Search Results

Search found 55281 results on 2212 pages for 'get set'.

Page 788/2212 | < Previous Page | 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795  | Next Page >

• INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE - but NOT using the duplicate key to compare.

  - by calumbrodie

  I am trying to solve a problem I have inherited with poor treatment of different data sources. I have a user table that contains BOTH good and evil users. create table `users`( `user_id` int(13) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `email` varchar(255) , `name` varchar(255) , PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`) ); In this table the primary key is currently set to be user_id. I have another table ('users_evil') which contains ONLY the evil users (all the users from this table are included in the first table) - the user_id's on this table do NOT correspond to those in the first table. I want to have all my users in one table, and simply flag which are good and which are evil. What I want to do is alter the user table and add a column ('evil') which defaults to 0. I then want to dump the data from my 'users_evil') table and then run an INSERT..ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE with this data into the first table (setting 'evil'=1 where the emails match) The problem is that the 'PK' is set to the user_id and not the 'email'. Any suggestions, or even another strategy to successfully achive this. Can I run this statement but treat another column as PK only for the duration of the statement.

  Read the article

• C++ arrays as parameters, EDIT: now includes variable scoping

  - by awshepard

  Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong? EDIT Oh fun, I have a typo: it wasn't void someFunction(double results[]). It was: void someFunction(double result[])... So perhaps this is turning into a scoping question. If my double result[16] array is defined in a main.cpp, and someFunction is defined in a Utils.h file that's included by the main.cpp, does the result variable in someFunction then wreak havoc on the result array in main?

  Read the article

• segmentation fault while using format string to scan input

  - by Aman Deep Gautam

  consider the code and its result: while ((row = mysql_fetch_row (table_info)) != NULL) { answer='\0'; printf ( "%s: ", row[0] ); scanf ( "%c", &answer ); getchar(); if ( answer == 'y') { printf ( "*****\n" ); table_name[index] = malloc ( strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); printf ( "*****\n" ); memcpy ( &table_name[index], &row[0], strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); } printf ( "finally inserted: %s \n", table_name[index]); } The result on execution: 1_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 1_time_access 2_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 2_time_access 39_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 39_time_access Explanation of result: row[0] has value 1_time_access, 2_time_access, 39_time_access. Now Consider a better way of doing it which is using a format string to escape the \n. I run the following code but it gives segentation fault, I cannot understand why. Code: while ((row = mysql_fetch_row (table_info)) != NULL) { answer='\0'; printf ( "%s: ", row[0] ); scanf ( "%[^\n]%*c", &answer ); if ( answer == 'y') { printf ( "*****\n" ); fflush(stdout); table_name[index] = malloc ( strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); printf ( "*****\n" ); fflush(stdout); memcpy ( &table_name[index], &row[0], strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); } printf ( "finally inserted: %s \n", table_name[index]); fflush(stdout); } Result: 1_time_access: y ***** ./set-env.sh: line 17: 15263 Segmentation fault (core dumped) ./exec dataset_one (do not worry about set-env.sh, it is the script running th program.) I canot understand why this is happening.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to persist two profiles with the Profile Provider Model?

  - by NickGPS

  I have a website that needs to store two sets of user data into separate data stores. The first set of data is used by the SiteCore CMS and holds information about the user. The second set of data is used by a personalisation application that stores its own user data. The reason they aren't stored together in the same profile object is because the personalisation application is used across multiple websites that do not all use SiteCore. I am able to create multiple Profile Providers - I currently have one from SiteCore and a custom provider that I have written and these both work in isolation. The problem exists when you try to configure both in the same web.config file. It seems you can only specify a single Profile object in the web.config file, rather than one for each provider. This means that regardless of which provider is being used the .Net framework sends through the profile object that is specified in the "inherits" parameter in the profile section of the web.config file. My questions are - Is it possible to specify a different Profile object for each Profile Provider? If so, how and where is this specified? Thanks, Nick

