Search Results

Search found 21331 results on 854 pages for 'require once'.

Page 795/854 | < Previous Page | 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798 799 800 801 802  | Next Page >

• debugging JBoss 100% CPU usage

  - by NateS

  Originally posted on Server Fault, where it was suggested this question might better asked here. We are using JBoss to run two of our WARs. One is our web app, the other is our web service. The web app accesses a database on another machine and makes requests to the web service. The web service makes JMS requests to other machines, aggregates the data, and returns it. At our biggest client, about once a month the JBoss Java process takes 100% of all CPUs. The machine running JBoss has 8 CPUs. Our web app is still accessible during this time, however pages take about 3 minutes to load. Restarting JBoss restores everything to normal. The database machine and all the other machines are fine, only the machine running JBoss is affected. Memory usage is normal. Network utilization is normal. There are no suspect error messages in the JBoss logs. I have set up a test environment as close as possible to the client's production environment and I've done load testing with as much as 2x the number of concurrent users. I have not gotten my test environment to replicate the problem. Where do we go from here? How can we narrow down the problem? Currently the only plan we have is to wait until the problem occurs in production on its own, then do some debugging to determine the cause. So far people have just restarted JBoss when the problem occurred to minimize down time. Next time it happens they will get a developer to take a look. The question is, next time it happens, what can be done to determine the cause? We could setup a separate JBoss instance on the same box and install the web app separately from the web service. This way when the problem next occurs we will know which WAR has the problem (assuming it is our code). This doesn't narrow it down much though. Should I enable JMX remote? This way the next time the problem occurs I can connect with VisualVM and see which threads are taking the CPU and what the hell they are doing. However, is there a significant down side to enabling JMX remote in a production environment? Is there another way to see what threads are eating the CPU and to get a stacktrace to see what they are doing? Any other ideas? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Getting started with XSD validation with C#

  - by Rosarch

  Here is my first attempt at validating XML with XSD. The XML file to be validated: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <config xmlns="Schemas" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation="config.xsd"> <levelVariant> <filePath>SampleVariant</filePath> </levelVariant> <levelVariant> <filePath>LegendaryMode</filePath> </levelVariant> <levelVariant> <filePath>AmazingMode</filePath> </levelVariant> </config> The XSD, located in "Schemas/config.xsd" relative to the XML file to be validated: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" elementFormDefault="qualified"> <xs:element name="config"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="levelVariant"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="filePath" type="xs:anyURI"> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> Right now, I just want to validate the XML file precisely as it appears currently. Once I understand this better, I'll expand more. Do I really need so many lines for something as simple as the XML file as it currently exists? The validation code in C#: public void SetURI(string uri) { XElement toValidate = XElement.Load(Path.Combine(PATH_TO_DATA_DIR, uri) + ".xml"); // begin confusion string schemaURI = toValidate.Attributes("xmlns").First().ToString() + toValidate.Attributes("xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation").First().ToString(); XmlSchemaSet schemas = new XmlSchemaSet(); schemas.Add("", XmlReader.Create( SOMETHING )); XDocument toValidateDoc = new XDocument(toValidate); toValidateDoc.Validate(schemas, null); // end confusion root = toValidate; } Any illumination would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• How do I create a partial function with generics in scala?

  - by Matteo Caprari

  Hello. I'm trying to write a performance measurements library for Scala. My idea is to transparently 'mark' sections so that the execution time can be collected. Unfortunately I wasn't able to bend the compiler to my will. An admittedly contrived example of what I have in mind: // generate a timing function val myTimer = mkTimer('myTimer) // see how the timing function returns the right type depending on the // type of the function it is passed to it val act = actor { loop { receive { case 'Int => val calc = myTimer { (1 to 100000).sum } val result = calc + 10 // calc must be Int self reply (result) case 'String => val calc = myTimer { (1 to 100000).mkString } val result = calc + " String" // calc must be String self reply (result) } Now, this is the farthest I got: trait Timing { def time[T <: Any](name: Symbol)(op: => T) :T = { val start = System.nanoTime val result = op val elapsed = System.nanoTime - start println(name + ": " + elapsed) result } def mkTimer[T <: Any](name: Symbol) : (() => T) => () => T = { type c = () => T time(name)(_ : c) } } Using the time function directly works and the compiler correctly uses the return type of the anonymous function to type the 'time' function: val bigString = time('timerBigString) { (1 to 100000).mkString("-") } println (bigString) Great as it seems, this pattern has a number of shortcomings: forces the user to reuse the same symbol at each invocation makes it more difficult to do more advanced stuff like predefined project-level timers does not allow the library to initialize once a data structure for 'timerBigString So here it comes mkTimer, that would allow me to partially apply the time function and reuse it. I use mkTimer like this: val myTimer = mkTimer('aTimer) val myString= myTimer { (1 to 100000).mkString("-") } println (myString) But I get a compiler error: error: type mismatch; found : String required: () => Nothing (1 to 100000).mkString("-") I get the same error if I inline the currying: val timerBigString = time('timerBigString) _ val bigString = timerBigString { (1 to 100000).mkString("-") } println (bigString) This works if I do val timerBigString = time('timerBigString) (_: String), but this is not what I want. I'd like to defer typing of the partially applied function until application. I conclude that the compiler is deciding the return type of the partial function when I first create it, chosing "Nothing" because it can't make a better informed choice. So I guess what I'm looking for is a sort of late-binding of the partially applied function. Is there any way to do this? Or maybe is there a completely different path I could follow? Well, thanks for reading this far -teo

