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  • JavaScript keeps returning ambigious error

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    this is my function (with other lines ive tried/abandoned)... function DoClicked(eNumber) { //obj.style = 'bgcolor: maroon'; var eid = 'cat' + eNumber; //$get(obj).style.backgroundColor = 'maroon'; //var nObj = $get(obj); var nObj = document.getElementById(eid) //alert(nObj.getAttribute("style")); nObj.style.backgroundColor = 'Maroon'; alert(nObj.style.backgroundColor); //nObj.setAttribute("style", "backgroundcolor: Maroon"); }; This error keeps getting returned even after the last line in the function runs: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.ArgumentUndefinedException: Value cannot be undefined. Parameter name: method this function is called with an "OnSuccess" set in my Ajax.ActionLink call (ASP.NET MVC)... anyone any ideas on this? i have these referenced... even when i remove the 'debug' versions for normal versions, i still get an error but the error just has much less information and says 'b' is undefined (probably a ms js library internal variable)... <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> also, this is how i am calling the actionlink method: Ajax.ActionLink(item.CategoryName, "SubCategoryList", "Home", New With {.CategoryID = item.CategoryID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "SubCat", .HttpMethod = "Post", .OnSuccess = "DoClicked(" & item.CategoryID.ToString & ")"}, New With {.id = "cat" & item.CategoryID.ToString})

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  • are there code signing certificates cheaper than US $99 per year? [closed]

    - by gerryLowry
    ksoftware discounts Commodo code signing certificates to US $99 per year. in the past, I've seen Commodo code signing certificates for US $80. I'm excluding CAcert which AFAIK are FREE but are not covered by browsers like IE AFAIK. QUESTION: What is the best price per year for a code signing certificate? Thank you ~~ gerry (lowry) Edit: **THIS SHOULD NOT HAVE BEEN CLOSED** from the FAQ: http://stackoverflow.com/faq ---------------------------- What kind of questions can I ask here? Programming questions, of course! As long as your question is: * detailed and specific <====== YES! * written clearly and simply <====== YES! * of interest to other programmers <====== YES! I've been programming for over 40 years. http://gerrylowryprogrammer.com/ I've taught computer programming at the community college level. I'm a Star level contributer to forums.asp.net. http://forums.asp.net/members/gerrylowry.aspx imo, I've a very good idea what is of interest to other programmers. MORE INFORMATION Ensuring the integrity of code and executables that one distributes is just as much about programming as is knowing how to flip bits in assembler, use delegates in c#, and use the BDD context/specification still of "test first testing".

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  • paypal express checkout integration in asp classic

    - by Noam Smadja
    i am trying to figure this out for almost a week now.. with no success.. i am coding in ASP and would love to receive some help. i am following the steps from paypal wizard here: https://www.paypal-labs.com/integrationwizard/ecpaypal/code.php i am collecting all the information on my website i just want to pass it to paypal when the buyer clicks checkout. so i pointed the checkout form to expresschackout.asp as pointed in the wizard. but when i click on the paypal button i get a white page with nothing. no errors no nothing. it just hangs there on expresscheckout.asp shopping cart: ..code showing a review of the shopping cart.. ..i saved the total amount into SESSION("Payment_Amount").. <form action='cart/expresscheckout.asp' METHOD='POST'> <input type='image' name='submit' src='https://www.paypal.com/en_US/i/btn/btn_xpressCheckout.gif' border='0' align='top' alt='Check out with PayPal'/> </form>

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  • Getting entitlement warning while building an Ad Hoc Distribution Bundle for an Iphone App.

