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• Velocity CTP: can we 'search' for objects?

  - by Stato Machino

  It appears that 'tags' allow us to associate a 'search term' with the objects placed into the Velocity cache space. However, these can only be queried within a 'region'. Further, regions somehow limit the locality of objects in the cache to a single server (or maybe something kinda like that). So this appears to make it hard to perform any operation for which the unique Id of the cached item is not persisted or continuously available to the application that stores and retrieves objects to and from the cache. In any case, I can't see an easy way to 'cleanse' the cache of objects or to find objects across the entire cache that may share some prefix, postfix or infix values in the cache key so that i can clear out the cache of object repeatedly created in unit tests, for example. And I am unsure about the consequences of regions being associated with single server cache locations. So I would appreciate any help with the following questions: What is the difference between a 'distributed cache' (called a 'partitioned' cache??) when using regions, and a 'local cache'? 1.a. In particular, are the region-oriented values in a distributed cache visible through a cache factory that is configured to 'see' the entire cache space? Are the operations of creating and removing 'regions' efficient enough that it would be reasonable to create a region and a group of tags for each bundle of objects that need to be cached? 2.a. Or does this just push the problem of scoping the 'search for objects' up the chain because the ability of the DataCache object to query down through regions and tags as limited as querying for the cache keys of objects themselves. Thanks, Stato

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• I just wanted to DES 4096 bytes of data with a 128 bits key...

  - by badp

  ...and what the nice folks at OpenSSL gratiously provide me with is this. :) Now, since you shouldn't be guessing when using cryptography, I come here for confirmation: what is the function call I want to use? What I understood A 128 bits key is 16 byte large, so I'll need double DES (2 × 8 byte). This leaves me with only a few function calls: void DES_ede2_cfb64_encrypt(const unsigned char *in, unsigned char *out, long length, DES_key_schedule *ks1, DES_key_schedule *ks2, DES_cblock *ivec, int *num, int enc); void DES_ede2_cbc_encrypt(const unsigned char *input, unsigned char *output, long length, DES_key_schedule *ks1, DES_key_schedule *ks2, DES_cblock *ivec, int enc); void DES_ede2_cfb64_encrypt(const unsigned char *in, unsigned char *out, long length, DES_key_schedule *ks1, DES_key_schedule *ks2, DES_cblock *ivec, int *num, int enc); void DES_ede2_ofb64_encrypt(const unsigned char *in, unsigned char *out, long length, DES_key_schedule *ks1, DES_key_schedule *ks2, DES_cblock *ivec, int *num); In this case, I guess the function I want to call DES_ede2_cfb64_encrypt, although I'm not so sure -- I definitely don't need padding here and I'd have to care about what ivec and num are, and how I want to generate them... What am I missing?

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• "Address of" (&) an array / address of being ignored be gcc?

  - by dbarbosa

  Hi, I am a teaching assistant of a introductory programming course, and some students made this type of error: char name[20]; scanf("%s",&name); which is not surprising as they are learning... What is surprising is that, besides gcc warning, the code works (at least this part). I have been trying to understand and I wrote the following code: void foo(int *str1, int *str2) { if (str1 == str2) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } int main() { int test[50]; foo(&test, test); if (&test == test) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } Compiling and executing: $ gcc test.c -g test.c: In function ‘main’: test.c:12: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘foo’ from incompatible pointer type test.c:13: warning: comparison of distinct pointer types lacks a cast $ ./a.out Both pointers are the same Both pointers are the same Can anyone explain why they are not different? I suspect it is because I cannot get the address of an array (as I cannot have & &x), but in this case the code should not compile.

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• How can we find second maximum from array efficiently?

  - by Xinus

  Is it possible to find the second maximum number from an array of integers by traversing the array only once? As an example, I have a array of five integers from which I want to find second maximum number. Here is an attempt I gave in the interview: #define MIN -1 int main() { int max=MIN,second_max=MIN; int arr[6]={0,1,2,3,4,5}; for(int i=0;i<5;i++){ cout<<"::"<<arr[i]; } for(int i=0;i<5;i++){ if(arr[i]>max){ second_max=max; max=arr[i]; } } cout<<endl<<"Second Max:"<<second_max; int i; cin>>i; return 0; } The interviewer, however, came up with the test case int arr[6]={5,4,3,2,1,0};, which prevents it from going to the if condition the second time. I said to the interviewer that the only way would be to parse the array two times (two for loops). Does anybody have a better solution?

