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• Any teams out there using TypeMock? Is it worth the hefty price tag?

  - by dferraro

  Hi, I hope this question is not 'controversial' - I'm just basically asking - has anyone here purchased TypeMock and been happy (or unhappy) with the results? We are a small dev shop of only 12 developers including the 2 dev managers. We've been using NMock so far but there are limitations. I have done research and started playing with TypeMock and I love it. It's super clean syntax and lets you basically mock everything, which is great for legacy code. The problem is - how do I justify to my boss spending 800-1200$ per license for an API which has 4-5 competitors that are completly free? 800-1200$ is how much Infragistrics or Telerik cost per license - and there sure as hell isn't 4-5 open source comparable UI frameworks... Which is why I find it a bit overpriced, albeit an awesome library... Any opinions / experiences are greatly appreciated. EDIT: after finding MOQ I thought I fell in love - until I found out that it's not fully supported in VB.NET because VB lacks lambda sub routines =(. Is anyone using MOQ for VB.NET? The problem is we are a mixed shop - we use C# for our CRM development and VB for everything else. Any guidence is greatly appreciated again

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• Access 2007 DAO VBA Error 3381 causes objects in calling methods to "break".

  - by MT

  ---AFTER FURTHER INVESTIGATION--- "tblABC" in the below example must be a linked table (to another Access database). If "tblABC" is in the same database as the code then the problem does not occur. Hi, We have recently upgraded to Office 2007. We have a method in which we have an open recordset (DAO). We then call another sub (UpdatingSub below) that executes SQL. This method has its own error handler. If error 3381 is encountered then the recordset in the calling method becomes "unset" and we get error 3420 'Object invalid or no longer set'. Other errors in UpdatingSub do not cause the same problem. This code works fine in Access 2003. Private Sub Whatonearth() Dim rs As dao.Recordset set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("tblLinkedABC") Debug.Print rs.RecordCount UpdatingSub "ALTER TABLE tblTest DROP Column ColumnNotThere" 'Error 3240 occurs on the below line even though err 3381 is trapped in the calling procedure 'This appears to be because error 3381 is encountered when calling UpdatingSub above Debug.Print rs.RecordCount End Sub Private Sub WhatonearthThatWorks() Dim rs As dao.Recordset set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("tblLinkedABC") Debug.Print rs.RecordCount 'Change the update to generate a different error UpdatingSub "NONSENSE SQL STATEMENT" 'Error is trapped in UpdatingSub. Next line works fine. Debug.Print rs.RecordCount End Sub Private Sub UpdatingSub(strSQL As String) On Error GoTo ErrHandler: CurrentDb.Execute strSQL ErrHandler: 'LogError' End Sub Any thoughts? We are running Office Access 2007 (12.0.6211.1000) SP1 MSO (12.0.6425.1000). Perhaps see if SP2 can be distributed? Sorry about formatting - not sure how to fix that.

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• ASP.NET RangeValidator can't do even the most basic math !?!?!?

  - by marc_s

  I'm having an issue with my ASP.NET RangeValidator controls. I want to allow users to enter a discount amount, and this amount must be negative (< $0.00). I want to verify that the amount entered in a textbox is a negative value, so I have this in my page markup: <asp:TextBox ID="tbxDiscount" runat="server" /> <asp:RangeValidator ID="rvDiscount" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tbxDiscount" MinimumValue="0.0" MaximumValue="0.0" EnableClientScript="true" ErrorMessage="Please enter a negative value for a discount" /> and I attempt to set the MinimumValue dynamically in my code before the page gets rendered - to the negative equivalent of my item price. So if the item is $69, I want to set the minimum value to - $69: rvDiscount.MinimumValue = (-1.0m * Price).ToString(); Trouble is: I keep getting this error message: The maximum value 0.0 cannot be less than the minimum value -69.00 for rvDiscount WTF?!?!??! Where I come from, -69 $ IS less than $0 ...... so what's the problem? And more importantly: what is the solution to the problem??