  Read the article

• jQuery Grouping Similar Items w/ Object Literal

  - by NessDan

  So I have this structure setup: <ul> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> (Vid1) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bOF3o8B292U</li> (Vid2) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> (Vid3) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bOF3o8B292U</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> </ul> Vid1 is repeated 3 times, Vid2 is repeated 3 times, and Vid3 is repeated 2 times. I want to put them into a structure where I can reference them like this: youtube[0][repeated] = 3; youtube[0][download] = "http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=dw1Vh9Yzryo&fmt=36" youtube[1][repeated] = 3; youtube[1][download] = "http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=bOF3o8B292U&fmt=36" youtube[2][repeated] = 3; youtube[2][download] = "http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=yAY4vNJd7A8&fmt=36" "This video was repeated " + youtube[0][repeated] + " times and you can download it here: " + youtube[0][download]; How can I set this multidimensional array up? Been Googling for hours and I don't know how to set it up. Can anyone help me out?

  Read the article

• C++: inheritance problem

  - by Helltone

  It's quite hard to explain what I'm trying to do, I'll try: Imagine a base class A which contains some variables, and a set of classes deriving from A which all implement some method bool test() that operates on the variables inherited from A. class A { protected: int somevar; // ... }; class B : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar == 42); } }; class C : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar > 23); } }; // ... more classes deriving from A Now I have an instance of class A and I have set the value of somevar. int main(int, char* []) { A a; a.somevar = 42; Now, I need some kind of container that allows me to iterate over the elements i of this container, calling i::test() in the context of a... that is: std::vector<...> vec; // push B and C into vec, this is pseudo-code vec.push_back(&B); vec.push_back(&C); bool ret = true; for(i = vec.begin(); i != vec.end(); ++i) { // call B::test(), C::test(), setting *this to a ret &= ( a .* (&(*i)::test) )(); } return ret; } How can I do this? I've tried two methods: forcing a cast from B::* to A::*, adapting a pointer to call a method of a type on an object of a different type (works, but seems to be bad); using std::bind + the solution above, ugly hack; changing the signature of bool test() so that it takes an argument of type const A& instead of inheriting from A, I don't really like this solution because somevar must be public.

  Read the article

• C++ Virtual Methods for Class-Specific Attributes or External Structure

  - by acanaday

  I have a set of classes which are all derived from a common base class. I want to use these classes polymorphically. The interface defines a set of getter methods whose return values are constant across a given derived class, but vary from one derived class to another. e.g.: enum AVal { A_VAL_ONE, A_VAL_TWO, A_VAL_THREE }; enum BVal { B_VAL_ONE, B_VAL_TWO, B_VAL_THREE }; class Base { //... virtual AVal getAVal() const = 0; virtual BVal getBVal() const = 0; //... }; class One : public Base { //... AVal getAVal() const { return A_VAL_ONE }; BVal getBVal() const { return B_VAL_ONE }; //... }; class Two : public Base { //... AVal getAVal() const { return A_VAL_TWO }; BVal getBVal() const { return B_VAL_TWO }; //... }; etc. Is this a common way of doing things? If performance is an important consideration, would I be better off pulling the attributes out into an external structure, e.g.: struct Vals { AVal a_val; VBal b_val; }; storing a Vals* in each instance, and rewriting Base as follows? class Base { //... public: AVal getAVal() const { return _vals->a_val; }; BVal getBVal() const { return _vals->b_val; }; //... private: Vals* _vals; }; Is the extra dereference essentially the same as the vtable lookup? What is the established idiom for this type of situation? Are both of these solutions dumb? Any insights are greatly appreciated

