute to each img tag though, can't do that until after it is built right? google.load("feeds", "1"); function initialize() { var feed = new google.feeds.Feed("myfeed.rss"); feed.load(function(result) { if (!result.error) { var container = document.getElementById("feed"); for (var i = 0; i < result.feed.entries.length; i++) { var entry = result.feed.entries[i]; var entryTitle = entry.title; var entryContent = entry.content; imgContent = entryContent + "<p>"+entryTitle+"</p>"; var div = document.createElement("div"); div.className = "image"; div.innerHTML = imgContent; container.appendChild(div); } } }); } google.setOnLoadCallback(initialize);

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  • Is it possible to include a Sexpr before the expression has been evaluated in Sweave / R ?

    - by PaulHurleyuk
    Hello, I'm writing a Sweave document, and I want to include a small section that details the R and package versions, platofrms and how long ti took to evalute the doucment, however, I want to put this in the middle of the document ! I was using a \Sexpr{elapsed} to do this (which didn't work), but thought if I put the code printing elapsed in a chunk that evaluates at the end, I could then include the chunk half way through, which also fails. My document looks something like this % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{longtable} \usepackage{geometry} \usepackage{Sweave} \geometry{left=1.25in, right=1.25in, top=1in, bottom=1in} \begin{document} <<label=start, echo=FALSE, include=FALSE>>= startt<-proc.time()[3] @ Text and Sweave Code in here % This document was created on \today, with \Sexpr{print(version$version.string)} running on a \Sexpr{print(version$platform)} platform. It took approx sec to process. <<>>= <<elapsed>> @ More text and Sweave code in here <<label=bye, include=FALSE, echo=FALSE>>= odbcCloseAll() endt<-proc.time()[3] elapsedtime<-as.numeric(endt-startt) @ <<label=elapsed, include=FALSE, echo=FALSE>>= print(elapsedtime) @ \end{document} But this doesn't seem to work (amazingly !) Does anyone know how I could do this ? Thanks Paul.

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  • Rotating UIWebView with transform, content partially off screen, how to get it to stick on screen?

    - by jarmod
    I have a 320x416 portrait-shaped UIWebView filling a UIViewController's view. I also have a 90 degree rotate button that will transform the UIWebView through 90 degrees each time the button is touched. The code is basically: webView.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(touches%4 * M_PI/2.0); After rotation through 90 degrees, the now-landscape transformed UIWebView extends beyond both the left and right edges of the screen. In the process of applying the transformation, iPhone OS has changed the UIWebView's frame from {{0,0}, {320,416}} to {{-48,48}, {416,320}}. Don't have a problem with that. I then tweak the UIWebView's frame origin to (0,0) so that it starts top-left, but extends a little further beyond the right edge of the screen. Now, I can touch the UIWebView and pull it left to view the hidden information on the right but I cannot get the right-hand end to to stay on the screen -- the moment I untouch it, the right side bounces back off the screen. What is it that causes the view to bounce back off-screen? In other words, what is it that I need to tweak to allow either the left edge or the right edge to stick on the screen and remain visible (only one at a time, obviously)? Thanks.

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  • Different standard streams per POSIX thread

    - by Roman Nikitchenko
    Is there any possibility to achieve different redirections for standard output like printf(3) for different POSIX thread? What about standard input? I have lot of code based on standard input/output and I only can separate this code into different POSIX thread, not process. Linux operation system, C standard library. I know I can refactor code to replace printf() to fprintf() and further in this style. But in this case I need to provide some kind of context which old code doesn't have. So doesn't anybody have better idea (look into code below)? #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> void* different_thread(void*) { // Something to redirect standard output which doesn't affect main thread. // ... // printf() shall go to different stream. printf("subthread test\n"); return NULL; } int main() { pthread_t id; pthread_create(&id, NULL, different_thread, NULL); // In main thread things should be printed normally... printf("main thread test\n"); pthread_join(id, NULL); return 0; }

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  • How to figure out which record has been deleted in an effiecient way?

    - by janetsmith
    Hi, I am working on an in-house ETL solution, from db1 (Oracle) to db2 (Sybase). We needs to transfer data incrementally (Change Data Capture?) into db2. I have only read access to tables, so I can't create any table or trigger in Oracle db1. The challenge I am facing is, how to detect record deletion in Oracle? The solution which I can think of, is by using additional standalone/embedded db (e.g. derby, h2 etc). This db contains 2 tables, namely old_data, new_data. old_data contains primary key field from tahle of interest in Oracle. Every time ETL process runs, new_data table will be populated with primary key field from Oracle table. After that, I will run the following sql command to get the deleted rows: SELECT old_data.id FROM old_data WHERE old_data.id NOT IN (SELECT new_data.id FROM new_data) I think this will be a very expensive operation when the volume of data become very large. Do you have any better idea of doing this? Thanks.

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