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• Qt Creator CONFIG (debug, release) switches does NOT work

  - by killdaclick

  Problem: CONFIG(debug,debug|release) and CONFIG(release,deubg|release) are always evaluated wherever debug or release is choosen in Qt Creator 2.8.1 for Linux. My configuration in Qt Creator application (stock - default for new project): Projects->Build Settings->Debug Build Steps: qmake build configuration: Debug Effective qmake call: qmake2 proj.pro -r -spec linux-gnueabi-oe-g++ CONFIG+=debug Projects->Build Settings->Release Build Steps: qmake build configuration: Release Effective qmake call: qmake2 proj.pro -r -spec linux-gnueabi-oe-g++ My configuration in proj.pro: message(Variable CONFIG:) message($$CONFIG) CONFIG(debug,debug|release) { message(Debug build) } CONFIG(release,debug|release) { message(Release build) } Output on console for Debug: Project MESSAGE: Variable CONFIG: Project MESSAGE: lex yacc warn_on debug uic resources warn_on release incremental link_prl no_mocdepend release stl qt_no_framework debug console Project MESSAGE: Debug build Project MESSAGE: Release build Output on console for Release: Project MESSAGE: Variable CONFIG: Project MESSAGE: lex yacc warn_on uic resources warn_on release incremental link_prl no_mocdepend release stl qt_no_framework console Project MESSAGE: Debug build Project MESSAGE: Release build Under Windows 7 I didnt experienced any problem with such .pro configuration and it worked fine. I was desperate and modified .pro file: CONFIG = test message(Variable CONFIG:) message($$CONFIG) CONFIG(debug,debug|release) { message(Debug build) } CONFIG(release,debug|release) { message(Release build) } and I was suprised with the output: Project MESSAGE: Variable CONFIG: Project MESSAGE: test Project MESSAGE: Debug build Project MESSAGE: Release build so even if I completly clean CONFIG variable it still see debug and release configuration. What Im doing wrong?

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• Dynamic Control loading at wrong time?

  - by Telos

  This one is a little... odd. Basically I have a form I'm building using ASP.NET Dynamic Data, which is going to utilize several custom field templates. I've just added another field to the FormView, with it's own custom template, and the form is loading that control twice for no apparent reason. Worse yet, the first time it loads the template, the Row is not ready yet and I get the error message: {"Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control."} I'm accessing the Row variable in a LinqDataSource OnSelected event in order to get the child object... Now for the wierd part: If I reorder the fields a little, the one causing the problem no longer gets loaded twice. Any thoughts? EDIT: I've noticed that Page_Load gets called on the first load (when Row throws an exception if you try to use it) but does NOT get called the second time around. If that helps any... Right now managing it by just catching and ignoring the exception, but still a little worried that things will break if I don't find the real cause. EDIT 2: I've traced the problem to using FindControl recursively to find other controls on the page. Apparently FindControl can cause the page lifecycle events (at least up to page_load) to fire... and this occurs before that page "should" be loading so it's dynamic data "stuff" isn't ready yet.

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• Parallel.Foreach loop creating multiple db connections throws connection errors?

  - by shawn.mek

  Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication I wanted to get my code running in parallel, so I changed my foreach loop to a parallel foreach loop. It seemed simple enough. Each loop connects to the database, looks up some stuff, performs some logic, adds some stuff, closes the connection. But I get the above error? I'm using my local sql server and entity framework (each loop uses it's own context). Is there some problem with connecting multiple times using the same local login or something? How did I get around this? I have (before trying to covert to a parallel.foreach loop) split my list of objects that I am foreach looping through into four groups (separate csv files) and run four concurrent instances of my program (which ran faster overall than just one, thus the idea for parallel). So it seems connecting to the db shouldn't be a problem? Any ideas? EDIT: Here's before var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); ForEach(cloneIdAndAccessions in allAccessionsFromObs) DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); after var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); Parallel.ForEach(allAccessionsFromObs, cloneIdAndAccessions => DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); Inside the DoWork I use the BioEntities using (var bioEntities = new BioEntities(connectionString)) {...}

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• MsSql Server high Resource Waits and Head Blocker

