Search Results

Search found 55281 results on 2212 pages for 'get set'.

Page 787/2212 | < Previous Page | 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794  | Next Page >

  • Setting UITabBarItem title from UINavigationController?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I have setup a UITabBarController with two tabs, one is a simple UIViewController and the other is a UINavigationController using second UIViewController as its rootController to set up a UITableView. My question is with regard to naming the tabs (i.e. UITabBarItem) For the first tab (simple UIViewController) I have added the following (see below) to the controllers -init method. - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [self tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"ONE"]; } return self; } For the other tab I have added (see below) to the second controllers init (rootController). - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [[self navigationController] tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"TWO"]; } return self; } Am I setting the second tabBarItem title in the right place as currently it is not showing? EDIT: I can correctly set the UITabBarItem from within the AppDelegate when I first create the controllers, ready for adding to the UITabBarController. But I really wanted to do this in the individual controller -init methods for neatness. // UITabBarController UITabBarController *tempRoot = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [self setRootController:tempRoot]; [tempRoot release]; NSMutableArray *tabBarControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // UIViewController ONE MapController *mapController = [[MapController alloc] init]; [tabBarControllers addObject:mapController]; [mapController release]; // UITableView TWO TableController *rootTableController = [[TableController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tempNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:rootTableController]; [rootTableController release]; [tabBarControllers addObject:tempNavController]; [tempNavController release]; [rootController setViewControllers:tabBarControllers]; [tabBarControllers release]; [window addSubview:[rootController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible];

    Read the article

  • Silverlight Image Data Binding

    - by Alexander
    I am new to Silverlight, and have an issue with binding. I have a class ItemsManager, that has inside its scope another class Item. class ItemsManager { ... class Item : INotifyPropertyChanged { ... private BitmapImage bitmapSource; public BitmapImage BitmapSource { get { return bitmapSource; } set { bitmapSource = value; if(PropertyChanged != null )PropertyChanged("BitmapSource") } } } } I do the following in code to test binding: { ItemsManager.Instance.AddItem("123"); //Items manager started downloading item visual //part (in my case bitmap image png) Binding b = new Binding("Source"); b.Source = ItemsManager.Instance.GetItem("123").BitmapSource; b.BindsDirectlyToSource = true; Image img = new Image(); img.SetBinding(Image.SourceProperty, b); img.Width = (double)100.0; img.Height = (double)100.0; LayoutRoot.Children.Add(img); } Once image is loaded, image doesn't appear. Though, if I set directly after image has been loaded its source, it displays well. I also noticed that PropertyChanged("BitmapSource") never fires, because PropertyChanged is null, like Image never binded to it. I am looking forward to hearing from you!

    Read the article

  • My Rails session is getting reset when I have concurrent requests

    - by alex_c
    I think I might be misunderstanding something about Rails sessions, so please bear with me, I might not be phrasing my question the best way. I'm working on an iPhone app with a Ruby on Rails backend. I have a web view which by default goes to the index action of one controller (and uses sessions), and in the background a bunch of API calls going to a different controller (and which don't need to use sessions). The problem is, the sessions set by my web view seem to be overwitten by the API calls. My staging server is pretty slow, so there's lots of time for the requests to overlap each other - what I see in the logs is basically this: Request A (first controller) starts. Session is empty. Request B (second controller) starts. Session is empty. Request A finishes. Request A has done authentication, and stored the user ID in the session. Session contains user ID. Request B finishes. Session is empty. Request C starts. Session is empty - not what I want. Now, the strange thing is that request B should NOT be writing anything to the session. I do have before and after filters which READ from the session - things like: user = User.find_by_id(session[:id]) or logger.debug session.inspect and if I remove all of those, then everything works as expected - session contents get set by request A, and they're still there when request C starts. So. I think I'm missing something about how sessions work. Why would reading from the session overwrite it? Should I be accessing it some other way? Am I completely on the wrong track and the problem is elsewhere? Thank you for any insights!