  Read the article

• Nhibernate Cannot delete the child object

  - by Daoming Yang

  I know it has been asked for many times, i also have found a lot of answers on this website, but i just cannot get out this problem. Can anyone help me with this piece of code? Many thanks. Here is my parent mapping file <set name="ProductPictureList" table="[ProductPicture]" lazy="true" order-by="DateCreated" inverse="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan" > <key column="ProductID"/> <one-to-many class="ProductPicture"/> </set> Here is my child mapping file <class name="ProductPicture" table="[ProductPicture]" lazy="true"> <id name="ProductPictureID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="ProductID" type="Int32"></property> <property name="PictureName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> </class> Here is my c# code var item = _productRepository.Get(productID); var productPictrue = item.ProductPictureList .OfType<ProductPicture>() .Where(x => x.ProductPictureID == productPictureID); // reomve the finding item var ok = item.ProductPictureList.Remove(productPictrue); _productRepository.SaveOrUpdate(item); ok is false value and this child object is still in my database.

  Read the article

• java + increasing performance and scalability

  - by varun

  Hi, below is the a code snippet, which returns the object of a class. now the object is basially comparing to some parameter in loop. my concern is what if there are thousands of objects in loop, in that case performance and scalability can be an issue. please suggest how to improve this code for performance part public Widget get(String name,int major,int minor,boolean exact) { Widget widgetToReturn = null; if(exact) { Widget w = new Widget(name, major, minor); // for loop using JDK 1.5 version for(Widget wid : set) { if((w.getName().equals(wid.getName())) && (wid.getVersion()).equals(w.getVersion())) { widgetToReturn = w; break; } } } else { Widget w = new Widget(name, major, minor); WidgetVersion widgetVersion = new WidgetVersion(major, minor); // for loop using JDK 1.5 version for(Widget wid : set) { WidgetVersion wv = wid.getVersion(); if((w.getName().equals(wid.getName())) && major == wv.getMajor() && WidgetVersion.isCompatibleAndNewer(wv, widgetVersion)) { widgetToReturn = wid; } else if((w.getName().equals(wid.getName())) && wv.equals(widgetVersion.getMajor(), widgetVersion.getMinor())) { widgetToReturn = w; } } } return widgetToReturn; }

  Read the article

• Matching on search attributes selected by customer on front end

  - by CodeNinja1974

  I have a method in a class that allows me to return results based on a certain set of Customer specified criteria. The method matches what the Customer specifies on the front end with each item in a collection that comes from the database. In cases where the customer does not specify any of the attributes, the ID of the attibute is passed into the method being equal to 0 (The database has an identity on all tables that is seeded at 1 and is incremental). In this case that attribute should be ignored, for example if the Customer does not specify the Location then customerSearchCriteria.LocationID = 0 coming into the method. The matching would then match on the other attributes and return all Locations matching the other attibutes, example below: public IEnumerable<Pet> FindPetsMatchingCustomerCriteria(CustomerPetSearchCriteria customerSearchCriteria) { if(customerSearchCriteria.LocationID == 0) { return repository.GetAllPetsLinkedCriteria() .Where(x => x.TypeID == customerSearchCriteria.TypeID && x.FeedingMethodID == customerSearchCriteria.FeedingMethodID && x.FlyAblityID == customerSearchCriteria.FlyAblityID ) .Select(y => y.Pet); } } The code for when all criteria is specified is shown below: private PetsRepository repository = new PetsRepository(); public IEnumerable<Pet> FindPetsMatchingCustomerCriteria(CustomerPetSearchCriteria customerSearchCriteria) { return repository.GetAllPetsLinkedCriteria() .Where(x => x.TypeID == customerSearchCriteria.TypeID && x.FeedingMethodID == customerSearchCriteria.FeedingMethodID && x.FlyAblityID == customerSearchCriteria.FlyAblityID && x.LocationID == customerSearchCriteria.LocationID ) .Select(y => y.Pet); } I want to avoid having a whole set of if and else statements to cater for each time the Customer does not explicitly select an attribute of the results they are looking for. What is the most succint and efficient way in which I could achieve this?