    - by nefsu
    I followed Apple's instructions on how to create an Ad Hoc Distrubution bundle but I keep getting what appears to be a fatal Warning during the build process. As per the instructions, I set the signing identity to my distribution profile at the target (instead of the project), created my Entitlement.plist file and unchecked get-task-allow, linked this file to my target and run the build in distribution for device mode. When I do that, the build completes successful but only after giving the following warning. [WARN]CodeSign warning: entitlements are not applicable for product type 'Application' in SDK 'Device - iPhone OS 3.1.2'; ignoring... The last step in the build is the CodeSign and I've noticed that although it ran without errors, it's missing the --entitlement command line option that is given on the official apple instruction guide. Here is my CodeSign line /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: My Name" --resource-rules=/Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app/ResourceRules.plist /Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app And here is apple's screen shot of what's expected. Can someone please help me figure out if this is something I'm doing wrong because much to my dismay even the dev forum at apple has very little information on this CodeSign warning.

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  • Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

    - by Danny Douglass
    I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

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  • What is the best software design to use in this scenario

    - by domdefelice
    I need to generate HTML snippets using jQuery. The creation of those snippets depends on some data. The data is stored server-side, in session (where PHP is used). At the moment I achieved this - retrieving the data from the server via AJAX in form of JSON - and building the snippets via specific javascript functions that read those data The problem is that the complexity of the data is getting bigger and hence the serialization into JSON is getting even more difficult since I can't do it automatically. I can't do it automatically because some information are sensible so I generate a "stripped" version to send to the client. I know it is difficult to understand without any code to read, but I am hoping this is a common scenario and would be glad for any tip, suggestion or even design-pattern you can give me. Should I store both a complete and a stripped data on the server and then use some library to automatically generate the JSON from the stripped data? But this also means I have to get the two data synchronized. Or maybe I could move the logic server-side, this way avoiding sending the data. But this means sending javascript code (since I rely on jQuery). Maybe not a good idea. Feel free to ask me more details if this is not clear. Thank you for any help

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  • How to delay static initialization within a property

    - by Mystagogue
    I've made a class that is a cross between a singleton (fifth version) and a (dependency injectable) factory. Call this a "Mono-Factory?" It works, and looks like this: public static class Context { public static BaseLogger LogObject = null; public static BaseLogger Log { get { return LogFactory.instance; } } class LogFactory { static LogFactory() { } internal static readonly BaseLogger instance = LogObject ?? new BaseLogger(null, null, null); } } //USAGE EXAMPLE: //Optional initialization, done once when the application launches... Context.LogObject = new ConLogger(); //Example invocation used throughout the rest of code... Context.Log.Write("hello", LogSeverity.Information); The idea is for the mono-factory could be expanded to handle more than one item (e.g. more than a logger). But I would have liked to have made the mono-factory look like this: public static class Context { private static BaseLogger LogObject = null; public static BaseLogger Log { get { return LogFactory.instance; } set { LogObject = value; } } class LogFactory { static LogFactory() { } internal static readonly BaseLogger instance = LogObject ?? new BaseLogger(null, null, null); } } The above does not work, because the moment the Log property is touched (by a setter invocation) it causes the code path related to the getter to be executed...which means the internal LogFactory "instance" data is always set to the BaseLogger (setting the "LogObject" is always too late!). So is there a decoration or other trick I can use that would cause the "get" path of the Log property to be lazy while the set path is being invoked?

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  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

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  • Mac CoreLocation Services does not ask for permissions

    - by Ryan Nichols
    I'm writing a Mac App that needs to use CoreLocation services. The code and location works fine, as long as I manually authenticate the service inside the security preference pane. However the framework is not automatically popping up with a permission dialog. The documentation states: Important The user has the option of denying an application’s access to the location service data. During its initial uses by an application, the Core Location framework prompts the user to confirm that using the location service is acceptable. If the user denies the request, the CLLocationManager object reports an appropriate error to its delegate during future requests. I do get an error to my delegate, and the value of +locationServicesEnabled is correct on CLLocationManager. The only part missing is the prompt to the user about permissions. This occurs on my development MPB and a friends MBP. Neither of us can figure out whats wrong. Has anyone run into this? Relevant code: _locationManager = [CLLocationManager new]; [_locationManager setDelegate:self]; [_locationManager setDesiredAccuracy:kCLLocationAccuracyKilometer]; ... [_locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; UPDATE: Answer It seems there is a problem with Sandboxing in which the CoreLocation framework is not allowed to talk to com.apple.CoreLocation.agent. I suspect this agent is responsible for prompting the user for permissions. If you add the Location Services Entitlement (com.apple.security.personal-information.location) it only gives your app the ability to use the CL framework. However you also need access to the CoreLocation agent to ask the user for permissions. You can give your app access by adding the entitlement 'com.apple.security.temporary-exception.mach-lookup.global-name' with a value of 'com.apple.CoreLocation.agent'. Users will be prompted for access automatically like you would expect. I've filed a bug to apple on this already.