  Read the article

• Structure of NAnt build scripts and solution structure on build server

  - by llykke

  We're in the process of streamlining/automating build, integration and unit testing as well as deployment. Our software is developed in Visual Studio where we have use both C# and VB.NET in our projects. A single project can be contained within multiple solutions (i.e. Utils project is used in both ProductA and ProductB solutions) For historical reasons our code repository isn't as well structured as one could have hoped for. E.g. Utils project might be located under ProductA solution (because that's were it was first used) but it was later deemed useful for productB development and merely just included into the solution of productB (but still located in a subdirectory of productA). I would like to use continous integration testing and have setup a CC.NET build server where I intend to use NAnt for creating the actual builds. Question 1: How should I structure my builds on the buildserver? Should I instruct CC.NET to retrieve all the projects for productB into a single library e.g. a file structure similar to -ProductB --Utils --BetterUtils --Data or should I opt for a filestructure similar to this -ProductA --Utils -ProductB --BetterUtils --Data and then just have the NAnt build scripts handle the references? Our references in VS doesn't match the actual location in the code repository so it's not possible today to just check-out productB solution and build it straight away (unfortunately). I hope this question makes sense? Question 2: Is it better to check out all the source code located in different projects into a single file folder (whilst retaining some kind of structure) and then build every thing at once or have multiple projects in CC.NET and then let the CC.NET server handle dependencies? Example: Should I have a seperate project in CC.NET for monitoring the automated build/test of Utils project when it's never released on it's own? Or should I just build/test it whilst building it as part of ProductB? I hope the above makes sense and that you can provide me with some arguments for using either option. We're nowhere near an ideal source code repository structure and I would prefer if I can resolve the lack of repository structure on the build server instead of having to clean up the structure of our repository. Switching away from VSS is (unfortunately) not an option. Right now our build consists of either deploying via VS clickonce or pressing F5 so just getting the build automated would be a huge step up for us. Thanks

  Read the article

• trouble with utf-8 chars & apache2 rewrite rules

  - by tixrus

  I see the post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2565864/validating-utf-8-in-htaccess-rewrite-rule and I think that is great, but a more fundamental problem I am having first: I needed to expand to handle utf-8 chars for query string parameters, names of directories, files, and used in displays to users etc. I configured my Apache with DefaultCharset utf-8 and also my php if that matters. My original rewrite rule filtered everything except regular A-Za-z and underscore and hyphen. and it worked. Anything else would give you a 404 (which is what I want!) Now, however it seems that everything matches, including stuff I don't want, however, although it seems to match it doesn't go in the query string unless it is a regular A-Za-z_- character string. I find this confusing, because the rule says put whatever you matched into the query string: Here is the original rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/([A-Za-z_-]+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] and here is the revised rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/(\w+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] I made the change because somewhere I read that \w matches ALL the alpha chars where as A-Zetc. only matches the ones without accents and stuff. It doesn't seem to matter which of those rules I use: Here is what happens: In the application I have this: echo $_GET['g']; If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/USA it echoes out "USA" and works fine. If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/México it echoes nothing for that and warns me that index g is not defined and of course doesn't get resources for Mexico. if I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/fuzzle/buzzle/j.qle it does the same thing. This last case should be a 404! And it does this no matter which of the above rules I use. I configured a rewrite log RewriteLogLevel 5 RewriteLog /opt/local/apache2/logs/puzzles.httpd.rewrite but it is empty. Here is from the regular access log (it gives a status of 200) [26/May/2010:11:21:42 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M%C3%A9xico HTTP/1.1" 200 342 [26/May/2010:11:21:54 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M/l.foo HTTP/1.1" 200 342 What can I do to get these $%#$@(*#@!!! characters but not slash, dot or other non-alpha into my program, and once there, will it decode them correctly??? Would posix char classes work any better? Is there anything else I need to configure?

  Read the article

• Booking form works but does not give feedback

  - by Naim

  I have a form where people can book seats for a given event. It's actually a WordPress plugin. When someone sends his booking, email notifications are sent properly and the event booking status is updated accordingly. The issue is that the booking form does not give any feedback whatsoever. Once you hit "book now", the graphic keeps loading and no feedback is ever displayed like for instance "booking sent successfully" or "there are errors in your form", even though the booking is saved correctly with both sides notified by email. I guess it's a JavaScript issue,Firebug console is not showing any error... So here is the code source of the booking form : Also please experience the issue live Here username: tester password: testsa Thanks! $('#em-booking-form').submit( function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var em_booking_doing_ajax = false; $.ajax({ url: EM.bookingajaxurl, data:$('#em-booking-form').serializeArray(), dataType: 'jsonp', type:'post', beforeSend: function(formData, jqForm, options) { if(em_booking_doing_ajax){ alert(EM.bookingInProgress); return false; } em_booking_doing_ajax = true; $('.em-booking-message').remove(); $('#em-booking').append('<div id="em-loading"></div>'); }, success : function(response, statusText, xhr, $form) { $('#em-loading').remove(); $('.em-booking-message').remove(); $('.em-booking-message').remove(); //show error or success message if(response.result){ $('<div class="em-booking-message-success em-booking-message">'+response.message+'</div>').insertBefore('#em-booking-form'); $('#em-booking-form').hide(); $('.em-booking-login').hide(); $(document).trigger('em_booking_success', [response]); }else{ if( response.errors != null ){ if( $.isArray(response.errors) && response.errors.length > 0 ){ var error_msg; response.errors.each(function(i, el){ error_msg = error_msg + el; }); $('<div class="em-booking-message-error em-booking-message">'+error_msg.errors+'</div>').insertBefore('#em-booking-form'); }else{ $('<div class="em-booking-message-error em-booking-message">'+response.errors+'</div>').insertBefore('#em-booking-form'); } }else{ $('<div class="em-booking-message-error em-booking-message">'+response.message+'</div>').insertBefore('#em-booking-form'); } } $('html, body').animate({ scrollTop: $("#em-booking").first().offset().top - 50 }); //sends user back to top of form //run extra actions after showing the message here if( response.gateway != null ){ $(document).trigger('em_booking_gateway_add_'+response.gateway, [response]); } if( !response.result && typeof Recaptcha != 'undefined'){ Recaptcha.reload(); } }, complete : function(){ em_booking_doing_ajax = false; $('#em-loading').remove(); } }); return false; });

  Read the article

• NoHostAvailableException With Cassandra & DataStax Java Driver If Large ResultSet