  Read the article

• c++ programming- Tryin to get a number within an array that is twice the average

  - by max

  i have been assigned to set up an array with points. I am told to get the maximum value, average, nd within this same array, if any point in the array is twice the average, i should cout an "outlier." So far i have gotten the average and maximum numbers in the array. but i am unable to set the programme to cout the outlier. Instead it gives me a multiple of the average. pls help! here is the programme; int main() { const int max = 10; int ary[max]={4, 32, 9, 7, 14, 12, 13, 17, 19, 18}; int i,maxv; double out,sum=0; double av; maxv= ary[0]; for(i=0; i } cout<<"maximum value: "< for(i=0; i sum = sum + ary[i]; av = sum / max; } cout<<"average: "< out = av * 2; if(ary[i]out) { cout<<"outlier: "< return 0; }

  Read the article

• push_back private vectors with 2 methods, one isn't working

  - by jmclem

  I have a class with a private vector of doubles. To access or modify these values, at first I used methods such as void classA::pushVector(double i) { this->vector.push_back(i); } double classA::getVector(int i) { return vector[i]; } This worked for a while until I found I would have to overload a lot of operators for what I needed, so I tried to change it to get and set the vector directly instead of the values, i.e. void classA::setVector(vector<double> vector) { this->vector = vector; } vector<double> classA::getVector() { return vector; } Now, say there is a classB, which has a private classA element, which also has get and set methods to read and write. The problem was when I tried to push back a value to the end vector in classA. void classB::setFirstValue(double first) { this->getClassA().getVector().push_back(first); } This does absolutely nothing to the vector. It remains unchanged and I can't figure out why... Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Could this be considered a well-written PHP5 class?

  - by Ben Dauphinee

  I have been learning OOP principals on my own for a while, and taken a few cracks at writing classes. What I really need to know now is if I am actually using what I have learned correctly, or if I could improve as far as OOP is concerned. I have chopped a massive portion of code out of a class that I have been working on for a while now, and pasted it here. To all you skilled and knowledgeable programmers here I ask: Am I doing it wrong? class acl extends genericAPI{ // -- Copied from genericAPI class protected final function sanityCheck($what, $check, $vars){ switch($check){ case 'set': if(isset($vars[$what])){return(1);}else{return(0);} break; } } // --------------------------------- protected $db = null; protected $dataQuery = null; public function __construct(Zend_Db_Adapter_Abstract $db, $config = array()){ $this->db = $db; if(!empty($config)){$this->config = $config;} } protected function _buildQuery($selectType = null, $vars = array()){ // Removed switches for simplicity sake $this->dataQuery = $this->db->select( )->from( $this->config['table_users'], array('tf' => '(CASE WHEN count(*) > 0 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END)') )->where( $this->config['uidcol'] . ' = ?', $vars['uid'] ); } protected function _sanityRun_acl($sanitycheck, &$vars){ switch($sanitycheck){ case 'uid_set': if(!$this->sanityCheck('uid', 'set', $vars)){ throw new Exception(ERR_ACL_NOUID); } $vars['uid'] = settype($vars['uid'], 'integer'); break; } } private function user($action = null, $vars = array()){ switch($action){ case 'exists': $this->_sanityRun_acl('uid_set', $vars); $this->_buildQuery('user_exists_idcheck', $vars); return($this->db->fetchOne($this->dataQuery->__toString())); break; } } public function user_exists($uid){ return($this->user('exists', array('uid' => $uid))); } } $return = $acl_test->user_exists(1);

  Read the article

• simple image animation with the keyboard

  - by conorhiggins

  Hi the app I am currently working on requires a simple animation to be performed, which I am able to do but timing is an issue. The app uses the slightly opaque keyboard and I have set up a black background to make it more visually pleasing . The app is a utility app and as the user clicks on a settings button the app will flip which looks great. However there is a problem at the moment in that while the app is flipping the keyboard also closes which itself looks great also, however the background remains. I was wondering if there was a way of animating the background image to follow the keyboard's animation pattern and speed? If I set up a discrete animation time the chances are there will be some sort of overlap and either the image will show too long or the keyboard will show too long. Any suggestions? Another option is to make the keyboard show constantly if anyone knows how to do that? i would rather animate it though as it is quite a simple app and so I would like to make it as aesthetically pleasing as possible. /Conor

  Read the article

• JPA - Can an @JoinColumn be an @Id as well? SerializationException occurs.