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  • How would you protect a database of links from being scraped?

    - by Yegor
    I have a large database of links, which are all sorted in specific ways and are attached to other information, which is valuable (to some people). Currently my setup (which seems to work) simply calls a php file like link.php?id=123, it logs the request with a timestamp into the DB. Before it spits out the link, it checks how many requests were made from that IP in the last 5 minutes. If its greater than x, it redirects you to a captcha page. That all works fine and dandy, but the site has been getting really popular (as well as been getting DDOsed for about 6 weeks), so php has been getting floored, so Im trying to minimize the times I have to hit up php to do something. I wanted to show links in plain text instead of thru link.php?id= and have an onclick function to simply add 1 to the view count. Im still hitting up php, but at least if it lags, it does so in the background, and the user can see the link they requested right away. Problem is, that makes the site REALLY scrapable. Is there anything I can do to prevent this, but still not rely on php to do the check before spitting out the link?

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  • Use a vector to index a matrix without linear index

    - by David_G
    G'day, I'm trying to find a way to use a vector of [x,y] points to index from a large matrix in MATLAB. Usually, I would convert the subscript points to the linear index of the matrix.(for eg. Use a vector as an index to a matrix in MATLab) However, the matrix is 4-dimensional, and I want to take all of the elements of the 3rd and 4th dimensions that have the same 1st and 2nd dimension. Let me hopefully demonstrate with an example: Matrix = nan(4,4,2,2); % where the dimensions are (x,y,depth,time) Matrix(1,2,:,:) = 999; % note that this value could change in depth (3rd dim) and time (4th time) Matrix(3,4,:,:) = 888; % note that this value could change in depth (3rd dim) and time (4th time) Matrix(4,4,:,:) = 124; Now, I want to be able to index with the subscripts (1,2) and (3,4), etc and return not only the 999 and 888 which exist in Matrix(:,:,1,1) but the contents which exist at Matrix(:,:,1,2),Matrix(:,:,2,1) and Matrix(:,:,2,2), and so on (IRL, the dimensions of Matrix might be more like size(Matrix) = (300 250 30 200) I don't want to use linear indices because I would like the results to be in a similar vector fashion. For example, I would like a result which is something like: ans(time=1) 999 888 124 999 888 124 ans(time=2) etc etc etc etc etc etc I'd also like to add that due to the size of the matrix I'm dealing with, speed is an issue here - thus why I'd like to use subscript indices to index to the data. I should also mention that (unlike this question: Accessing values using subscripts without using sub2ind) since I want all the information stored in the extra dimensions, 3 and 4, of the i and jth indices, I don't think that a slightly faster version of sub2ind still would not cut it..

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  • Multiple WCF calls for a single ASP.NET page load