  - by hughj

  The setup: 2-node Cassandra 1.2.6 cluster replicas=2 very large CQL3 table with no secondary index Rowkey is a UUID.randomUUID().toString() read consistency set to ONE Using DataStax java driver 1.0 The request: Attempting to do a table scan by "SELECT some-col from schema.table LIMIT nnn;" The fail: Once I go beyond a certain nnn LIMIT, I start to get NoHostAvailableExceptions from the driver. It reads like this: com.datastax.driver.core.exceptions.NoHostAvailableException: All host(s) tried for query failed (tried: /10.181.13.239 ([/10.181.13.239] Unexpected exception triggered)) at com.datastax.driver.core.exceptions.NoHostAvailableException.copy(NoHostAvailableException.java:64) at com.datastax.driver.core.ResultSetFuture.extractCauseFromExecutionException(ResultSetFuture.java:214) at com.datastax.driver.core.ResultSetFuture.getUninterruptibly(ResultSetFuture.java:169) at com.jpmc.es.rtm.storage.impl.EventExtract.main(EventExtract.java:36) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:601) at com.intellij.rt.execution.application.AppMain.main(AppMain.java:120) Caused by: com.datastax.driver.core.exceptions.NoHostAvailableException: All host(s) tried for query failed (tried: /10.181.13.239 ([/10.181.13.239] Unexpected exception triggered)) at com.datastax.driver.core.RequestHandler.sendRequest(RequestHandler.java:98) at com.datastax.driver.core.RequestHandler$1.run(RequestHandler.java:165) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1110) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:603) Given: This is probably not the most enlightened thing to do to a large table with millions of rows, but this is how I learn what not to do, so I would really appreciate someone who could volunteer how this kind of error can be debugged. For example, when this happens, there are no indications that the nodes in the cluster ever had an issue with the request (there is nothing in the logs on either node that indicate any timeout or failure). Also, I enabled the trace on the driver, which gives you some nice autotrace (ala Oracle) info as long as the query succeeds. But in this case, the driver blows a NoHostAvailableException and no ExecutionInfo is available, so tracing has not provided any benefit in this case. I also find it interesting that this does not seem to be recorded as a timeout (my JMX consoles tell me no timeouts have occurred). So, I am left not understanding WHERE the failure is actually occurring. I am left with the idea that it is the driver that is having a problem, but I don't know how to debug it (and I would really like to). I have read several posts from folks that state that query'g for resultSets 10000 rows is probably not a good idea, and I am willing to accept this, but I would like to understand what is causing the exception and where the exception is happening. FWIW, I also tried bumping the timeout properties in the cassandra.yaml, but this made no difference whatsoever. I welcome any suggestions, anecdotes, insults, or monetary contributions for my registration in the house of moron-developers. Regards!!

  Read the article

• Is it worth moving from stored procedures to linq ?

  - by Josef

  I'm looking at standardizing programming in an organisaiton. Half uses stored procedures and the other half Linq. From what i've read there is still some debate going on on this topic. My concern is that MS is trying to slip in it's own proprietry query language 'linq' to make SQL redundant. If a few years back microsoft had tried to win customers from oracle and sybase with their MSSQL database and stated that it didn't use SQL by their own proprietry query langues ie linq. I doubt many would have switched. I believe that is exactly what is happening now by introducting it into the applicaiton business layer. I have used MS for many years but there is one gripe that I have with them and that is that they change their direction a lot. By a lot I mean new releases of .net, silverlight etc are more than 30% different from previous version. So by the time you become productive a new release is on the way. As things stand now a web developer using .net would need to know either vb.net or c#, xml, xaml,javascript,html, sql and now linq. That doesn't make for good productivity in my books. My concern is that once we all start using linq MS will start changing it between releases. and it will become an ever changing landscape. I believe that 'linq to sql' has already been deprecated. At leas with SQL we are dealing with a more stable and standardized language. Are we looking at a programming revolution or a marketing campaign? As far as I know other languages like Cobol have stayed the same for years. A cobol program from 20 years ago could pick up todays code and start working on it. Could a Vb3 person work on a modern .net web app ? Would these large changes need to be made if the underlying original foundation had been sound ? I worry about following MS shaking roadmap with it's deadends and double backs. are there any architects out there who feel the same ? regards Josef

  Read the article

• Catching an exception class within a template

  - by Todd Bauer

  I'm having a problem using the exception class Overflow() for a Stack template I'm creating. If I define the class regularly there is no problem. If I define the class as a template, I cannot make my call to catch() work properly. I have a feeling it's simply syntax, but I can't figure it out for the life of me. #include<iostream> #include<exception> using namespace std; template <class T> class Stack { private: T *stackArray; int size; int top; public: Stack(int size) { this->size = size; stackArray = new T[size]; top = 0; } ~Stack() { delete[] stackArray; } void push(T value) { if (isFull()) throw Overflow(); stackArray[top] = value; top++; } bool isFull() { if (top == size) return true; else return false; } class Overflow {}; }; int main() { try { Stack<double> Stack(5); Stack.push( 5.0); Stack.push(10.1); Stack.push(15.2); Stack.push(20.3); Stack.push(25.4); Stack.push(30.5); } catch (Stack::Overflow) { cout << "ERROR! The stack is full.\n"; } return 0; } The problem is in the catch (Stack::Overflow) statement. As I said, if the class is not a template, this works just fine. However, once I define it as a template, this ceases to work. I've tried all sorts of syntaxes, but I always get one of two sets of error messages from the compiler. If I use catch(Stack::Overflow): ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2316: 'Stack::Overflow' : cannot be caught as the destructor and/or copy constructor are inaccessible EDIT: I meant If I use catch(Stack<double>::Overflow) or any variety thereof: ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2061: syntax error : identifier 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2310: catch handlers must specify one type ch18pr01.cpp(95) : error C2317: 'try' block starting on line '75' has no catch handlers I simply can not figure this out. Does anyone have any idea?