    Read the article

  • Android Google cloud messaging - not certain what parameters I should put when creating the push notification

    - by Genadinik
    I am working on a php script to send the notification to the CGM server and I am working from this example: public function send_notification($registatoin_ids, $message) { // include config include_once './config.php'; // Set POST variables $url = 'https://android.googleapis.com/gcm/send'; $fields = array( 'registration_ids' => $registatoin_ids, 'data' => $message, ); $headers = array( 'Authorization: key=' . GOOGLE_API_KEY, 'Content-Type: application/json' ); // Open connection $ch = curl_init(); // Set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); // Disabling SSL Certificate support temporarly curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, json_encode($fields)); // Execute post $result = curl_exec($ch); if ($result === FALSE) { die('Curl failed: ' . curl_error($ch)); } // Close connection curl_close($ch); echo $result; } But I am not certain what the values should be for the variables: CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS , CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER , CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER , CURLOPT_HOST , CURLOPT_URL Would anyone happen to know what the values for these should be? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Best way to track the stages of a form across different controllers - $_GET or routing

    - by chrisj
    Hi, I am in a bit of a dilemma about how best to handle the following situation. I have a long registration process on a site, where there are around 10 form sections to fill in. Some of these forms relate specifically to the user and their own personal data, while most of them relate to the user's pets - my current set up handles user specific forms in a User_Controller (e.g via methods like user/profile, user/household etc), and similarly the pet related forms are handled in a Pet_Controller (e.g pet/health). Whether or not all of these methods should be combined into a single Registration_Controller, I'm not sure - I'm open to any advice on that. Anyway, my main issue is that I want to generate a progress bar which shows how far along in the registration process each user is. As the urls in each form section can potentially be mapping to different controllers, I'm trying to find a clean way to extract which stage a person is at in the overall process. I could just use the query string to pass a stage parameter with each request, e.g user/profile?stage=1. Another way to do it potentially is to use routing - e.g the urls for each section of the form could be set up to be registration/stage/1, registration/stage/2 - then i could just map these urls to the appropriate controller/method behind the scenes. If this makes any sense at all, does anyone have any advice for me?

    Read the article

  • Silverlight Binding - Binds when item is added but doesn't get updates.

    - by dw
    Hello, I'm sorta at a loss to why this doesn't work considering I got it from working code, just added a new level of code, but here's what I have. Basically, when I bind the ViewModel to a list, the binding picks up when Items are added to a collection. However, if an update occurs to the item that is bound, it doesn't get updated. Basically, I have an ObservableCollection that contains a custom class with a string value. When that string value gets updated I need it to update the List. Right now, when I debug, the list item does get updated correctly, but the UI doesn't reflect the change. If I set the bound item to a member variable and null it out then reset it to the right collection it will work, but not desired behavior. Here is a mockup of the code, hopefully someone can tell me where I am wrong. Also, I've tried implementing INofityPropertyChanged at every level in the code below. public class Class1 { public string ItemName; } public class Class2 { private Class2 _items; private Class2() //Singleton { _items = new ObservableCollection<Class1>(); } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items { get { return _items; } internal set { _items = value; } } } public class Class3 { private Class2 _Class2Instnace; private Class3() { _Class2Instnace = Class2.Instance; } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items2 { get {return _Class2Instnace.Items; } } } public class MyViewModel : INofityPropertyChanged { private Class3 _myClass3; private MyViewModel() { _myClass3 = new Class3(); } private BindingItems { get { return _myClass3.Items2; } // Binds when adding items but not when a Class1.ItemName gets updated. } }