    - by Rodney Burton
    I have an existing asp.net web application I am redesigning to use a service architecture. I have the beginnings of an WCF service which I am able to call and perform functions with no problems. As far as updating data, it all makes sense. For example, I have a button that says Submit Order, it sends the data to the service, which does the processing. Here's my concern: If I have an ASP.NET page that shows me a list of orders (View Orders page), and at the top I have a bunch of drop down lists for order types, and other search criteria which is populated by querying different tables from the database (lookup tables, etc). I am hoping to eventually completely decouple the web application from the DB, and use data contracts to pass information between the BLL, the SOA, and the web app. With that said, how can I reduce the # of WCF calls needed to load my "View Orders" page? I would need to make 1 call get the list of orders, and 1 call for each drop down list, etc because those are populated by individual functions in my BLL. Is it good architecture to create a web service method that returns back a specialized data contract that consists of everything you would need to display a View Orders page, in 1 shot? Something like this pseudocode: public class ViewOrderPageDTO { public OrderDTO[] Orders { get; set; } public OrderTypesDTO[] OrderTypes { get; set; } public OrderStatusesDTO[] OrderStatuses { get; set; } public CustomerListDTO[] CustomerList { get; set; } } Or is it better practice in the page_load event to make 5 or 6 or even 15 individual calls to the SOA to get the data needed to load the page? Therefore, bypassing the need for specialized wcf methods or DTO's that conglomerate other DTO? Thanks for your input and suggestions.

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  • Simple ASP.NET MVC views without writing a controller

    - by Jake Stevenson
    We're building a site that will have very minimal code, it's mostly just going to be a bunch of static pages served up. I know over time that will change and we'll want to swap in more dynamic information, so I've decided to go ahead and build a web application using ASP.NET MVC2 and the Spark view engine. There will be a couple of controllers that will have to do actual work (like in the /products area), but most of it will be static. I want my designer to be able to build and modify the site without having to ask me to write a new controller or route every time they decide to add or move a page. So if he wants to add a "http://mysite.com/News" page he can just create a "News" folder under Views and put an index.spark page within it. Then later if he decides he wants a /News/Community page, he can drop a community.spark file within that folder and have it work. I'm able to have a view without a specific action by making my controllers override HandleUnknownAction, but I still have to create a controller for each of these folders. It seems silly to have to add an empty controller and recompile every time they decide to add an area to the site. Is there any way to make this easier, so I only have to write a controller and recompile if there's actual logic to be done? Some sort of "master" controller that will handle any requests where there was no specific controller defined?

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  • How to rename an existing Grails application

    - by Johan Pelgrim
    Hi there, Does anybody know how to (easily) "rename" an existing grails application? I'm running into this because my PaaS provider does not allow me to delete a subscription... So I want to deploy my application under a different name. Of course, I can do this manually, but I think it might be a useful 'top-level' script (i.e. "grails rename-app newappname") Manual hints: When I do a "grails create-app myappname" I can see the myappname exists in the following files (and filenames)... Of course this is done by the create-app script, which replaces @...@ tokens in the template. I guess once they are replaced, it's not trivial to do a rename. ./.project: <name>myappname</name> ./application.properties:app.name=myappname ./build.xml:<project xmlns:ivy="antlib:org.apache.ivy.ant" name="myappname" default="test"> ./ivy.xml: <info organisation="org.example" module="myappname"/> ./myappname-test.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="/myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry containerPath="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.JRE_CONTAINER" javaProject="myappname" path="1" type="4"/> "/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.VM_ARGUMENTS" value="-Dbase.dir="${project_loc:myappname}" -Dserver.port=8080 -Dgrails.env=development"/> ./myappname.tmproj: <string>myappname.launch</string> And of course... the top-level directory name is "myappname" Any hints, or information about ongoing initiatives in this area are welcome Greetz, Johan

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  • mySQL Efficiency Issue - How to find the right balance of normalization...?