  Read the article

• 'object' undeclared <first use in this function>

  - by Mohit Deshpande

  I am using Winchain to develop on my Windows 7 machine. Here is my code: iPhoneTest.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface iPhoneTest : UIApplication { UITextView *textview; UIView *mainView; } @end iPhoneTest.m #import "iPhoneTest.h" #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <CoreFoundation/CoreFoundation.h> @implementation iPhoneTest -(void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(id)unused { UIWindow *window; struct CGRect rect = [UIHardware fullScreenApplicationContentRect]; rect.origin.x = rect.origin.y = 0.0f; window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithContentRect: rect]; mainView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame: rect]; textView = [[UITextView alloc] init]; [textView setEditable:YES]; [textView setTextSize:14]; [window orderFront: self]; [window makeKey: self]; [window _setHidden: NO]; [window setContentView: mainView]; [mainView addSubview:textView]; [textView setText:@"Hello World"]; } @end main.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "iPhoneTest.h" int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; int ret = UIApplicationMain(argc, argv, [iPhoneTest class]); [pool release]; return ret; } Makefile INFOPLIST_FILE=Info.plist SOURCES=\ main.m \ iPhoneTest.m CC=/usr/local/bin/arm-apple-darwin-gcc CFLAGS=-g -O2 -Wall LD=$(CC) LDFLAGS=-lobjc -framework CoreFoundation -framework Foundation -framework UIKit -framework LayerKit PRODUCT_NAME=iPhoneTest SRCROOT=/iphone-apps/iPhoneTest WRAPPER_NAME=$(PRODUCT_NAME).app EXECUTABLE_NAME=$(PRODUCT_NAME) SOURCES_ABS=$(addprefix $(SRCROOT)/,$(SOURCES)) INFOPLIST_ABS=$(addprefix $(SRCROOT)/,$(INFOPLIST_FILE)) OBJECTS=\ $(patsubst %.c,%.o,$(filter %.c,$(SOURCES))) \ $(patsubst %.cc,%.o,$(filter %.cc,$(SOURCES))) \ $(patsubst %.cpp,%.o,$(filter %.cpp,$(SOURCES))) \ $(patsubst %.m,%.o,$(filter %.m,$(SOURCES))) \ $(patsubst %.mm,%.o,$(filter %.mm,$(SOURCES))) OBJECTS_ABS=$(addprefix $(CONFIGURATION_TEMP_DIR)/,$(OBJECTS)) APP_ABS=$(BUILT_PRODUCTS_DIR)/$(WRAPPER_NAME) PRODUCT_ABS=$(APP_ABS)/$(EXECUTABLE_NAME) all: $(PRODUCT_ABS) $(PRODUCT_ABS): $(APP_ABS) $(OBJECTS_ABS) $(LD) $(LDFLAGS) -o $(PRODUCT_ABS) $(OBJECTS_ABS) $(APP_ABS): $(INFOPLIST_ABS) mkdir -p $(APP_ABS) cp $(INFOPLIST_ABS) $(APP_ABS)/ $(CONFIGURATION_TEMP_DIR)/%.o: $(SRCROOT)/%.m mkdir -p $(dir $@) $(CC) $(CFLAGS) $(CPPFLAGS) -c $< -o $@ clean: echo rm -f $(OBJECTS_ABS) echo rm -rf $(APP_ABS) When I try to compile it with make, I get iPhoneTest.m: In fucntion '-[iPhoneTest applicationDidFinishLaunching:]' iPhoneTest.m:15: error: 'testView' undeclared <first use in this function> iPhoneTest.m:15: error: <Each undeclared identifier is reported only once for each function it appears in> Can anyone spot the problem?

  Read the article

• TVirtualStringTree - resetting non-visual nodes and memory comsumption

  - by Remy Lebeau - TeamB

  I have an app that loads records from a binary log file and displays them in a virtual TListView. There are potentially millions of records in a file, and the display can be filtered by the user, so I do not load all of the records in memory at one time, and the ListView item indexes are not a 1-to-1 relation with the file record offsets (List item 1 may be file record 100, for instance). I use the ListView's OnDataHint event to load records for just the items the ListView is actually interested in. As the user scrolls around, the range specified by OnDataHint changes, allowing me to free records that are not in the new range, and allocate new records as needed. This works fine, speed is tolerable, and the memory footprint is very low. I am currently evaluating TVirtualStringTree as a replacement for the TListView, mainly because I want to add the ability to expand/collapse records that span multiple lines (I can fudge it with the TListView by incrementing/decrementing the item count dynamically, but this is not as straight forward as using a real tree). For the most part, I have been able to port the TListView logic and have everything work as I need. I notice that TVirtualStringTree's virtual paridigm is vastly different, though. It does not have the same kind of OnDataHint functionality that TListView does (I can use the OnScroll event to fake it, which allows my memory buffer logic to continue working), and I can use the OnInitializeNode event to associate nodes with records that are allocated. However, once a tree node is initialized, it sees that it remains initialized for the lifetime of the tree. That is not good for me. As the user scrolls around and I remove records from memory, I need to reset those non-visual nodes without removing them from the tree completely, or losing their expand/collapse states. When the user scrolls them back into view, I can re-allocate the records and re-initialize the nodes. Basically, I want to make TVirtualStringTree act as much like TListView as possible, as far as its virtualization is concerned. I have seen that TVirtualStringTree has a ResetNode() method, but I encounter various errors whenever I try to use it. I must be using it wrong. I also thought of just storing a data pointer inside each node to my record buffers, and I allocate and free memory, update those pointers accordingly. The end effect does not work so well, either. Worse, my largest test log file has ~5 million records in it. If I initialize the TVirtualStringTree with that many nodes at one time (when the log display is unfiltered), the tree's internal overhead for its nodes takes up a whopping 260MB of memory (without any records being allocated yet). Whereas with the TListView, loading the same log file and all the memory logic behind it, I can get away with using just a few MBs. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• markitup wysiwyg with a standard HTML form

  - by Chris

  Hi, I'm trying to use the markitup editor on my site and I'm having a problem trying to figure out what I need to do to submit the text area to my server side script. I'm guessing there is something simple that needs to be done but my lack of JS/JQuery knowledge is making it really hard to find a answer The editor works fine, I just want to use my own form and submit button with it, however when I try to submit the form I don't get any of the textarea data in my script. Any idea what I need to do? This is the min that works (before submit) In the Head of my HTML <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); }); --> </script> And the body: <form id="postpreview" name="newpost" action="/someurl" method="POST" /> <input type="hidden" name="key1" value="val1" /> <input type="hidden" name="key2" value="val2" /> <textarea name="text" id="markItUp"></textarea> <input id="SubmitPost" type="image" value="Continue" name="Doit" class="preview" src="/img/somimage" /> </form> As I said, everything prior to the submit works but once I submit I don't get anything for the form data element "text". I tried doing this in the head: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#SubmitPost").click(function(){ data = markItUp.textarea.value; $.post("scripturl",{ key1: "value1", key2: "value2", text: data }); }); }); --> </script> I've also tried: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#postpreview").submit(function(){ var data = $("#markItUp").html(); $.post("live",{ func: "posting", text: data }); return false; }); }); --> </script> And I have no luck - the last attempt above just disabled the form (so clicking on the submit or preview buttons did nothing). Any ideas? I guessing its really simple to use my own form but I have no clue how to do it. TIA!