  - by Shivago

  Hi everyone, I am trying to use an @JoinColumn as an @Id using JPA and I am getting SerializationExceptions, "Could not serialize." UserRole.java: @Entity @Table(name = "authorities") public class UserRole implements Serializable { @Column(name = "authority") private String role; @Id @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "username") private User owner; ... } User.java: @Entity @Table(name = "users") public class User implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; @Column(name = "username") protected String email; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", fetch = FetchType.LAZY, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) protected Set<UserRole> roles = new HashSet<UserRole>(); .... } "username" is set up as a unique index in my Users table but not as the primary key. Is there any way to make "username" act as the ID for UserRole? I don't want to introduce a numeric key in UserRole. Have I totally lost the plot here? I am using MySQL and Hibernate under the hood.

  Read the article

• How can data templates in generic.xaml get applied automatically?

  - by Thiado de Arruda

  I have a custom control that has a ContentPresenter that will have an arbitrary object set as it content. This object does not have any constraint on its type, so I want this control to display its content based on any data templates defined by application or by data templates defined in Generic.xaml. If in a application I define some data template(without a key because I want it to be applied automatically to objects of that type) and I use the custom control bound to an object of that type, the data template gets applied automatically. But I have some data templates defined for some types in the generic.xaml where I define the custom control style, and these templates are not getting applied automatically. Here is the generic.xaml : If I set an object of type 'PredefinedType' as the content in the contentpresenter, the data template does not get applied. However, If it works if I define the data template in the app.xaml for the application thats using the custom control. Does someone got a clue? I really cant assume that the user of the control will define this data template, so I need some way to tie it up with the custom control.

  Read the article

• JPA / Hibernate checks conditions in merge()

  - by bert

  Working with JPA / Hibernate in an OSIV Web environment is driving me mad ;) Following scenario: I have an entity A that is loaded via JPA and has a collection of B entities. Those B entities have a required field. When the user adds a new B to A by pressing a link in the webapp, that required field is not set (since there is no sensible default value). Upon the next http request, the OSIV filter tries to merge the A entity, but this fails as Hibernate complains that the new B has a required field is not set. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value Reading the JPA spec, i see no sign that those checks are required in the merge phase (i have no transaction active) I can't keep the collection of B's outside of A and only add them to A when the user presses 'save' (aka entitymanager.persist()) as the place where the save button is does not know about the B's, only about A. Also A and B are only examples, i have similar stuff all over the place .. Any ideas? Do other JPA implementaions behave the same here? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• RIA Service - without database?

  - by Heko

  Helo! I need to write a RIA service to call Java webservices from Silverlight 3.0 app. I'm testing how stuff works and in my Web app I have a MyData class which has 2 properties (int ID, string Text): namespace SilverlightApplication1.Web { public class MyData { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Text { get; set; } } } Then I wrote simple DomainService: [EnableClientAccess()] public class MyService : DomainService { public IQueryable<MyData> GetMyData(string Url) { // here I will call my WebService List<MyData> result = new List<MyData>(); result.Add(new MyData { ID = 1, Text = Url }); return result.AsQueryable(); } } } How can I get data into my SL app? Now I have this: namespace SilverlightApplication1 { public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); MyContext context = new MyContext(); } } } I called and load but nothink worsk (exceptions, or nulls)... I had Invoke annotation but MyData is not TEntity and I can't use Strings or other simple types as well... :/ I'm reading and reading posts and nothing works like it should.. Any help would be really appreciated. Thank you!