  - by MartinHN

  Hi I have a MS SQL Server 2008 Standard installation running a database for a webshop. The current size of the database is 2.5 GB. Running on Windows 2008 Standard. Dual Intel Xeon X5355 @ 2.00 GHz. 4 GB RAM. When I open the Activity Monitor, I see that I have a Wait Time (ms/sec) of 5000 in the "Other" category. In the Processes list, all connections from the webshop, the Head Blocker value is 1. I see every day that when I try to access the website, it can take 20-30 secs before it even starts to "work". I know that it is not network latency. (I have a 301 redirect from the same server that is executed instantly). When the first request has been served, it seems as if it's not a sleep anymore and every subsequent request is served instantly with the speed of light. The problem was worse two weeks ago, until I changed every query to include WITH (NOLOCK). But I still experience the problem, and the Wait times in the Activity Monitor is about the same. The largest table (Images) has 32764 rows (448576 KB). Some tables exceed 300000 rows, thought they're much smaller in size than the Images table. I have the default clustered index for every primary key column, only. Any ideas?

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• PHP on Ubuntu autoload_register and namespacing issue

  - by Tian Loon

  I have a problem here. I have created the namespace for all classes. previously i was using windows 7 to develop current app, everything is fine. now i just moved to ubuntu, the problem comes. index.php spl_autoload_extensions(".php"); /*spl_autoload_register(function ($class) { require __DIR__ . '/../' . $class . '.php'; });*/ //provided i have tried the above method, which works on windows 7 but not Ubuntu spl_autoload_register(function ($class) { require '/../' . $class . '.php'; }); //for your info, i do this //require "../resources/library/Config.php"; //it works, no error use resources\library as LIB; use resources\dal as DAL; //instantiation $config = new LIB\Config(); print_r($config->fbKey()); i got this error PHP Warning: require(../resources\\library\\Config.php): failed to open stream: No such file or directory in /home/user/dir1/dir2/index.php i cannot find the error. hope you guys can help me with this. any question don hesitate to comment i will edit. thanks in advance. UPDATE - Extra Info PHP version 5.4.6 LATEST UPDATE any idea how to solve this without using str_replace ?

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• Symfony2 Theming form generated by embedded controller action

  - by user1112057

  I am generating the form in embedded controller action. And now i have faced the following problem. The Form Theming is not working in that case. So what i have: The tempalte "page.html.twig" {% block content %} {% render 'MyBundle:Widget:index' %} {% endblock %} The indexAction() creates the form and rendering another template "form.html.twig" which is normally renders a form using form_row, form_rest and so on. So, now i am trying to customize form theming, and here is my problem. When i put the code {% form_theme form _self %} in the page.html.twig, i got an error the the form variable does not exists. And its correct, the form var is created later in the embedded controller. But when i put the theming code in embedded template "form.html.twig", i got another error "Variable "compound" does not exist" {% block form_label %} {% spaceless %} {% if not compound %} {% set label_attr = label_attr|merge({'for': id}) %} {% endif %} {% if required %} {% set label_attr = label_attr|merge({'class': (label_attr.class|default('') ~ ' required')|trim}) %} {% endif %} {% if label is empty %} {% set label = name|humanize %} {% endif %} <label{% for attrname, attrvalue in label_attr %} {{ attrname }}="{{ attrvalue }}"{% endfor %} {% if attr.tooltip is defined %}title="{{ attr.tooltip }}"{% endif %}>{{ label|trans({}, translation_domain) }}{% if required %}<span>*</span>{% endif %}</label> {% endspaceless %} {% endblock form_label %} This part of code was copied from this file https://github.com/symfony/symfony/blob/2.1/src/Symfony/Bridge/Twig/Resources/views/Form/form_div_layout.html.twig So tried someone to do something like this?

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• Using SetParent to steal the main window of another process but keeping the message loops separate