    - by Foo
    I'm fairly new to working with relational databases, but have read a few books and know the basics of good design. I'm facing a design decision, and I'm not sure how to continue. Here's a very over simplified version of what I'm building: People can rate photos 1-5, and I need to display the average votes on the picture while keeping track of the individual votes. For example, 12 people voted 1, 7 people voted 2, etc. etc. The normalization freak of me initially designed the table structure like this: Table pictures id* | picture | userID | Table ratings id* | pictureID | userID | rating With all the foreign key constraints and everything set as they shoudl be. Every time someone rates a picture, I just insert a new record into ratings and be done with it. To find the average rating of a picture, I'd just run something like this: SELECT AVG(rating) FROM ratings WHERE pictureID = '5' GROUP by pictureID Having it setup this way lets me run my fancy statistics to. I can easily find who rated a certain picture a 3, and what not. Now I'm thinking if there's a crapload of ratings (which is very possible in what I'm really designing), finding the average will became very expensive and painful. Using a non-normalized version would seem to be more efficient. e.g.: Table picture id | picture | userID | ratingOne | ratingTwo | ratingThree | ratingFour | ratingFive To calculate the average, I'd just have to select a single row. It seems so much more efficient, but so much more uglier. Can someone point me in the right direction of what to do? My initial research shows that I have to "find the right balance", but how do I go about finding that balance? Any articles or additional reading information would be appreciated as well. Thanks.

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  • documenting class properties

    - by intuited
    I'm writing a lightweight class whose properties are intended to be publicly accessible, and only sometimes overridden in specific instantiations. There's no provision in the Python language for creating docstrings for class properties, or any sort of properties, for that matter. What is the accepted way, should there be one, to document these properties? Currently I'm doing this sort of thing: class Albatross(object): """A bird with a flight speed exceeding that of an unladen swallow. Properties: """ flight_speed = 691 __doc__ += """ flight_speed (691) The maximum speed that such a bird can attain """ nesting_grounds = "Throatwarbler Man Grove" __doc__ += """ nesting_grounds ("Throatwarbler Man Grove") The locale where these birds congregate to reproduce. """ def __init__(**keyargs): """Initialize the Albatross from the keyword arguments.""" self.__dict__.update(keyargs) Although this style doesn't seem to be expressly forbidden in the docstring style guidelines, it's also not mentioned as an option. The advantage here is that it provides a way to document properties alongside their definitions, while still creating a presentable class docstring, and avoiding having to write comments that reiterate the information from the docstring. I'm still kind of annoyed that I have to actually write the properties twice; I'm considering using the string representations of the values in the docstring to at least avoid duplication of the default values. Is this a heinous breach of the ad hoc community conventions? Is it okay? Is there a better way? For example, it's possible to create a dictionary containing values and docstrings for the properties and then add the contents to the class __dict__ and docstring towards the end of the class declaration; this would alleviate the need to type the property names and values twice. I'm pretty new to python and still working out the details of coding style, so unrelated critiques are also welcome.

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  • SQL Query with multiple values in one column

    - by lp1
    I've been beating my head on the desk tring to figure this one out. I have a table that stores job information, and reasons for a job not being completed. The reasons are numeric,01,02,03,etc. You can have two reason for a pending job. If you select two reasons, they are stored in the same column, seperated by a comma. This is anExample from the JOBID table: Job_Number User_Assigned PendingInfo 1 user1 01,02 Now, there is another table named Pending, that stores what those values actually represent. 01=Not enough info, 02=Not enough time, 03=Waiting Review. Example: Pending_Num PendingWord 01 Not Enough Info 02 Not Enough Time What I'm trying to do is query the database to give me all the job numbers, users, pendinginfo, and pending reason. I can break out the first value, but can't figure out how to do the second. What my limited skills have so far: *select Job_number,user_assigned,SUBSTRING(pendinginfo,0,3),pendingword from jobid,pending where SUBSTRING(pendinginfo,0,3)=pending.pending_num and pendinginfo!='00,00' and pendinginfo!='NULL'* What I would like to see for this example would be: Job_Number User_Assigned PendingInfo PendingWord PendingInfo PendingWord 1 User1 01 Not Enough Info 02 Not Enough Time Thanks in advance

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  • What harm can javascript do?