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• Error in value of default parameter [Bug in Visual C++ 2008?]

  - by HellBoy

  I am facing following issue while trying to use template in my code I have some C++ code which i call from C functions. Problem is I am getting different values in the following code for statement 1 and 2. Type id : unsigned int statement 1 : 4 statement 2 : 1 C++ Code : template <typename T> void func(T* value, unsigned int len = sizeof(T)) { cout << "Type id : " << typeid(T).name() << endl; cout << "statement 1 " << sizeof(T) << endl; cout << "statement 2 " << len << endl; } template <typename T> void func1(T data) { T val = data; func(&val); } C Code : void test(void *ptr, unsigned int len) { switch(len) { case 1: func1(*(static_cast<uint32_t *>(ptr)) break; } } This happens only on windows. On Linux it works fine.

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• Code casing question for private class fields

  - by user200295

  Take the following example public class Class1{ public string Prop1{ get {return m_Prop1;} set {m_Prop1 = value; } } private string m_Prop1; // this is standard private property variable name // how do we cap this variable name? While the compiler can figure out same casing // it makes it hard to read private Class2 Class2; // we camel case the parameter public Class1(Class2 class2){ this.Class2 = class2; } } Here are my stock rules The class name is capitalized (Class1) The public properties are capitalized (Prop1) The private field tied to a public property has m_ to indicate this. My coworker prefers _ There is some debate if using m_ or _ should be used at all, as it is like Hungarian notation. Private class fields are capitalized. The part I am trying to figure out is what do I do if when the Class name of a private field matches the private field name. For example, private Class2 Class2; This is confusing. If the private field name is not the same class, for example private string Name; , there isn't much issue. Or am I thinking about the issue wrong. Should my classes and private fields be named in such a way that they don't collide?

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• IEnumerator seems to be effecting all objects, and not one at a time

  - by PFranchise

  Hey, I am trying to alter an attribute of an object. I am setting it to the value of that same attribute stored on another table. There is a one to many relationship between the two. The product end is the one and the versions is the many. Right now, both these methods that I have tried have set all the products returned equal to the final version object. So, in this case they are all the same. I am not sure where the issue lies. Here are my two code snipets, both yield the same result. int x = 1 IEnumerator<Product> ie = productQuery.GetEnumerator(); while (ie.MoveNext()) { ie.Current.RSTATE = ie.Current.Versions.First(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } and foreach (var product in productQuery) { product.RSTATE = product.Versions.Single(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } The versions table holds information for previous products, each is distinguished by the version number. I know that it will start at 1 and go until it reaches the current version, based on my query returning the proper number of products. Thanks for any advice.

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• How to queue and call actual methods (rather than immediately eval) in java?

  - by alleywayjack

  There are a list of tasks that are time sensitive (but "time" in this case is arbitrary to what another program tells me - it's more like "ticks" rather than time). However, I do NOT want said methods to evaluate immediately. I want one to execute after the other finished. I'm using a linked list for my queue, but I'm not really sure how/if I can access the actual methods in a class without evaluating them immediate. The code would look something like... LinkedList<Method> l = new LinkedList<Method>(); l.add( this.move(4) ); l.add( this.read() ); l.removeFirst().call(); //wait 80 ticks l.removeFirst().call(); move(4) would execute immediately, then 80 ticks later, I would remove it from the list and call this.read() which would then be executed. I'm assuming this has to do with the reflection classes, and I've poked around a bit, but I can't seem to get anything to work, or do what I want. If only I could use pointers...

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• jQuery/Javascript Cookies and variable returning with value [object Object]

  - by user1706661

  I am attempting to set a cookie to a site using jQuery, ONLY if the user came from a specific site. In this case, lets use -http://referrersite.com- as the site they must come from for the cookie to be created as an example. The cookie value is being stored in a variable and everything up to this point is working fine. There is a conditional statement checking whether the user came from the referred site, if the cookie exists already and if the cookie doesn't exist and the user did not come from the referred site. If the user came from the referred site the cookie is created and stored in a variable. If the cookie already exists, it is then stored in a variable. If the cookie does not exist and the user did not come from the referred site I am assigning the variable a static string of characters - this is where the issue lies. When the variable is alerted from the non referred site and no existing cookie, it returns: [object Object], not the static string of characters. The code I am using is below: $(document).ready(function() { var referrer = document.referrer; if(referrer == "http://referrersite.com") { $.cookie("code","123456", { expires: 90, path: '/' }); cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code")) { cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code") == null && referrer != "http://referrersite.com") { cookieContainer = "67890"; alert(cookieContainer); } }); Please let me know if there is something I am missing as the code to me looks like it should work. Thanks!