    Read the article

  • Attempting to calculate width of Map Overlays on the fly

    - by Bloudermilk
    Hey all- I am working on an Android app that utilizes the Google Maps API MapView, MapController, MapActivity, and ItemizedOverlay. I am basically trying to recreate certain functionalities of the Maps app (damn Google for not providing speech bubbles—for lack of a better name—for items!), particularly those speech bubbles. I have an invisible XML structure for the speech bubble in the XML layout file containing my MapView. The first time I show a speech bubble I grab that XML and remove it from it's current parent, applying some ItemizedOverlay.LayoutParams to it, and add it to the MapView as an Overlay. I position it above the item that was selected, fill it with the proper text, then set it to visible. This all works great. The goal here, though, is to also automatically animate the map to reveal any parts of a speech bubble that may be off-screen when it opens. So I'm trying popup.getWidth() (popup is the instance of my LinearLayout that is the speech bubble) after I do all the manipulation to the bubble, even after I display it to the user. Problem is, popup.getWidth() is returning me the width of the previously displayed popup, not the currently displayed one. I can't figure out why this would be happening if I'm fetching the width after I set it to visible with its new dimensions (which, by the way, are relative when I'm setting them with LayoutParams: fill_content for both width and height).. I have even tried forcing both the MapView and the "popup" to invalidate() before trying to fetch the width. Any ideas why this may be happening? How can I force the View to settle into its new dimensions before trying to fetch them? Thanks! Nick

    Read the article

  • firefox does not load large size images

    - by Pradeep
    I am stuck with a kind of bug in FF, wherein it’s unable to load images of big size (I have 8 MB size of image) from the server. The loading of image is all fine on IE. I am still looking out for ways to get rid of this problem. I changed server(IIS) settings to allow bigger file sizes. Also, I used “load” event on image using JQuery and tried all sort of options listed here http://api.jquery.com/load-event/, but nothing worked so far. If anyone of you has come across any such similar problem, and a way to resolve it, it would be nice to hear from you Please note: high resolution images are part of the requirement. Code : <style> img { background-color: #FFFFFF; background-image: url(http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/loader.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: center center; } </style> <script src="../plugin/jquery-ui-1.8.7.custom/js/jquery-1.4.4.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script> jQuery(document).ready(function($){ ///var _url = "http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/floorPlan.jpg"; // set up the node / element _im =$("#main"); //_im.bind("load",function(){ $(this).fadeIn(); }); // set the src attribute now, after insertion to the DOM //_im.attr('src',_url); $("#main").one("load",function(){ alert('loaded'); }) .each(function(){ if(this.complete){ $(this).trigger("load"); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="target"><img id='main' src="http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/floorPlan.jpg"> </img></div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

    - by Lirik
    I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

    Read the article

  • Can a Snapshot transaction fail and only partially commit in a TransactionScope?

    - by Travis Brooks
    Greetings I stumbled onto a problem today that seems sort of impossible to me, but its happening...I'm calling some database code in c# that looks something like this: using(var tran = MyDataLayer.Transaction()) { MyDataLayer.ExecSproc(new SprocTheFirst(arg1, arg2)); MyDataLayer.CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql(arg1, argEtc); tran.Commit(); } I've simplified this a bit for posting, but whats going on is MyDataLayer.Transaction() makes a TransactionScope with the IsolationLevel set to Snapshot and TransactionScopeOption set to Required. This code gets called hundreds of times a day, and almost always works perfectly. However after reviewing some data I discovered there are a handful of records created by "SprocTheFirst" but no corresponding data from "CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql". The only way that records should exist in the tables I'm looking at is from SprocTheFirst, and its only ever called in this one function, so if its called and succeeded then I would expect CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql would get called and succeed because its all in the same TransactionScope. Its theoretically possible that some other dev mucked around in the DB, but I don't think they have. We also log all exceptions, and I can find nothing unusual happening around the time that the records from SprocTheFirst were created. So, is it possible that a transaction, or more properly a declarative TransactionScope, with Snapshot isolation level can fail somehow and only partially commit?