    - by The King
    I just happen to read the joel's blog here... So for example if you have a web page that says “What is your name?” with an edit box and then submitting that page takes you to another page that says, Hello, Elmer! (assuming the user’s name is Elmer), well, that’s a security vulnerability, because the user could type in all kinds of weird HTML and JavaScript instead of “Elmer” and their weird JavaScript could do narsty things, and now those narsty things appear to come from you, so for example they can read cookies that you put there and forward them on to Dr. Evil’s evil site. Since javascript runs on client end. All it can access or do is only on the client end. It can read informations stored in hidden fields and change them. It can read, write or manipulate cookies... But I feel, these informations are anyway available to him. (if he is smart enough to pass javascript in a textbox. So we are not empowering him with new information or providing him undue access to our server... Just curious to know whether I miss something. Can you list the things that a malicious user can do with this security hole. Edit : Thanks to all for enlightening . As kizzx2 pointed out in one of the comments... I was overlooking the fact that a JavaScript written by User A may get executed in the browser of User B under numerous circumstances, in which case it becomes a great risk.

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  • java connectivity with mysql error

    - by abson
    I just started with the connectivity and tried this example. I have installed the necessary softwares. Also copied the jar file into the /ext folder.Yet the code below has the following error import java.sql.*; public class Jdbc00 { public static void main(String args[]){ try { Statement stmt; Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/mysql" DriverManager.getConnection(url,"root", "root"); //Display URL and connection information System.out.println("URL: " + url); System.out.println("Connection: " + con); //Get a Statement object stmt = con.createStatement(); //Create the new database stmt.executeUpdate( "CREATE DATABASE JunkDB"); stmt.executeUpdate( "GRANT SELECT,INSERT,UPDATE,DELETE," + "CREATE,DROP " + "ON JunkDB.* TO 'auser'@'localhost' " + "IDENTIFIED BY 'drowssap';"); con.close(); }catch( Exception e ) { e.printStackTrace(); }//end catch }//end main }//end class Jdbc00 But it gave the following error D:\Java12\Explore>java Jdbc00 java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Unknown Source) at Jdbc11.main(Jdbc00.java:11) Could anyone please guide me in correcting this?

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  • Memory Bandwidth Performance for Modern Machines

    - by porgarmingduod
    I'm designing a real-time system that occasionally has to duplicate a large amount of memory. The memory consists of non-tiny regions, so I expect the copying performance will be fairly close to the maximum bandwidth the relevant components (CPU, RAM, MB) can do. This led me to wonder what kind of raw memory bandwidth modern commodity machine can muster? My aging Core2Duo gives me 1.5 GB/s if I use 1 thread to memcpy() (and understandably less if I memcpy() with both cores simultaneously.) While 1.5 GB is a fair amount of data, the real-time application I'm working on will have have something like 1/50th of a second, which means 30 MB. Basically, almost nothing. And perhaps worst of all, as I add multiple cores, I can process a lot more data without any increased performance for the needed duplication step. But a low-end Core2Due isn't exactly hot stuff these days. Are there any sites with information, such as actual benchmarks, on raw memory bandwidth on current and near-future hardware? Furthermore, for duplicating large amounts of data in memory, are there any shortcuts, or is memcpy() as good as it will get? Given a bunch of cores with nothing to do but duplicate as much memory as possible in a short amount of time, what's the best I can do?

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  • Valueurl Binding On Large Arrays Causes Sluggish User Interface

    - by Hooligancat
    I have a large data set (some 3500 objects) that returns from a remote server via HTTP. Currently the data is being presented in an NSCollectionView. One aspect of the data is a path pack to the server for a small image that represents the data (think thumbnail for simplicity). Bindings works fantastically for the data that is already returned, and binding the image via a valueurl binding is easy to do. However, the user interface is very sluggish when scrolling through the data set - which makes me think that the NSCollectionView is retrieving all the image data instead of just the image data used to display the currently viewable images. I was under the impression that Cocoa controls were smart enough to only retrieve data for the information that is actually being output to the user interface through lazy loading. This certainly seems to be the case with NSTableView - but I could be misguided on this thought. Should valueurl binding act lazily and, moreover, should it act lazily in an NSCollectionView? I could create a caching mechanism (in fact I already have such a thing in place for another application - see my post here if you are interested http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1740209/populating-nsimage-with-data-from-an-asynchronous-nsurlconnection) but I really don't want to go this route if I don't have to for this specific implementation as the user could potentially change data sets often and may only want small sub-sets of the data. Any suggested approaches? Thanks!