  - by insta

  Background: My coworker and I are maintaining a million-line legacy application we inherited. Its frontend is written in VB6, and as we're devoting almost all of our resources to converting it to C#, we are looking for quick & dirty solutions to our specific problem. The application behaves in a plugin-ish manner. There are up to 20ish separate ActiveX controls that can be loaded at once in a grid-style layout. The problem is that the ActiveX controls do all of their processing on their own UI thread, and as a lot of it is blocking waiting on network access, the UI gets very soupy. When our hosting C# app loads these controls, it becomes unresponsive because of how many controls are chewing up UI resources doing nothing. To top it off, the controls are fragile and will crash at the slightest provocation. When they are hosted in the main C# app, it creates serious instability. The best my coworker and I have come up with so far is starting a process per ActiveX control. This process, which we call the proxy, is another winforms app. It uses named pipes to communicate with the hosting process. The hosting process creates a window, loads an ActiveX control of our choice (via some reflections & AxHost magic), and tells the main process what its window handle is via the named pipe. The main process uses a combination of SetParent, and SetWindowPos to move the proxy application into itself to emulate a plugin. Size updates are sent via the named pipe. This works well enough until the ActiveX application does some sort of lengthy process and we click around on the main window while it's working. For awhile the main window is responsive, but eventually it becomes unresponsive as the child window waits for its UI thread. How can we keep the child windows on their own complete thread while still getting the benefits of SetParent? (please let me know if anything isn't clear!)

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• How to store an inventory using hashtables?

  - by Harm De Weirdt

  Hello everyone. For an assignment in collego we have to make a script in Perl that allows us to manage an inventory for an e-store. (The example given was Amazon) Users can make orders in a fully text-based environment and the inventory must be updated when an order is completed. Every item in the inventory has 3 to 4 attributes: a product code, a title, a price and for some an amount (MP3's for example do not have this attribute) Since this is my first encounter with Perl, i don't really know how to start. My main problem is how i should "implement" the inventory in the program. One of the functions of the program is searching trough the titles. Another is to make an order, where the user should give a product code. My first idea was a hashtable with the productcode as key. But if i wanted to search in the titles that could be a problem because of this: the hashkey would be something like DVD-123, the information belonging to that key could be "The Green Mask 12" (without the ") where the 12 indicates how many of this DVD are currently in stock. So i'd have to find a way to ignore the 12 in the end. Another solution was to use the title as Hashkey, but that would prove cumbersome too I think. Is there a way to make a hashtable with 2 key's, and when I give only one it returns an array with the other values? (Including the other key and the other information) That way I could use another key depending on what info I need from my inventory. We have to read the default inventory from a txt file looking like this: MP3-72|Lady Gaga - Kiss and Run (Fear of Commitment Monster)|0.99 CD-400|Kings of Leon - Only By The Night|14.50|2 MP3-401|Kings of Leon - Closer|0.85 DVD-144|Live Free or Die Hard|14.99|2 SOFT-864|Windows Vista|49.95 Any help would be appreciated very much :) PS: I am sorry for my bad grammar, English isn't my native language.

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• MS CRM 4.0 Remove inactive account from another list

  - by Ekaterina

  Hi, I have the following problem, on which I can't seem to find an answer... I have a CRM 4.0 system and I want to achieve the following: When I have a contact/account that's inactive to remove it from another list, for example the Marketing list. So I already have everything, up to the removing part. I have a collection with the inactive accounts/contacts (The ID's(GUID)), I just need to remove somehow the member from the list. So there is a class RemoveMemberListRequest which looks like the correct one, the only problem is, somehow I can't get it to work. foreach (Guid currentMember in inactiveMembers) { RemoveMemberListRequest req = new RemoveMemberListRequest(); req.ListId = context.PrimaryEntityId; req.EntityId = currentMember ; RemoveMemberListResponse rmlResp = (RemoveMemberListResponse)crmService.Execute(req); } When It tries to Execute, the request it fails, with very generic error, that it was unable to execute the request. I am also not sure if that's the correct way of doing it... There is another class that seems to have a property that might be useful: QualifyMemberListRequest With property: OverrideorRemove But I don't really understand how this one works, and I couldn't find enough information. Anybody?