  Read the article

• My website keeps crashing IE, can't debug

  - by Ninja rhino

  I have a website that suddenly started to crash internet explorer. The website loads and starts executing javascript but somewhere in there the machinery explodes. I don't even get a script error, it just crashes. I've tried to manually step through every single line of js with the built in debugger but then of course the problem doesn't occur. If i choose to debug the application when it crashes i see the following message. Unhandled exception at 0x6c5dedf5 in iexplore.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000090. The top 5 items in the call stack looks like this VGX.dll!6c5dedf5() [Frames below may be incorrect and/or missing, no symbols loaded for VGX.dll] VGX.dll!6c594d70() VGX.dll!6c594f63() VGX.dll!6c595350() VGX.dll!6c58f5e3() mshtml.dll!6f88dd17() VGX.dll seems to be part of the vml renderer and i am in fact using VML. I'm not suprised because i've had so many problems with vml, attributes has to be set in specific order, sometimes you cant set attributes when you have elements attached to the dom or vice versa (everything undocumented btw) but then the problems can usually be reproduced when debugging but not now :( The problem also occurs in no plugin-mode. Is there a better approach than trial and error to solve this? Edit: Adding a console outputting every suspect modification to the DOM made the problem only occur sometimes. (the console is also implemented in javascript on the same page, i'm able to see the output even after a crash as the window is still visible) Apparently it seems to be some kind of race condition. I managed to track it down even further, and it seems to occur when you remove an object from the DOM too quickly after it's just been added. (most likely only for vml-elements with some special attribute, didn't try further) And it can't be fixed by adding a dead loop in front of removeChild(pretty bad solution anyway), the page has to be rendered by the browser once after the addChild before you can call removeChild. sigh

  Read the article

• Android layouts within layouts, with separate classes handling their input?

  - by Demonofloom

  Hey all, I have created a program in Java that uses Jpanels within Jpanels. One example of this is having a side view containing buttons that change the main view when pressed. The main view also has buttons that can be used to alter itself. I am trying to re-create this on the android. I have my layout set up from an xml, with a side panel containing buttons and the main view. There is another xml that contains what I want in the main view. Now I am struggling to get this separate xml to be displayed in the main view and can’t figure out how I would get the class to handle its own input. I don’t want to paste the code into the main.xml as I want to keep things object orientated and each view needs some custom elements such as different textviews. An example of what I am trying to convert for the android is below:- //The ViewInt class has its own layout ViewInt tempView = new ViewInt(i, mFloorNo); //The viewInt class is then added to the main window. mainWindowPanel.add(tempView); This small bit of code would create a view, add it to the main view and then any input in the main window is handled by that class, but at the same time any input not in this main window is handled by another class (probably the root class). Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks. To clarify: The program has a side panel layout, containing buttons. And a main view layout that is empty. I am trying to set a .xml layout to this main view layout, and have it so that if any buttons are pressed in that main view then a class for that layout will handle it.

  Read the article

• INotifyPropertyChanged Setter Style

  - by Ivovic

  In order to reflect changes in your data to the UI you have to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, okay. If I look at examples, articles, tutorials etc most of the time the setters look like something in that manner: public string MyProperty { //get [...] set { if (_correspondingField == value) { return; } _correspondingField = value; OnPropertyChanged("MyProperty"); } } No problem so far, only raise the event if you have to, cool. But you could rewrite this code to this: public string MyProperty { //get [...] set { if (_correspondingField != value) { _correspondingField = value; OnPropertyChanged("MyProperty"); } } } It should do the same (?), you only have one place of return, it is less code, it is less boring code and it is more to the point ("only act if necessary" vs "if not necessary do nothing, the other way round act"). So if the second version has its pros compared to the first one, why I see this style rarely? I don't consider myself being smarter than those people that write frameworks, published articles etc, therefore the second version has to have drawbacks. Or is it wrong? Or do I think too much? Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• C#: at design time, how can I reliably determine the type of a variable that is declared using var?