  Read the article

• php if clause inside foreach not retrieving data correctly

  - by Mike

  Here's my issue: In my controller, I want to grab user input from a form. I then parse the input, and compare it to database values to ensure I'm grabbing the correct input. I simply want to match the user's answers to the question, grab the user ID, the question ID, and then determine if the answer applies to a multiple choice or checkbox question, or something else. I take those values and insert them into the answer table. Ignore the waiver stuff. I'll test that once I get the answers input correctly. // add answers and waiver consent records try { $answerArray = array(); $waiverArray = array(); // retrieve answers, waiver consents, and the question ID's from form object foreach ($formData as $key => $value) { $parts = explode("_", $key); if ($parts[0] == 'question') { array_push($answerArray, $value); } if ($parts[0] == 'waiverTitle') { array_push($waiverArray, $value); } } $questions = new Model_DbTable_Questions(); $questionResults = $questions->getQuestionResults($session->idEvent); foreach ( $questionResults as $qr ) { if ($qr ['questionType'] == 'multipleChoice' || $qr ['questionType'] == 'checkBox') { foreach ( $answerArray as $aa ) { $answerData = $answers->addAnswer ( $lastUserID, $qr ['idQuestion'], null, $aa ); echo count ( $answerData ) . ', ' . $qr ['questionType'] . ', ' . $aa . '<br />'; } } else { foreach ( $answerArray as $aa ) { $answerData = $answers->addAnswer ( $lastUserID, $qr ['idQuestion'], $aa, null ); echo count ( $answerData ) . ', ' . $qr ['questionType'] . ', ' . $aa . '<br />'; } } } } catch (Zend_Db_Statement_Exception $e) { $e->getMessage(); throw $e; } From my test data, I expect to get 2 records that match the multiple choice and checkbox criteria, and 1 record for text in the ELSE clause like this: 3, checkbox, 1 3, multipleChoice, 1 3, text, question_2 What I get is a 3x3 Cartesian product, 3 question elements each with the 3 possible answers like this output from the echo statements: 4, checkBox, 1 4, checkBox, 1 4, checkBox, question_2 4, multipleChoice, 1 4, multipleChoice, 1 4, multipleChoice, question_2 4, text, 1 4, text, 1 4, text, question_2 I've tried placing the IF clause inside the inner foreach, but I get the same results. I've been staring at this problem for way too long and cannot see what I'm doing wrong. Your kind assistance would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if my request requires more clarification.

  Read the article

• PHP Form POST to external URL with Redirect to another URL

  - by Marlon

  So, what I am trying to accomplish is have a self-posting PHP form, POST to an external page (using CURL) which in turn redirects to another page. Currently, what is happening is that once I click "Submit" on the form (in contact.php) it will POST to itself (as it is a self-posting form). The script then prepares the POST using CURL and performs the post. The external page does its processing and then, the external page is supposed to redirect back to another page, in a referring domain. However, what happens instead, is that it seems like the contact.php page loads the HTML from the page the external page redirected to, and then, the contact.php's HTML loads after that, ON THE SAME PAGE. The effect, is what looks like two separate pages rendered as one page. Naturally, I just want to perform the POST and have the browser render the page it is supposed to redirect to as specified by the external page. Here is the code I have so far: <?php if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { doCURLPost(); } function doCURLPost() { $emailid = "2, 4"; $hotel = $_POST['hotel']; //you will need to setup an array of fields to post with //then create the post string $data = array ( "recipient" => $emailid, "subject" => "Hotel Contact Form", "redirect" => "http://www.localhost.com/thanx.htm", "Will be staying in hotel: " => $_POST['hotel'], "Name" => $_POST['Name'], "Phone" => $_POST['Phone'], "Comments" => $_POST['Comments']); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.externallink.com/external.aspx"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array("Referer: http://www.localhost.com/contact.php")); $output = curl_exec($ch); $info = curl_getinfo($ch); curl_close($ch); } ?>

  Read the article

• NSObject release destroys local copy of object's data

  - by Spider-Paddy

  I know this is something stupid on my part but I don't get what's happening. I create an object that fetches data & puts it into an array in a specific format, since it fetches asynchronously (has to download & parse data) I put a delegate method into the object that needs the data so that the data fetching object copies it's formatted array into an array in the calling object. The problem is that when the data fetching object is released, the copy it created in the caller is being erased, code is: In .h file @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *imagesDataSource; In .m file // Fetch item details ImagesParser *imagesParserObject = [[ImagesParser alloc] init:self]; [imagesParserObject getArticleImagesOfArticleId:(NSInteger)currentArticleId]; [imagesParserObject release] <-- problematic release // Called by parser when images parsing is finished -(void)imagesDataTransferComplete:(ImagesParser *)imagesParserObject { self.imagesDataSource = [ImagesParserObject.returnedArray copy]; // copy array to local variable // If there are more pics, they must be assembled in an array for possible UIImageView animation NSInteger picCount = [imagesDataSource count]; if(picCount > 1) // 1 image is assumed to be the pic already displayed { // Build image array NSMutableArray *tempPicArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Temp space to hold images while building for(int i = 0; i < picCount; i++) { // Get Nr from only article in detailDataSource & pic name (Small) from each item in imagesDataSource NSString *picAddress = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://some.url.com/shopdata/image/article/%@/%@", [[detailDataSource objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Nr"], [[imagesDataSource objectAtIndex:i] objectForKey:@"Small"]]; NSURL *picURL = [NSURL URLWithString:picAddress]; NSData *picData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:picURL]; [tempPicArray addObject:[UIImage imageWithData:picData]]; } imagesArray = [tempPicArray copy]; // copy makes immutable copy of array [tempPicArray release]; currentPicIndex = 0; // Assume first pic is pic already being shown } else imagesArray = nil; // No need for a needless pic array // Remove please wait message [pleaseWaitViewControllerObject.view removeFromSuperview]; } I put in tons of NSLog lines to keep track of what was going on & self.imagesDataSource is populated with the returned array but when the parser object is released self.imagesDataSource becomes empty. I thought self.imagesDataSource = [ImagesParserObject.returnedArray copy]; is supposed to make an independant object, like as if it was alloc, init'ed, so that self.imagesDataSource is not just a pointer to the parser's array but is it's own array. So why does the release of the parser object clear the copy of the array. (I checked & double checked that it's not something overwriting self.imagesDataSource, commenting out [imagesParserObject release] consistently fixes the problem) Also, I have exactly the same problem with self.detailDataSource which is declared & populated in the exact same way as self.imagesDataSource I thought that once I call the parser I could release it because the caller no longer needs to refer to it, all further activity is carried out by the parser object through it's delegate method, what am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• iPhone SDK - Comparing characters in string