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• CSS - background-size: cover; not working in Firefox

  - by Jayant Bhawal

  body{ background-image: url("./content/site_data/bg.jpg"); background-size: cover; background-repeat: no-repeat; font-family: 'Lobster', cursive; } Check: http://demo.jayantbhawal.in on firefox browsers, NOT in widescreen mode. The code works on Chrome(Android + PC) and even the stock Android browser, but NOT Firefox(Android + PC). Is there any good alternative to it? Why is it not working anyways? Googled this issue a lot of times, but no one else seems to have this problem. Is it just me? In any case, how do I fix it? There are quite some questions on SO about it too, but none of them provide a legitimate solution, so can someone just tell me if they have background-size: cover; issues on firefox too? So basically tell me 3 things: 1. Why is it happening? 2. What is a good alternative to it? 3. Is this happening to you too? On Firefox browsers of course. Chrome Version 35.0.1916.114 m Firefox Version 29.0.1 Note: I may already be trying to fix it so at times you may see a totally weird page. Wait a bit and reload.

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• what is the most elegant way of showing first week in a month

  - by ooo

  In C#, i want to show the first week in a calendar (in a html table) and i am trying to figure out the most elegant algorithm to generate the right days. If the first day of the week is not Sunday, i want to show the days of preceding month (like you would see on a regular calendar). So, as an input you have a current month. In this case May. I want to generate this: Month: May <table> <tr> <th>S</th> <th>M</th> <th>T</th> <th>W</th> <th>TH</th> <th>F</th> <th>Sa</th> </tr> <tr> <td>25</td> <td>26</td> <td>27</td> <td>28</td> <td>29</td> <td>30</td> <td>1</td> </tr></table> so it should display something like this (ignore the alignment) S | M | T | W | Th | F | Sa | 25 - 26 - 27 - 28 - 29 - 30 - 1 given that each month would have the start of day be a different day of the week, i am trying to figure out an elegant way to get the values of this data using the DateTime object. I see it has a dayofweek property on a date. i am generating this table in C# on my server to pass down to a html page.

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• Picture Box and Form Transparency

  - by Qu1nncunxIV

  Maybe I am missing something, but is it the case that when you set a pictureboxes background to transparent, all it really does is set it to the same color as the forms background? What I am trying to do is draw an animation for the benefit of this, a bouncing ball - which I paint on the form, then overlay that with a picture frame. End result should be a bouncing ball in a picture frame, I should mention that the picture frame does not have a straight edge, so it is not possible to arrange 4 picture boxes in a frame. The ball needs to vanish behind the frame to change color and then magically bounce back out. I have tried: 1.Setting the picture box background to pink and then key out the same pink, this basically cuts away everything, including that which is behind the picture box 2.Setting the picture box to transparent, this just displays the picture box background as the same color as the forms background. 3.I have tried painting the image in a rectangle, this had the same effect as drawing it in a picture box. I am not sure what I am doing wrong, I am wondering if there is any other ways I could try or if someone has made a custom control or library that supports transparency?

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• Why am I unable to prevent the animation queue from stacking without breaking my code?

  - by user1888886

  I am attempting to use jquery and CSS to animate the buttons of a navigation sidebar I am using to signify which button is selected when the mouse is hovered over each. Currently, my code for the CSS appears as such: #navbutton {position:relative; width:178px; height:35px; border:1px #FFF solid; z-index:+3; font-family:'Capriola', sans-serif; font-size:18px; text-align:center;} #navbutton.button {color:#77D; background-color: #F0B0D0;} #navbutton.button_hover {color:#66C; background-color: #FCF; padding:10px;} And my jquery: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#sidebar div").mouseenter(buttonHover) function buttonHover(){ $(this).stop().switchClass('button','button_hover',500); } $("#sidebar div").mouseleave(button) function button(){ $(this).stop().switchClass('button_hover','button',500); } }); </script> Before I added the .stop() to each part of the animation, the animation queue would stack up for each time the mouse was moved over each button and then removed. Now that the .stop() has been applied, however, if the mouse is moved away from a button during its animation, the button will freeze and remain in its mid-animation state, unable to be fixed by being hovered over until the page is reloaded, rather than reverting to its original mouseleave state. From everything I've read, this should not be the case. Might anyone be able to tell why my animation queue becomes broken once the .stop() is applied?