    Read the article

  • Why use Intent.URI_INTENT_SCHEME

    - by hks
    while reading Android docs about Widgets I stumbled upon this piece of code whose purpose is to launch a service for retrieving a factory for StackView items. // Set up the intent that starts the StackViewService, which will // provide the views for this collection. Intent intent = new Intent(context, StackWidgetService.class); // Add the app widget ID to the intent extras. intent.putExtra(AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, appWidgetIds[i]); intent.setData(Uri.parse(intent.toUri(Intent.URI_INTENT_SCHEME))); // Instantiate the RemoteViews object for the App Widget layout. RemoteViews rv = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget_layout); // Set up the RemoteViews object to use a RemoteViews adapter. // This adapter connects // to a RemoteViewsService through the specified intent. // This is how you populate the data. rv.setRemoteAdapter(appWidgetIds[i], R.id.stack_view, intent); You can find it here I have a problem understanding why do you need to call intent.setData(Uri.parse(intent.toUri(Intent.URI_INTENT_SCHEME))); I understand that it gives URI a prefix intent://, but is it necessary here?

    Read the article

  • Efficient update of SQLite table with many records

    - by blackrim
    I am trying to use sqlite (sqlite3) for a project to store hundreds of thousands of records (would like sqlite so users of the program don't have to run a [my]sql server). I have to update hundreds of thousands of records sometimes to enter left right values (they are hierarchical), but have found the standard update table set left_value = 4, right_value = 5 where id = 12340; to be very slow. I have tried surrounding every thousand or so with begin; .... update... update table set left_value = 4, right_value = 5 where id = 12340; update... .... commit; but again, very slow. Odd, because when I populate it with a few hundred thousand (with inserts), it finishes in seconds. I am currently trying to test the speed in python (the slowness is at the command line and python) before I move it to the C++ implementation, but right now this is way to slow and I need to find a new solution unless I am doing something wrong. Thoughts? (would take open source alternative to SQLite that is portable as well)

    Read the article

  • Magento products will not show in category

    - by Aaron
    I've recently been tasked with the build and deployment of a large Ecommerce site. In the past we've had to use the clients legacy X-cart installation for redevelopment (too far integrated with their existing work flow). We'd heard good things about Magento, so I've set up a test install to get to grips with it. After a couple of initial issues, there is a live development site which displays categories on the default theme. The problem we've hit now is that products don't display..! After a lot more in-depth research into this, all I've been able to discover is that quite a number of developers endorse using other solutions entirely, with the other 50% saying after the steep learning curve the platform is as wonderful as we'd initially been led to believe. Now, my test category is showing, so I know this is configured properly. I've set up three test products and associated them with this (all done following the Magento user guide), checked double checked and thrice checked the products are enabled and visible individually, yet still the front end says the category has no products in it. I've cleared the cache repeatedly, reset everything possible many times in index management - no products show up. I have to make a call tomorrow morning on whether we're going ahead with Magento. If I can't even get it to show products I'm going to have to go with something with a more established track record and more community support available. Can anybody advise what could possibly be wrong here?

    Read the article

  • mootools event listener disappears after element.innerHTML is changed

    - by baiano
    I putting together a page that will display a set of stored values. I am using mootools and AJAX calls to update the values without needing to refresh the page each time the user selects a new item from the drop down menus. the HTML each line looks something like: <div class="selections"> <input class="checkbox selector" type="checkbox" CHECKED /> <span class="b_name"> <select class="b_n selector"> <!-- options --> </select> </span> <span class="b_level"> <select class="b_l selector"> <!-- options --> </select> </span> <span class="values"> <!-- the values --> </span> In the head I have set up an event listener like: $$('.selector').addEvent('change', function(event){changeValues(this);}); My problem is that when the "b_name" select changes I have to update the list of options in the "b_level" select. I accomplish that by getting a list of the possible options from my database through a php script on another page and replacing "b_level"'s innerHTML. Once I do that, the event listener attached to "b_l selector" no longer works. I tried to resolve this issue by explicitly attaching an event listener to "b_l selector" each time "b_name" changes like so: row.getElement('.b_l').addEvent('change', function(event){changeValues(row.getElement('.b_l'));}); where 'row' is the html element 'div.selections'. It still isn't working and I have no idea what's going on. Can anyone offer a suggestion as to how I can get this resolved? or perhaps a better way to do what I'm doing. Thanks

    Read the article

  • What collection object is appropriate for fixed ordering of values?