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• UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

  - by prd

  Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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• Message driven bean not responding until client method is complete

  - by poijoi

  Hi, I have a MDB deployed on Jboss 4.2.2 and a client on the same server that produces messages and expects a reply from the MDB via a temporary queue created before the message is sent. When I run the client, I see that it creates the message, puts it in the queue and waits for the reply (no problem so far) ... but when I check in the logs I see that the timeout is reached and no response is received. When the timeout occurs and the client's method is complete the MDB starts processing the message that should have been processed the moment the client put it in the queue. As a consequence of this timing issue, when the MDB tries to reply to the temp queue, it fails since the client is already gone. If I run the same client from a remote server, I have no problem... The MDB picks up the message from the queue right away and the client receives its response right after the processing is complete. I'm using container managed transactions. I suspect it has something to do with that... I think the client's "send message/receive reply" might be all be considered a transaction before it commits to put the message in the queue... but I'm not sure if this is correct. If this is the case, why did I not see the same behavior from the remote client? is client managed transaction the default setting and that's what my remote server was using? Any idea how to fix this? Thanks in advance! PJ

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• vb.net inline IF with OR... not evaluating

  - by rockinthesixstring

  I'm working on a small problem where I'm trying to show/hide a panel based on two criteria A specific data field must not be blank The specific data filed must also not equal "Not Relocatable" Unfortunately this doesn't seem to be working for me (note that setting either one or the other criteria works just fine.) <asp:Panel runat="server" Visible='<%#If(Not String.IsNullOrEmpty(DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "_236")) Or Not DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "_236") = "Not Relocatable", True, False)%>'> <tr> <td> </td> <td class="align-right lightgreen"> Buyer would consider relocating a business, if it is: </td> <td> </td> <td colspan="3"> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "_236")%> </td> <td> </td> </tr> </asp:Panel> Can anyone lend a hand to rectify this problem for me?

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• What is the preferred way in C++ for converting a builtin type (int) to bool?

  - by Martin

  When programming with Visual C++, I think every developer is used to see the warning warning C4800: 'BOOL' : forcing value to bool 'true' or 'false' from time to time. The reason obviously is that BOOL is defined as int and directly assigning any of the built-in numerical types to bool is considered a bad idea. So my question is now, given any built-in numerical type (int, short, ...) that is to be interpreted as a boolean value, what is the/your preferred way of actually storing that value into a variable of type bool? Note: While mixing BOOL and bool is probably a bad idea, I think the problem will inevitably pop up whether on Windows or somewhere else, so I think this question is neither Visual-C++ nor Windows specific. Given int nBoolean; I prefer this style: bool b = nBoolean?true:false; The following might be alternatives: bool b = !!nBoolean; bool b = (nBoolean != 0); Is there a generally preferred way? Rationale? I should add: Since I only work with Visual-C++ I cannot really say if this is a VC++ specific question or if the same problem pops up with other compilers. So it would be interesting to specifically hear from g++ or users how they handle the int-bool case. Regarding Standard C++: As David Thornley notes in a comment, the C++ Standard does not require this behavior. In fact it seems to explicitly allow this, so one might consider this a VC++ weirdness. To quote the N3029 draft (which is what I have around atm.): 4.12 Boolean conversions [conv.bool] A prvalue of arithmetic, unscoped enumeration, pointer, or pointer to member type can be converted to a prvalue of type bool. A zero value, null pointer value, or null member pointer value is converted to false; any other value is converted to true. (...)

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• Dynamically adding controls from an Event after Page_Init

  - by GenericTypeTea

  Might seem like a daft title as you shouldn't add dynamic controls after Page_Init if you want to maintain ViewState, but I couldn't think of a better way of explaining the problem. I have a class similar to the following: public class WebCustomForm : WebControl, IScriptControl { internal CustomRender Content { get { object content = this.Page.Session[this.SESSION_CONTENT_TRACKER]; return content as CustomRender; } private set { this.Page.Session[this.SESSION_CONTENT_TRACKER] = value; } } } CustomRender is an abstract class that implements ITemplate that I use to self-contain a CustomForms module I'm in the middle of writing. On the Page_Init of the page that holds the WebCustomForm, I Initialise the control by passing the relevant Ids to it. Then on the overridden OnInit method of the WebCustomForm I call the Instantiate the CustomRender control that's currently active: if (this.Content != null) { this.Content.InstantiateIn(this); } The problem is that my CustomRender controls need the ability to change the CustomRender control of the WebCustomForm. But when the events that fire on the CustomRender fire, the Page_Init event has obviously already gone off. So, my question is, how can I change the content of the WebCustomForm from a dynamically added control within it? The way I see it, I have two options: I separate the CustomRender controls out into their own stand alone control and basically have an aspx page per control and handle the events myself on the page (although I was hoping to just make a control I drop on the page and forget about) I don't use events and just keep requesting the current page, but with different Request Parameters Or I go back to the drawing board with any better suggetions anyone can give me.