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• Dealing with Struts2 float conversion type

  - by Daniel Calderon Mori

  I have a question regarding float type conversion in Struts2. I have a form that contains a serie of normal input elements. A serie of textfields with an add button by the side of each one is included in the window. Clicking on one of this buttons has the effect of adding an input type "hidden" inside the form with the value of its correspondent textfield. That value will often be a float number that, this is very important, uses the point format (example: 1.34). The inputs created look like this: <input class="hidden_material" type="hidden" name="form[0].cantidad_formulacion" value='1.34'"> <input class="hidden_material" type="hidden" name="form[1].cantidad_formulacion" value='1.54'"> Anyway, the whole proccess is made correctly until the data is used by the server after the form submission. The numbers are present as if the point wouldn't have been placed in the number (using the example above, as 134). If a comma is used (as in 1,34), there wouldn't be a problem. But that will not be the case with the users of the system. How could I solve this problem?

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• Sessions not sticking linux server

  - by Jacob Windsor

  I have just moved the dev site over to my linux server for production but the sessions don't seem to be sticking for very long. I am guessing it is the server settings and not the php because it does the same thing with the plesk panel. Whenever a script is executed the sessions seems to get unset. I see nothing in the error log so not sure what it is. It all worked fine on wamp. Anyway I uploaded the php.ini file which was in the wamp server as it had all the settings i needed and all was working on localhost. Not sure what the problem is and this is the final thing that I have to sort out before going into production. And just too add the sessions are being started as they last for a little bit just don't stick around long. Here is the relevent part of my login script just in case there is something wrong with the code: // if login is ok then we add a cookie if($flag == 0) { $pass = htmlspecialchars(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['pass'])); $username = htmlspecialchars(mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['username'])); $_SESSION['username']=$username; $_SESSION['password']=$pass;

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• servlet and jsp sending query result following MVC framework

  - by kawtousse

  Hi every one, in order to separate java code and html code and be more faithful to MVC framework i am coding like that; in the servlet i put the following: net.sf.hibernate.Session s = null; net.sf.hibernate.Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select opcemployees.Nom,opcemployees.Prenom,dailytimesheet.TrackingDate,dailytimesheet.Activity," + "dailytimesheet.ProjectCode,dailytimesheet.WAName,dailytimesheet.TaskCode," + "dailytimesheet.TimeSpent,dailytimesheet.PercentTaskComplete from Opcemployees opcemployees,Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet " + "where opcemployees.Matricule=dailytimesheet.Matricule and dailytimesheet.Etat=3 " + "group by opcemployees.Nom,opcemployees.Prenom" ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()){ Object[] row = (Object[]) it.next(); request.setAttribute("items", row); }} } catch (HibernateException e){ e.printStackTrace(); } request.getRequestDispatcher("EspaceValidation.jsp").forward(request, response); and in jsp i start like that: <table> <c:forEach items="${items}" var="item"> <tr> <td>? </td> <td>?</td> </tr> </c:forEach> in this case what should i put exactly to obtain my result.a table fulled with the right value from the request

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• Doesn't this defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties?

  - by flockofcode

  I know how to use properties and I understand that they implicitly call underlying get and set accessors, depending on whether we are writing to or reading from a property. static void Main(string[] args) { A a = new A(); (a.b).i = 100; } class A { private B _b = new B(); public B b { get { return _b; } } } class B { public int i; } What code (a.b).i = 100; essentially does is that first property’s get accessor returns a reference to an object _b, and once we have this reference, we are able to access _b’s members and change their values. Thus, in our example, having read only property only prevents outside code from changing the value of a reference variable _b, but it doesn’t prevent outside code from accessing _b’s members. So it seems that property can only detect whether we are trying to read from or write to a variable ( in our case variable _b ) located on the stack, while it’s not able to detect whether we’re trying to also write to members of an object to which the variable on the stack ( assuming this variable is of reference type ) points to. a) But doesn’t that defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties? Wouldn’t it be more effective if properties had the ability to also detect whether we’re trying to access members of an object returned by get accessor( assuming backing field is of a reference type )? thank you

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• What kind of online hosting do I need for a WCF-based service?