    - by makerofthings7
    Scenario: I am tracking several performance counters and have a CounterDescription[] correlate to DataSnapshot[]... where CounterDescription[n] describes the data loaded within DataSnapshot[n]. I want to expose an easy to use API within C# that will allow for the easy and efficient expansion of the arrays. For example CounterDescription[0] = Humidity; DataSnapshot[0] = .9; CounterDescription[1] = Temp; DataSnapshot[1] = 63; My upload object is defined like this: Note how my intent is to correlate many Datasnapshots with a dattime reference, and using the offset of the data to refer to its meaning. This was determined to be the most efficient way to store the data on the back-end, and has now reflected itself into the following structure: public class myDataObject { [DataMember] public SortedDictionary<DateTime, float[]> Pages { get; set; } /// <summary> /// An array that identifies what each position in the array is supposed to be /// </summary> [DataMember] public CounterDescription[] Counters { get; set; } } I will need to expand each of these arrays (float[] and CounterDescription[] ), but whatever data already exists must stay in that relative offset. Which .NET objects support this? I think Array[] , LinkedList<t>, and List<t> Are able to keep the data fixed in the right locations. What do you think?

    Read the article

  • Understanding C++ pointers (when they point to a pointer)

    - by Stephano
    I think I understand references and pointers pretty well. Here is what I (think I) know: int i = 5; //i is a primitive type, the value is 5, i do not know the address. int *ptr; //a pointer to an int. i have no way if knowing the value yet. ptr = &i; //now i have an address for the value of i (called ptr) *ptr = 10; //go get the value stored at ptr and change it to 10 Please feel free to comment or correct these statements. Now I'm trying to make the jump to arrays of pointers. Here is what I do not know: char **char_ptrs = new char *[50]; Node **node_ptrs = new Node *[50]; My understanding is that I have 2 arrays of pointers, one set of pointers to chars and one to nodes. So if I wanted to set the values, I would do something like this: char_ptrs[0] = new char[20]; node_ptrs[0] = new Node; Now I have a pointer, in the 0 position of my array, in each respective array. Again, feel free to comment here if I'm confused. So, what does the ** operator do? Likewise, what is putting a single * next to the instantiation doing (*[50])? (what is that called exactly, instantiation?)

    Read the article

  • std::stringstream GCC Abnormal Behavior

    - by FlorianZ
    I have a very interesting problem with compiling a short little program on a Mac (GCC 4.2). The function below would only stream chars or strings into the stringstream, but not anything else (int, double, float, etc.) In fact, the fail flag is set if I attempt to convert for example an int into a string. However, removing the preprocessor flag: _GLIBCXX_DEBUG=1, which is set by default in XCode for the debug mode, will yield the desired results / correct behavior. Here is the simple function I am talking about. value is template variable of type T. Tested for int, double, float (not working), char and strings (working). template < typename T > const std::string Attribute<T>::getValueAsString() const { std::ostringstream stringValue; stringValue << value; return stringValue.str(); } Any ideas what I am doing wrong, why this doesn't work, or what the preprocessor flag does to make this not work anymore? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • JPA - Can an @JoinColumn be an @Id as well? SerializationException occurs.