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• high cpu in IIS

  - by Miki Watts

  Hi all. I'm developing a POS application that has a local database on each POS computer, and communicates with the server using WCF hosted in IIS. The application has been deployed in several customers for over a year now. About a week ago, we've started getting reports from one of our customers that the server that the IIS is hosted on is very slow. When I've checked the issue, I saw the application pool with my process rocket to almost 100% cpu on an 8 cpu server. I've checked the SQL Activity Monitor and network volume, and they showed no significant overload beyond what we usually see. When checking the threads in Process Explorer, I saw lots of threads repeatedly calling CreateApplicationContext. I've tried installing .Net 2.0 SP1, according to some posts I found on the net, but it didn't solve the problem and replaced the function calls with CLRCreateManagedInstance. I'm about to capture a dump using adplus and windbg of the IIS processes and try to figure out what's wrong. Has anyone encountered something like this or has an idea which directory I should check ? p.s. The same version of the application is deployed in another customer, and there it works just fine. I also tried rolling back versions (even very old versions) and it still behaves exactly the same. Edit: well, problem solved, turns out I've had an SQL query in there that didn't limit the result set, and when the customer went over a certain number of rows, it started bogging down the server. Took me two days to find it, because of all the surrounding noise in the logs, but I waited for the night and took a dump then, which immediately showed me the query.

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• Different EF Property DataType than Storage Layer Possible?

  - by dj_kyron

  Hi, I am putting together a WCF Data Service for PatientEntities using Entity Framework. My solution needs to address these requirements: Property DateOfBirth of entity Patient is stored in SQL Server as string. It would be ideal if the entity class did not also use the "string" type but rather a DateTime type. (I would expect this to be possible since we're abstracting away from the storage layer). Where could a conversion mechanism be put in place that would convert to and from DateTime/string so that the entity and SQL Server are in sync?. I cannot change the storage layer's structure, so I have to work around it. WCF Data Services (Read-only, so no need for saving changes) need to be used since clients will be able to use LINQ expressions to consume the service. They can generate results based on any given query scenario they need and not be constrained by a single method such as GetPatient(int ID). I've tried to use DTOs, but run into problem of mapping the ObjectContext to a DTO, I don't think that is theoretically possible...or too complicated if it is. I've tried to use Self Tracking Entities but they require the metadata from the .edmx file if I'm correct, and this isn't allowing a different property data type. I also want to add customizations to my Entity getter methods so that a property "MRN" of type "string" needs to have .Replace("MR~", string.Empty) performed before it is returned. I can add this to the getter methods but the problem with that is Entity Framework will overwrite that next time it refreshes the entity classes. Is there a permanent place I can put these? Should I use POCO instead? How would that work with WCF Data Services? Where would the service grab the metadata?

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• CakePHP: Missing database table

  - by Justin

  I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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• Animated transitions in WPF

  - by arconaut

  I can't figure out what I'm missing here. Here's the problem: Consider a (Control|Data)Template with a Trigger that switches visibility of some inner UI elements. E.g. show a TextBlock when IsReadOnly==true and show a TextBox when IsReadOnly==false. Everything is perfect if you do this without animation - one or two setters would do the job. But what if you want a fancy animation? Then you would specify which animations to start in EnterActions and ExitActions. But the problem is what exactly the animations should do? Modifying width/height seems really ugly, because fixed sizes in WPF are almost always a wrong way to go and also it's absolutely unflexible. So far, the best I've come up with is modifying MaxHeight/MaxWidth to some extent, this gives just a little more flexibility but still seems brutal. How do you tell WPF to animate Width/Height of an element from 0 to "as much as needed"? UPD: Currently I do animate Opacity and RenderTransform, and it works. It's just that sometimes I'd like to see animations where elements slide around without transformation. This is not a critical question, but a quite interesting one for me.