  - by mafutrct

  First of all, I'm not sure if SO is the right place to ask. Please migrate me if needed. I would like to host a WCF-based service so it is available for everyone. While hosting it on my personal, local servers succeeded, I would prefer to move it to an external service provider for various reasons. I'll be blunt: I have no clue about hosting providers. I know there are webhosters, virtual and root servers and several other services. What I would like to know is what kind of hosting I need in my case. I understand that a root server would easily fulfill my requirements, but that is not exactly cheap. The program I'd like to run on the server requires .NET 4, preferably on a windows machine. Access to a folder in the file system is much appreciated (1 GB storage is enough by far). Communication with clients (in form of an applications written in .NET) via opening a port on the server. Traffic is low (<<1 GB/month?) There is no website. Having the provider perform updates would be nice. My understanding is that a virtual server would be a possible solution. Prices seem start at around 5€/month, which is ok for me. However, I read that for these cheap solutions RAM is severely limited (~400 MB), and I'm not confident that is enough to run windows and a .NET application.

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• Limiting number of text lines in a table cell

  - by Kuzco

  I have a table cell where I need to limit the text to a max of two lines. I tried achieving this by placing an inner div with a limited height: div { border: 1px solid #EECCDD; width: 100px; height: 40px; overflow: hidden; } <div> <p>bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla bla</p> </div> <div> <p>bla bla bla bla</p> </div> However, in this case the cells which have only one line of text are not vertically aligned to the middle. I know there are ways to vertically align a text within a div, but most of the ones I found seemed a bit complicated and/or hacky (like this one), and felt like a bit of an overkill. Is there a different way to effectively limit the number of lines inside the cell, or a simple way to align the text in the way I did it?

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• Multiple collections tied to one base collection with filters and eventing

  - by damienc88

  I have a complex model served from my back end, which has a bunch of regular attributes, some nested models, and a couple of collections. My page has two tables, one for invalid items, and one for valid items. The items in question are from one of the nested collections. Let's call it baseModel.documentCollection, implementing DocumentsCollection. I don't want any filtration code in my Marionette.CompositeViews, so what I've done is the following (note, duplicated for the 'valid' case): var invalidDocsCollection = new DocumentsCollection( baseModel.documentCollection.filter(function(item) { return !item.isValidItem(); }) ); var invalidTableView = new BookIn.PendingBookInRequestItemsCollectionView({ collection: app.collections.invalidDocsCollection }); layout.invalidDocsRegion.show(invalidTableView); This is fine for actually populating two tables independently, from one base collection. But I'm not getting the whole event pipeline down to the base collection, obviously. This means when a document's validity is changed, there's no neat way of it shifting to the other collection, therefore the other view. What I'm after is a nice way of having a base collection that I can have filter collections sit on top of. Any suggestions?

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• How can I achieve this kind of relationship (inheritance, composition, something else)?

  - by Tim

  I would like to set up a foundation of classes for an application, two of which are person and student. A person may or may not be a student and a student is always a person. The fact that a student “is a” person led me to try inheritance, but I can't see how to make it work in the case where I have a DAO that returns an instance of person and I then want to determine if that person is a student and call student related methods for it. class Person { private $_firstName; public function isStudent() { // figure out if this person is a student return true; // (or false) } } class Student extends Person { private $_gpa; public function getGpa() { // do something to retrieve this student's gpa return 4.0; // (or whatever it is) } } class SomeDaoThatReturnsPersonInstances { public function find() { return new Person(); } } $myPerson = SomeDaoThatReturnsPersonInstances::find(); if($myPerson->isStudent()) { echo 'My person\'s GPA is: ', $myPerson->getGpa(); } This obviously doesn't work, but what is the best way to achieve this effect? Composition doesn't sond right in my mind because a person does not “have a” student. I'm not looking for a solution necessarily but maybe just a term or phrase to search for. Since I'm not really sure what to call what I'm trying to do, I haven't had much luck. Thank you!

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• No result when Rally.data.WsapiDataStore lacks permissions

  - by user1195996

  I'm calling Ext.create('Rally.data.WsapiDataStore', params), and looking for results with the load event. I'm requesting a number of objects across programs that the user may or may not have read permission for. This works fine for queries where the user has permissions. But in the case where the user does not have permission and presumably gets zero results back, the load event does not seem to fire at all. I would expect it to fire with the unsuccessful flag or else to return with empty results. Since I don't know that the request has failed, my program waits and waits. How can I tell if a this request fails to return because of security? BTW, looking at the network stats, I believe all my requests get a "200 OK" status back. Here is the method I use to create the various data stores: _createDataStore: function(params) { this.openRequests++; var createParams = { model: params.type, autoLoad: true, // So I can later determine which query type it is, and which program requestType: params.requestType == undefined ? params.type : params.requestType, program: this.program, listeners: { load: this._onDataLoaded, scope: this }, filters: params.filters, pageSize: params.pageSize, fetch: params.fetch, context: { project: this.project, projectScopeUp: false, projectScopeDown: true }, pageSize: 1 // We only need the count }; console.log('_createDataStore', this.program, createParams.requestType); Ext.create('Rally.data.WsapiDataStore', createParams); }, And here is the _onDataLoaded method: _onDataLoaded: function(store, data, successB) { console.log('_onDataLoaded', this.program, successB); ... I only see this function called for those queries for which the account has permissions.