    - by Shivago
    Hi everyone, I am trying to use an @JoinColumn as an @Id using JPA and I am getting SerializationExceptions, "Could not serialize." UserRole.java: @Entity @Table(name = "authorities") public class UserRole implements Serializable { @Column(name = "authority") private String role; @Id @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "username") private User owner; ... } User.java: @Entity @Table(name = "users") public class User implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; @Column(name = "username") protected String email; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", fetch = FetchType.LAZY, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) protected Set<UserRole> roles = new HashSet<UserRole>(); .... } "username" is set up as a unique index in my Users table but not as the primary key. Is there any way to make "username" act as the ID for UserRole? I don't want to introduce a numeric key in UserRole. Have I totally lost the plot here? I am using MySQL and Hibernate under the hood.

    Read the article

  • Calling a WPF Appliaction and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the appliaction (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the appliaction. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is thier a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Appliaction Dim e_key as new WpfAppliaction("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style appliaction. ''work with events and resposne 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my key_board and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Images won't load if they are of high size

    - by Fahim Parkar
    I have created web-application using JSF 2.0 and mysql. I am storing images in DB using MEDIUMBLOB. When I try to load image, I am able to see those images. However if the image size is big (1 MB or more), I can see half or 3/4th image on the browser. Any idea how to overcome this issue? Do I need to set any variable in JSF or MySQL? I know I should have saved the images over disk instead of DB, however this was client requirement. Client wanted to backup data and provide it to someone else and client don't want to backup DB and images also. Edit 1 Do I need to set any variables on mysql like query_cache. Edit 2 When I download same image and put below code it works perfectly. <h:graphicImage value="images/myImage4.png" width="50%" /> Edit 3 code is as below. <h:graphicImage value="DisplayImage?mainID=drawing" /> DisplayImage.java String imgLen = rs1.getString(1); int len = imgLen.length(); byte[] rb = new byte[len]; InputStream readImg = rs1.getBinaryStream(1); InputStream inputStream = readImg; int index = readImg.read(rb, 0, len); response.reset(); response.setHeader("Content-Length", String.valueOf(len)); response.setHeader("Content-disposition", "inline;filename=/file.png"); response.setContentType("image/png"); response.getOutputStream().write(rb, 0, len); response.getOutputStream().flush(); When I print len I get value as len=1548432

    Read the article

  • jQuery / Loading content into div and changing url's (working but buggy)

    - by Bruno
    This is working, but I'm not being able to set an index.html file on my server root where i can specify the first page to go. It also get very buggy in some situations. Basically it's a common site (menu content) but the idea is to load the content without refreshing the page, defining the div to load the content, and make each page accessible by the url. One of the biggest problems here it's dealing with all url situations that may occur. The ideal would be to have a rel="divToLoadOn" and then pass it on my loadContent() function... so I would like or ideas/solutions for this please. Thanks in advance! //if page comes from URL if(window.location.hash != ''){ var url = window.location.hash; url = '..'+url.substr(1, url.length); loadContent(url); } //if page comes from an internal link $("a:not([target])").click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var url = $(this).attr("href"); if(url != '#'){ loadContent($(this).attr("href")); } }); //LOAD CONTENT function loadContent(url){ var contentContainer = $("#content"); //set load animation $(contentContainer).ajaxStart(function() { $(this).html('loading...'); }); $.ajax({ url: url, dataType: "html", success: function(data){ //store data globally so it can be used on complete window.data = data; }, complete: function(){ var content = $(data).find("#content").html(); var contentTitle = $(data).find("title").text(); //change url var parsedUrl = url.substr(2,url.length) window.location.hash = parsedUrl; //change title var titleRegex = /(.*)<\/title/.exec(data); contentTitle = titleRegex[1]; document.title = contentTitle; //renew content $(contentContainer).fadeOut(function(){ $(this).html(content).fadeIn(); }); }); }