  - by Karl Daniel

  Basically what I'm trying to do is compare 2 strings one from a plist and one from the user's input. I use a while loop to step through each character and compare it and if true then I increase an integer then once the loop has finished I work out the percentage correct / similarity of the plist answer and the user's answer. I seem to be having a problem however as the only return I'm getting is 0. Below is the code I'm using... The code below is all functioning and the question no longer requires answering... Working code... answerLength = boxAnswer.length; //Gets number of characters of first string. plistLength = plistAnswer.length; //Gets number of characters of second string. characterRange = 0; //Sets the variable for which character to look at. charactersCorrect = 0; //Sets the variable of number of matching characters. unichar answerCharacter; //Declares a unichar for the first string. unichar plistCharacter; //Declares a unichar for the second string. while (answerLength > 0 && plistLength > 0) { answerCharacter = [boxAnswer characterAtIndex:characterRange]; //Gets character of first string at the index of the range integer. plistCharacter = [plistAnswer characterAtIndex:characterRange]; //Gets character of second string at the index of the range integer. answerLength--; //Reduces number of characters left to compare. plistLength--; characterRange++; //Increases integer to tell it to look at next character in string. if (answerCharacter == plistCharacter) { //Checks to see if character of first string and character of second string match. charactersCorrect++; //If true increases the number correct. } } //Works out percentage of matching characters out of the total string. totalChar = plistAnswer.length; totalPercentage = (charactersCorrect/totalChar)*100; percentageCorrect.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%i%%",totalPercentage]; Variable Declarations... int answerLength; int plistLength; int characterRange; double totalChar; double charactersCorrect; int totalPercentage;

  Read the article

• CKEDITOR - Is there anyway to prevent formatting code in SOURCE mode?

  - by Lev

  I've spent the good portion of my day trying to figure this out, and I figured I'd finally just give in and ask. How can you prevent ANY automatic formatting when in SOURCE mode? I like to edit HTML source code directly instead of using the WYSIWYG interface, but whenever I write new lines, or layout tags how I would indent them, it all gets formatted when I switch to WYSIWYG mode and then back to SOURCE mode again. I stumbled upon this earlier: http://dev.fckeditor.net/ticket/993 That alluded to a setting which may have existed once upon a time which would be exactly what I'm after. I just want to know how I can completely turn off all automatic formatting when editing in SOURCE mode. After browsing this site for hours on end and finding absolutely nothing on here or on Google, I came up with a solution I thought would be foolproof (albeit not a pleasant one). I learned about the "protectedSource" setting, so I thought, well maybe I can just use that and create an HTML comment tag before all my HTML and another after it and then push a regular expression finding the comment tags into the protectedSource array, but even that (believe it or not) doesn't work. I've tried my expression straight up in the browser outside of CKEDITOR and it is working, but CKEDITOR doesn't protect the code as expected (which I suspect is a bug involving comment tags, since I can get it to work with other strings). In case you are wondering, this is what I had hoped would work as a work-around, but doesn't: config.protectedSource.push( /<!-- src -->[\s\S]*<!-- end src-->/gi ); .. and what I planned on doing (for what appears to be the lack of a setting to disable formatting in SOURCE mode) was to nest all my HTML within the commented tags like this: <!-- src --> <div>some code that shouldn't be messed with (but is)</div> <!-- end src --> I'd love to hear if you anyone has any suggestions for this scenario, or knows of a setting which I have described, or even if someone can just fill me in as to why I can't get protectedSource to work properly with two comment tags. I really thing it's gotta be a bug because I can get so many other expressions to work fine, and I can even protect HTML within the area of a single comment tag, but I simply cannot get HTML within two different comment tags to stay untouched. :( I've wasted about 6-7 hours on this so far today so if anyone can shed any light on it I would be very grateful! Thanks for reading! ;)

  Read the article

• Tree Node Checked behavior on a TreeView in Compact Framework 3.5 running on Windows Mobile 6.5

  - by Hydroslide

  I have been upgrading an existing .NET Windows Mobile application to use the 3.5 version of the compact framework and to run on Windows Mobile 6.5. I have a form with a TreeView. The TreeView.Checkboxes property is set to true so that each node has a check box. This gives no trouble in all previous versions of Windows Mobile. However, in version 6.5 when you click on a check box it appears to check and then uncheck instantaneously. But it only raises the AfterCheck event once. The only way I can get a check to stick is by double clicking it (which is the wrong behavior). Has anyone seen this behavior? Does anyone know of a workaround for it? I have included a simple test form. Dump this form into a Visual Studio 2008 Smart Device application targeted at Windows Mobile 6 to see what I mean. Public Class frmTree Inherits System.Windows.Forms.Form #Region " Windows Form Designer generated code " Public Sub New() MyBase.new() ' This call is required by the Windows Form Designer. InitializeComponent() ' Add any initialization after the InitializeComponent() call. End Sub 'Form overrides dispose to clean up the component list. <System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCode()> _ Protected Overrides Sub Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) If disposing AndAlso components IsNot Nothing Then components.Dispose() End If MyBase.Dispose(disposing) End Sub 'Required by the Windows Form Designer Private components As System.ComponentModel.IContainer Friend WithEvents TreeView1 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeView Private mainMenu1 As System.Windows.Forms.MainMenu 'NOTE: The following procedure is required by the Windows Form Designer 'It can be modified using the Windows Form Designer. 'Do not modify it using the code editor. <System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThrough()> _ Private Sub InitializeComponent() Dim TreeNode1 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node0") Dim TreeNode2 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node2") Dim TreeNode3 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node3") Dim TreeNode4 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node4") Dim TreeNode5 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node1") Dim TreeNode6 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node5") Dim TreeNode7 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node6") Dim TreeNode8 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node7") Me.mainMenu1 = New System.Windows.Forms.MainMenu Me.TreeView1 = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeView Me.SuspendLayout() ' 'TreeView1 ' Me.TreeView1.CheckBoxes = True Me.TreeView1.Location = New System.Drawing.Point(37, 41) Me.TreeView1.Name = "TreeView1" TreeNode2.Text = "Node2" TreeNode3.Text = "Node3" TreeNode4.Text = "Node4" TreeNode1.Nodes.AddRange(New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode() {TreeNode2, TreeNode3, TreeNode4}) TreeNode1.Text = "Node0" TreeNode6.Text = "Node5" TreeNode7.Text = "Node6" TreeNode8.Text = "Node7" TreeNode5.Nodes.AddRange(New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode() {TreeNode6, TreeNode7, TreeNode8}) TreeNode5.Text = "Node1" Me.TreeView1.Nodes.AddRange(New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode() {TreeNode1, TreeNode5}) Me.TreeView1.Size = New System.Drawing.Size(171, 179) Me.TreeView1.TabIndex = 0 ' 'frmTree ' Me.AutoScaleDimensions = New System.Drawing.SizeF(96.0!, 96.0!) Me.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Dpi Me.AutoScroll = True Me.ClientSize = New System.Drawing.Size(240, 268) Me.Controls.Add(Me.TreeView1) Me.Menu = Me.mainMenu1 Me.Name = "frmTree" Me.Text = "frmTree" Me.ResumeLayout(False) End Sub #End Region End Class

  Read the article

• C# Begin/EndReceive - how do I read large data?