  - by Cheeso

  I'm working on a completion (intellisense) facility for C# in emacs. The idea is, if a user types a fragment, then asks for completion via a particular keystroke combination, the completion facility will use .NET reflection to determine the possible completions. Doing this requires that the type of the thing being completed, be known. If it's a string, it has a set of known methods; if it's an Int32, it has a separate set of methods, and so on. Using semantic, a code lexer/parser package available in emacs, I can locate the variable declarations, and their types. Given that, it's straightforward to use reflection to get the methods and properties on the type, and then present the list of options to the user. The problem arrives when the code uses var in the declaration. How can I reliably determine the actual type used, when the variable is declared with the var keyword? Just to be clear, I don't need to determine it at runtime. I want to determine it at "Design time". So far the best idea I have is: extract the declaration statement, eg var foo = "a string value"; concatenate a statement foo.GetType(); dynamically compile the resulting C# fragment it into a new assembly load the assembly into a new AppDomain, run the framgment and get the return type. unload and discard the assembly This sounds awfully heavyweight, for each completion request in the editor. Any better ideas out there?

  Read the article

• When should we use private variables and when should we use properties. Do Backing Fields should be

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  In most of the cases we usually creates a private variable and its corresponding public properties and uses them for performing our functionalities. Everyone has different approach like some people uses properties every where and some uses private variables within a same class as they are private and opens it to be used by external environment by using properties. Suppose I takes a scenario say insertion in a database. I creates some parameters that need to be initialized. I creates 10 private variables and their corresp public properties which are given as private string name; public string Name { get{return name;} set{name=value;} } and so on. In these cases mentioned above, what should be used internal variables or properties. And in those cases like public string Name { get{return name;} set{name=value>5?5:0;} //or any action can be done. this is just an eg. } In such cases what should be done.

  Read the article

• Absence of property syntax in Java

  - by Vojislav Stojkovic

  C# has syntax for declaring and using properties. For example, one can declare a simple property, like this: public int Size { get; set; } One can also put a bit of logic into the property, like this: public string SizeHex { get { return String.Format("{0:X}", Size); } set { Size = int.Parse(value, NumberStyles.HexNumber); } } Regardless of whether it has logic or not, a property is used in the same way as a field: int fileSize = myFile.Size; I'm no stranger to either Java or C# -- I've used both quite a lot and I've always missed having property syntax in Java. I've read in this question that "it's highly unlikely that property support will be added in Java 7 or perhaps ever", but frankly I find it too much work to dig around in discussions, forums, blogs, comments and JSRs to find out why. So my question is: can anyone sum up why Java isn't likely to get property syntax? Is it because it's not deemed important enough when compared to other possible improvements? Are there technical (e.g. JVM-related) limitations? Is it a matter of politics? (e.g. "I've been coding in Java for 50 years now and I say we don't need no steenkin' properties!") Is it a case of bikeshedding?

  Read the article

• Mootools Form Post Problem, Abort increasingly+1 with each request

  - by Naresh

  Hi all, i'm using Mootools 1.2. Ihave 15 Forms with same name only change in their id's like form1, form2, form3, ... ,form15 same with their elements. i need to submit all forms by ajax. For that purpos i make a function and call them on each functions onClick event. function is function addStepConfiguration(id,mystrip,comment,error,submitid,i) { $(id).addEvent('submit', function(e) { e.stop(); $(submitid).setStyle('display','none'); loading_Img(i); this.set('send', { onComplete: function(responseText) { $('loading_img'+i).innerHTML = ''; SplittedResText = responseText.split("|"); if(SplittedResText[1]=='undefined') { $(error).innerHTML=SplittedResText[0]; } else { $(comment).innerHTML=SplittedResText[0]; $(mystrip).set('class',SplittedResText[1]); removeMsg.delay(20,'',error); removeMsg.delay(1500,'',comment); } $(submitid).setStyle('display','block'); } }); this.send(); }); } When i submit a form say first one then it submitted and give response normally, but in second time without page refresh, it abort the request one time. in third attempt it abort 2 times..then go on +1 each time. It gives no error, just abort and again request automatically. i can't understand what is the problem. please any one can help me.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795  | Next Page >