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• How do browser cookie domains work?

  - by Vilx-

  Due to weird domain/subdomain cookie issues that I'm getting, I'd like to know how browsers handle cookies. If they do it in different ways, it would also be nice to know the differences. In other words - when a browser receives a cookie, that cookie MAY have a domain and a path attached to it. Or not, in which case the browser probably substitutes some defaults for them. Question 1: what are they? Later, when the browser is about to make a request, it checks its cookies and filters out the ones it should send for that request. It does so by matching them against the requests path and domain. Question 2: what are the matching rules? Added: The reason I'm asking this is because I'm interested in some edge cases. Like: Will a cookie for .example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for .example.com be available for example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for www.example.com? Will a cookie for example.com be available for anotherexample.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for www2.example.com? Will www.example.com be able to set cookie for .com? Etc. Added 2: Also, could someone suggest how I should set a cookie so that: It can be set by either www.example.com or example.com; It is accessible by both www.example.com and example.com.

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• Ruby - RegEx problem or maybe another solution altogether

  - by r3nrut

  Ok the problem I'm having is that I have a block of javascript I've successfully scraped out of a websites source and now I have to sift through the js to get the specific values I'm looking for. Below is the chunk i'm needing to deal with. I need to find "flvFileName" and get all the file names listed. In this case its: trailer1,trailer2,trailer3. At first I started using regex to match the start and end tags and them match the file names and extract them to an array but the problem is that there isn't always 3 videos in the list. Could be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 etc. So matching doesn't work. Any thoughts on a way to approach this that won't make me continue to abuse my laptop? ["", "\r\n", "\n", "\r\n function IgnoreEnter(e) {\r\n var code;\r\n if (!e) // IE\r\n {\r\n var e = window.event;\r\n }\r\n if (e.keyCode) {\r\n code = e.keyCode;\r\n }\r\n else if (e.which) // Firefox, Opera\r\n {\r\n code = e.which;\r\n }\r\n\r\n if (code == 13) {\r\n e.cancelBubble = true;\r\n e.returnValue = false;\r\n }\r\n }\r\n\r\n function ResetDefault() {\r\n __defaultFired = false;\r\n }\r\n", "", "\r\n// <![CDATA[\r\n$(doc).ready(function () { $('#VideoObject').flash({ swf: '/scinema/video.swf', height: 300, width: 480, hasVersion: 8, menu: false, wmode: 'transparent', bgcolor: '#000',flashvars: {flvFileName: 'trailer1,trailer2,trailer3', age: 'no', isForced: 'true'} }); });

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• how to create a array of labelfields

  - by sheetal_r oswal

  I have 'n' number of data which has to be added to a label field which in turn has to be added to hfm.I am setting the single data in to label field as : final LabelField desc = new LabelField("", LabelField.FOCUSABLE); final LabelField desc1 = new LabelField("", LabelField.FOCUSABLE); Vector data = (Vector) listEvent.get(keys); for (int i = 0; i < data.size(); i++) { EventData ee = (EventData) data.elementAt(i); String Summary= ee.getSummary(); if (time.getText().equals(sTime)) { desc.setText(Summary); } else{ desc1.setText(Summary); } } HorizontalFieldManager horizontalFieldManager_left18 = new HorizontalFieldManager() { horizontalFieldManager_left18.add(desc1); vfm.add(horizontalFieldManager_left18); vfm.add(new SeparatorField()); HorizontalFieldManager horizontalFieldManager_left17 = new HorizontalFieldManager() { horizontalFieldManager_left17.add(desc); vfm.add(horizontalFieldManager_left17); vfm.add(new SeparatorField()); In the above code i loop over vector and set the data into labelfield and adding the label to hfm later. Now the case is the vector data has more than one summary data,and the data is getting overridden in labelfield,i need to keep 'n' number of summary data into lablefield and add to new hfm.

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