  - by ryeguy

  When reading data in chunks of say, 1024, how do I continue to read from a socket that receives a message bigger than 1024 bytes until there is no data left? Should I just use BeginReceive to read a packet's length prefix only, and then once that is retrieved, use Receive() (in the async thread) to read the rest of the packet? Or is there another way? edit: I thought Jon Skeet's link had the solution, but there is a bit of a speedbump with that code. The code I used is: public class StateObject { public Socket workSocket = null; public const int BUFFER_SIZE = 1024; public byte[] buffer = new byte[BUFFER_SIZE]; public StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); } public static void Read_Callback(IAsyncResult ar) { StateObject so = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket s = so.workSocket; int read = s.EndReceive(ar); if (read > 0) { so.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(so.buffer, 0, read)); if (read == StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE) { s.BeginReceive(so.buffer, 0, StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE, 0, new AyncCallback(Async_Send_Receive.Read_Callback), so); return; } } if (so.sb.Length > 0) { //All of the data has been read, so displays it to the console string strContent; strContent = so.sb.ToString(); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Read {0} byte from socket" + "data = {1} ", strContent.Length, strContent)); } s.Close(); } Now this corrected works fine most of the time, but it fails when the packet's size is a multiple of the buffer. The reason for this is if the buffer gets filled on a read it is assumed there is more data; but the same problem happens as before. A 2 byte buffer, for exmaple, gets filled twice on a 4 byte packet, and assumes there is more data. It then blocks because there is nothing left to read. The problem is that the receive function doesn't know when the end of the packet is. This got me thinking to two possible solutions: I could either have an end-of-packet delimiter or I could read the packet header to find the length and then receive exactly that amount (as I originally suggested). There's problems with each of these, though. I don't like the idea of using a delimiter, as a user could somehow work that into a packet in an input string from the app and screw it up. It also just seems kinda sloppy to me. The length header sounds ok, but I'm planning on using protocol buffers - I don't know the format of the data. Is there a length header? How many bytes is it? Would this be something I implement myself? Etc.. What should I do?

  Read the article

• UIViewController not oreintating. Methods not called

  - by capple

  Greetings, This question does seem to be an ongoing saga in the world of iphone SDK... so heres my contribution... Had two separate projects from the same template... one semi-works, the other not at all... Please let me explain my steps... used this basic GL ES template //iphonedevelopment.blogspot.com/2008/12/opengl-project-template-for-xcode.html had to sort out some of the 'Release' configuration but otherwises has eveything I need to add orientation to a GL ES project. One my first project, did my stuff, then added these methods.... -(BOOL)shouldAutoRotateToInterfaceOrientation ..... -(void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)didRotateFromInterfaceOrientation .... -(void)willAnimateRotationToInterfaceOrientation .... And understand what they do (or are trying to do in my case), the (BOOL)should... gets called once when the view controller is created, and returns 'YES'. But after that none of the other methods are called! So I started from scratch with a blank template (GL ES one from above)...and added minimum to support auto rotation. But this time none of the methods get called! So I investigated .... //developer.apple.com/iphone/library/qa/qa2010/qa1688.html as it said, I added the GLViewController.view first, then added the GLview as subviews of the application delegate. Nothing! Then found this //www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/44993-how-determine-ipad-launch-orientation.html which states to enable orientation notifications [[UIDevice currentDevice] beginGeneratingDeviceOrientationNotifications]; and then subsequently disable them in the view controller... makes sense...did it, nothing... I think the notifications might be on by default though, since I didn't need to enable them in the first project, yet it still try to verify a orientation (i.e (BOOL)shouldAutoRotate... )... If any one could help me out it would be greatly appreciated as this issue is driving me insane. Thanks in advance. The code can be found here ... http://rapidshare.com/files/392053688/autoRotation.zip N.B These projects avoid nib/xib resources, would like to keep it that way if possible. P.S iPad device not out where I am so I cannot test on a device yet. Would be nice for it to work on the simulator.

  Read the article

• "Alert" and "if" changes behaviour of dom copying from iframe to div

  - by lowkey

  Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance! UPDATE: Like the answers said i have created an event handler. They used jQuery, i have made one in mootools: window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('buffer').addEvent('load', function(){ $('display').set('html',window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML) window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; }).set('src','somelink'); }); Bonus question: 3) Im new at stackoverflow (what an amazing place!), is it better if i make new threads for follow up questions?

  Read the article

• Confused as to how to validate spring mvc form, what are my options?

  - by Blankman

  Latest spring mvc, using freemarker. Hoping someone could tell me what my options are in terms of validating a form with spring mvc, and what the recommend way would be to do this. I have a form that doesn't map directly to a model, it has input fields that when posted, will be used to initialze 2 model objects which I will then need to validate, and if they pass I will save them. If they fail, I want to return back to the form, pre-fill the values with what the user entered and display the error messages. I have read here and there about 2 methods, once of which I have done and understand how it works: @RequestMapping(...., method = RequestMethod.POST) public ModelAndView myMethod(@Valid MyModel, BindingResult bindingResult) { ModelAndView mav = new ModelAndView("some/view"); mav.addObject("mymodel", myModel); if(bindingResult.hasErrors()) { return mav; } } Now this worked if my form mapped directly to the form, but in my situation I have: form fields that don't map to any specific model, they have a few properties from 2 models. before validation occurrs, I need to create the 2 models manually, set the values from the values from the form, and manually set some properties also: Call validate on both models (model1, model2), and append these error messages to the errors collection which I need to pass back to the same view page if things don't work. when the form posts, I have to do some database calls, and based on those results may need to add additional messages to the errors collection Can someone tell me how to do this sort of validation? Pseudo code below: Model1 model1 = new Model1(); Model2 model2 = new Model2(); // manually or somehow automatically set the posted form values to model1 and model2. // set some fields manually, not from posted form model1.setProperty10(GlobalSettings.getDefaultProperty10()); model2.setProperty11(GlobalSettings.getDefaultProperty11()); // db calls, if they fail, add to errors collection if(bindingResult.hasErrors()) { return mav; } // validation passed, save Model1Service.save(model1); Model2Service.save(model2); redirect to another view Update I have using the JSR 303 annotations on my models right now, and it would great if I can use those still. Update II Please read the bounty description below for a summary of what I am looking for.