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• sorting a timer in matlab

  - by AP

  ok it seems like a simple problem, but i am having problem I have a timer for each data set which resets improperly and as a result my timing gets mixed. Any ideas to correct it? without losing any data. Example timer col ideally should be timer , mine reads 1 3 2 4 3 5 4 6 5 1 6 2 how do i change the colum 2 or make a new colum which reads like colum 1 without changing the order of ther rows which have data this is just a example as my file lengths are 86000 long , also i have missing timers which i do not want to miss , this imples no data for that period of time. thanks EDIT: I do not want to change the other columns. The coulm 1 is the gps counter and so it does not sync with the comp timer due to some other issues. I just want to change the row one such that it goes from high to low without effecting other rows. also take care of missing pts ( if i did not care for missing pts simple n=1: max would work.

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• Increment part of a string in Ruby

  - by Rik

  I have a method in a Ruby script that is attempting to rename files before they are saved. It looks like this: def increment (path) if path[-3,2] == "_#" print " Incremented file with that name already exists, renaming\n" count = path[-1].chr.to_i + 1 return path.chop! << count.to_s else print " A file with that name already exists, renaming\n" return path << "_#1" end end Say you have 3 files with the same name being saved to a directory, we'll say the file is called example.mp3. The idea is that the first will be saved as example.mp3 (since it won't be caught by if File.exists?("#{file_path}.mp3") elsewhere in the script), the second will be saved as example_#1.mp3 (since it is caught by the else part of the above method) and the third as example_#2.mp3 (since it is caught by the if part of the above method). The problem I have is twofold. 1) if path[-3,2] == "_#" won't work for files with an integer of more than one digit (example_#11.mp3 for example) since the character placement will be wrong (you'd need it to be path[-4,2] but then that doesn't cope with 3 digit numbers etc). 2) I'm never reaching problem 1) since the method doesn't reliably catch file names. At the moment it will rename the first to example_#1.mp3 but the second gets renamed to the same thing (causing it to overwrite the previously saved file). This is possibly too vague for Stack Overflow but I can't find anything that addresses the issue of incrementing a certain part of a string. Thanks in advance!

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• How to create instances of a class from a static method?

  - by Pierre

  Hello. Here is my problem. I have created a pretty heavy readonly class making many database calls with a static "factory" method. The goal of this method is to avoid killing the database by looking in a pool of already-created objects if an identical instance of the same object (same type, same init parameters) already exists. If something was found, the method will just return it. No problem. But if not, how may I create an instance of the object, in a way that works with inheritance? >>> class A(Object): >>> @classmethod >>> def get_cached_obj(self, some_identifier): >>> # Should do something like `return A(idenfier)`, but in a way that works >>> class B(A): >>> pass >>> A.get_cached_obj('foo') # Should do the same as A('foo') >>> A().get_cached_obj('foo') # Should do the same as A('foo') >>> B.get_cached_obj('bar') # Should do the same as B('bar') >>> B().get_cached_obj('bar') # Should do the same as B('bar') Thanks.

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• How do I get rid of these warnings?

  - by Brian Postow

  This is really several questions, but anyway... I'm working with a big project in XCode, relatively recently ported from MetroWorks (Yes, really) and there's a bunch of warnings that I want to get rid of. Every so often an IMPORTANT warning comes up, but I never look at them because there's too many garbage ones. So, if I can either figure out how to get XCode to stop giving the warning, or actually fix the problem, that would be great. Here are the warnings: It claims that <map.h> is antiquated. However, when I replace it with <map> my files don't compile. Evidently, there's something in map.h that isn't in map... this decimal constant is unsigned only in ISO C90 This is a large number being compared to an unsigned long. I have even cast it, with no effect. enumeral mismatch in conditional expression: <anonymous enum> vs <anonymous enum> This appears to be from a ?: operator. Possibly that the then and else branches don't evaluate to the same type? Except that in at least one case, it's (matchVp == NULL ? noErr : dupFNErr) And since those are both of type OSErr, which is mac defined... I'm not sure what's up. It also seems to come up when I have other pairs of mac constants... multi-character character constant This one is obvious. The problem is that I actually NEED multi-character constants... -fwritable-strings not compatible with literal CF/NSString I unchecked the "Strings are Read-Only" box in both the project and target settings... and it seems to have had no effect...

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