    Read the article

  • row number over text column sort

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I'm having problems with dynamic sorting using ROW Number in SQL Server. I have it working but it's throwing errors on non numeric fields. What do I need to change to get sorts with Alpha Working??? ID Description 5 Test 6 Desert 3 A evil Ive got a Sql Prodcedure CREATE PROCEDURE [CRUDS].[MyTable_Search] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here -- Full Parameter List @ID int = NULL, @Description nvarchar(256) = NULL, @StartIndex int = 0, @Count int = null, @Order varchar(128) = 'ID asc' AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- Insert statements for procedure here Select * from ( Select ROW_NUMBER() OVER (Order By case when @Order = 'ID asc' then [TableName].ID when @Order = 'Description asc' then [TableName].Description end asc, case when @Order = 'ID desc' then [TableName].ID when @Order = 'Description desc' then [TableName].Description end desc ) as row, [TableName].* from [TableName] where (@ID IS NULL OR [TableName].ID = @ID) AND (@Description IS NULL OR [TableName].Description = @Description) ) as a where row > @StartIndex and (@Count is null or row <= @StartIndex + @Count) order by case when @Order = 'ID asc' then a.ID when @Order = 'Description asc' then a.Description end asc, case when @Order = 'ID desc' then a.ID when @Order = 'Description desc' then a.Description end desc END

    Read the article

  • Prevent jQuery Tabs to bind to <ul> elements below the main <ul> element.

    - by Shiki
    Hi, I have this HTML: <div id="mytabs"> <ul id="main-tabs"> <li><a href="">Link</a></li> <li><a href="">Link</a></li> <li class="filter"> <ul id="filter-controls"> <li><a href="">Filter by something</a></li> <li><a href="">Filter by something</a></li> <li><a href="">Filter by something</a></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </div> And I set it to a tabbed control: $('#mytabs').tabs(); My problem is jQuery UI also converts the <li> elements in <ul id="filter-controls"> into tabs. Is there a way to instruct jQuery UI to only set the <li> children of <ul id="main-tabs"> as the tabs? Note: I am currently in no position to change <ul id="filter-controls" into a non-ul element.

    Read the article

  • google app engine atomic section???

    - by bokertov
    hi, Say you retrieve a set of records from the datastore (something like: select * from MyClass where reserved='false'). how do i ensure that another user doesn't set the reserved is still false? I've looked in the Transaction documentation and got shocked from google's solution which is to catch the exception and retry in a loop. Any solution that I'm missing - it's hard to believe that there's no way to have an atomic operation in this environment. (btw - i could use 'syncronize' inside the servlet but i think it's not valid as there's no way to ensure that there's only one instance of the servlet object, isn't it? same applies to static variable solution) Any idea on how to solve??? (here's the google solution: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html#Entity_Groups look at: Key k = KeyFactory.createKey("Employee", "k12345"); Employee e = pm.getObjectById(Employee.class, k); e.counter += 1; pm.makePersistent(e); This requires a transaction because the value may be updated by another user after this code fetches the object, but before it saves the modified object. Without a transaction, the user's request will use the value of counter prior to the other user's update, and the save will overwrite the new value. With a transaction, the application is told about the other user's update. If the entity is updated during the transaction, then the transaction fails with an exception. The application can repeat the transaction to use the new data. THANKS!

    Read the article

  • Using struts 2 with no tags

    - by WannaAsk
    Hi everyone, I wonder if you could guide me on this struts issue - I feel hopeless on this... I am working on migrating our web application to a Struts 2 portlet (I'm using Struts 2.1.8). The thing is, I am forced to avoid struts tags because our application relies on Dijit widgets, which are omitted when using struts tags. So now I should implement the <s:form tag using scriptlets. My question is: how you would suggest I imitate the way struts handles the "action" attribute? Right now it appears I should: Create a regular html form in my jsp. Get/create the ActionConfig object during onsubmit and set on it values which match my desired destination: class+method+result jsp. Execute the action I set in 2. Would you recommend this? If so - is ActionConfig obtained from the session? Can I initiate an action execution from ActionConfig? (Aletrnatively... generating an action url using struts' form.vm file - what do you say?) I would appreciate any help on this - Thanks a lot in advance!!!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794  | Next Page >