  Read the article

• Java Hardware Acceleration

  - by Freezerburn

  I have been spending some time looking into the hardware acceleration features of Java, and I am still a bit confused as none of the sites that I found online directly and clearly answered some of the questions I have. So here are the questions I have for hardware acceleration in Java: 1) In Eclipse version 3.6.0, with the most recent Java update for Mac OS X (1.6u10 I think), is hardware acceleration enabled by default? I read somewhere that someCanvas.getGraphicsConfiguration().getBufferCapabilities().isPageFlipping() is supposed to give an indication of whether or not hardware acceleration is enabled, and my program reports back true when that is run on my main Canvas instance for drawing to. If my hardware acceleration is not enabled now, or by default, what would I have to do to enable it? 2) I have seen a couple articles here and there about the difference between a BufferedImage and VolatileImage, mainly saying that VolatileImage is the hardware accelerated image and is stored in VRAM for fast copy-from operations. However, I have also found some instances where BufferedImage is said to be hardware accelerated as well. Is BufferedImage hardware accelerated as well in my environment? What would be the advantage of using a VolatileImage if both types are hardware accelerated? My main assumption for the advantage of having a VolatileImage in the case of both having acceleration is that VolatileImage is able to detect when its VRAM has been dumped. But if BufferedImage also support acceleration now, would it not have the same kind of detection built into it as well, just hidden from the user, in case that the memory is dumped? 3) Is there any advantage to using someGraphicsConfiguration.getCompatibleImage/getCompatibleVolatileImage() as opposed to ImageIO.read() In a tutorial I have been reading for some general concepts about setting up the rendering window properly (tutorial) it uses the getCompatibleImage method, which I believe returns a BufferedImage, to get their "hardware accelerated" images for fast drawing, which ties into question 2 about if it is hardware accelerated. 4) This is less hardware acceleration, but it is something I have been curious about: do I need to order which graphics get drawn? I know that when using OpenGL via C/C++ it is best to make sure that the same graphic is drawn in all the locations it needs to be drawn at once to reduce the number of times the current texture needs to be switch. From what I have read, it seems as if Java will take care of this for me and make sure things are drawn in the most optimal fashion, but again, nothing has ever said anything like this clearly. 5) What AWT/Swing classes support hardware acceleration, and which ones should be used? I am currently using a class that extends JFrame to create a window, and adding a Canvas to it from which I create a BufferStrategy. Is this good practice, or is there some other type of way I should be implementing this? Thank you very much for your time, and I hope I provided clear questions and enough information for you to answer my several questions.

  Read the article

• Having Many Problems with Jquery UI 1.8.1 Dialog.js

  - by chobo2

  Hi I been using the jquery ui for quite a while now. This is the first time using 1.8 though and I am not sure why but it seems to me this plugin has taken steps backwards. I never had so much difficulty to use the Jquery UI as I am having now. First the documentation is out of date. Dependencies * UI Core * UI Draggable (Optional) * UI Resizable (Optional) After line 20mins of trying and getting error after error (like dialog is not a function) I realized that you need some other javascript file called "widget.js" So now I have Jquery 1.4.2.js UI Core.js UI Widget.js UI Dialog.js all on my page. I then did something like this $('#Delete').click(function () { var dialogId = "DeleteDialogBox"; var createdDialog = MakeDialogBox(dialogId, "Delete Conformation"); $('#tabConent').after(createdDialog); dialogId = String.format('#{0}', dialogId); $(dialogId).dialog({ resizable: true, height: 500, width: 500, modal: true, buttons: { 'Delete all items': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, Cancel: function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); }); function MakeDialogBox(id, title) { var dialog = String.format('<div id="{0}" title="{1}"></div>', id, title); return dialog; } Now what this should be doing is it makes a where the dialog box should go. After that it should put it right after my tabs. So when watching it with firebug it does this. However once does the .dialog() method it moves the + all the stuff it generates and puts it after my footer. So now I have my dialog box under my footer tucked away in the bottom right hand corner. I want it dead in the center. In previous versions I don't think it mattered where the dialog code was on your page it would always be dead center. So what am I missing? The center.js(I don't know if this exists but seems like you need 100 javascript files now to get this to work proper).

  Read the article

• Event Listener in Google Charts API

  - by DeanGrobler

  I'm busy using Google Charts in one of my projects to display data in a table. Everything is working great. Except that I need to see what line a user selected once they click a button. This would obviously be done with Javascript, but I've been struggling for days now to no avail. Below I've pasted code for a simple example of the table, and the Javascript function that I want to use (that doesn't work). <html> <head> <script type='text/javascript' src='https://www.google.com/jsapi'></script> <script type='text/javascript'> google.load('visualization', '1', {packages:['table']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawTable); var table = ""; function drawTable() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string', 'Name'); data.addColumn('number', 'Salary'); data.addColumn('boolean', 'Full Time Employee'); data.addRows(4); data.setCell(0, 0, 'Mike'); data.setCell(0, 1, 10000, '$10,000'); data.setCell(0, 2, true); data.setCell(1, 0, 'Jim'); data.setCell(1, 1, 8000, '$8,000'); data.setCell(1, 2, false); data.setCell(2, 0, 'Alice'); data.setCell(2, 1, 12500, '$12,500'); data.setCell(2, 2, true); data.setCell(3, 0, 'Bob'); data.setCell(3, 1, 7000, '$7,000'); data.setCell(3, 2, true); table = new google.visualization.Table(document.getElementById('table_div')); table.draw(data, {showRowNumber: true}); } function selectionHandler() { selectedData = table.getSelection(); row = selectedData[0].row; item = table.getValue(row,0); alert("You selected :" + item); } </script> </head> <body> <div id='table_div'></div> <input type="button" value="Select" onClick="selectionHandler()"> </body> </html> Thanks in advance for anyone taking the time to look at this. I've honestly tried my best with this, hope someone out there can help me out a bit.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798 799 800 801 802  | Next Page >