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  • PDF Form Field Manipulation

    - by 108039818756939362532
    I'm making a web interface to autofill pdf forms with user data from a database. The admin needs to be able to upload a pdf (right now targeted at IRS pdf forms) and then associate the fields in the pdf with data fields in the database. I need a way to help the admin associate the field names (stuff like "topmostSubform[0].Page2[0].p2-t66[0]") with the the data fields in the database. I'm looking for a way to modify the PDF programatically to in some way provide this information. Basically I'm open to suggestions on how I might make the field names appear in an obvious manner on a modified version of the original pdf. The closest I've gotten is being able to insert Tooltips into the fields in the pdf by just editting the raw pdf line by line. However when editting the pdf in this manner the field names are gibberish, and so I can't just use them. An optimal solution would be anything that could automatically parse a pdf and set each field's tooltip to be the fields name. Anything that can be run from the command line, or any python tool, or just a basic how to correctly parse a field's name from a raw pdf file would be amazing.

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  • Setting minimum size limit for a window in java swing

    - by shadyabhi
    I have a JFrame which has 3 JPanels in GridBagLayout.. Now, when I minimize a windows, after a certain limit, the third JPanel tends to disappear. I tried setting minimizing size of JFrame using setMinimumSize(new Dimension(int,int)) but no success. The windows can still be minimized. So, I actually want to make a threshhold, that my window cannot be minimized after a certain limit. How can I do so? Code:- import java.awt.Dimension; import javax.swing.JFrame; public class JFrameExample { public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Hello World"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setMinimumSize(new Dimension(400, 400)); frame.setVisible(true); } } Also: shadyabhi@shadyabhi-desktop:~/java$ java --showversion java version "1.5.0" gij (GNU libgcj) version 4.4.1 Copyright (C) 2007 Free Software Foundation, Inc. This is free software; see the source for copying conditions. There is NO warranty; not even for MERCHANTABILITY or FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR PURPOSE. Usage: gij [OPTION] ... CLASS [ARGS] ... to invoke CLASS.main, or gij -jar [OPTION] ... JARFILE [ARGS] ... to execute a jar file Try `gij --help' for more information. shadyabhi@shadyabhi-desktop:~/java$ Gives me output like

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  • How do I get 3 lines of text from a paragraph in C#

    - by Keltex
    I'm trying to create an "snippet" from a paragraph. I have a long paragraph of text with a word hilighted in the middle. I want to get the line containing the word before that line and the line after that line. I have the following piece of information: The text (in a string) The lines are deliminated by a NEWLINE character \n I have the index into the string of the text I want to hilight A couple other criteria: If my word falls on first line of the paragraph, it should show the 1st 3 lines If my word falls on the last line of the paragraph, it should show the last 3 lines Should show the entire paragraph in the degenative cases (the paragraph only has 1 or 2 lines) Here's an example: This is the 1st line of CAT text in the paragraph This is the 2nd line of BIRD text in the paragraph This is the 3rd line of MOUSE text in the paragraph This is the 4th line of DOG text in the paragraph This is the 5th line of RABBIT text in the paragraph Example, if my index points to BIRD, it should show lines 1, 2, & 3 as one complete string like this: This is the 1st line of CAT text in the paragraph This is the 2nd line of BIRD text in the paragraph This is the 3rd line of MOUSE text in the paragraph If my index points to DOG, it should show lines 3, 4, & 5 as one complete string like this: This is the 3rd line of MOUSE text in the paragraph This is the 4th line of DOG text in the paragraph This is the 5th line of RABBIT text in the paragraph etc. Anybody want to help tackle this?

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  • Minimum privileges to read SQL Jobs using SQL SMO

    - by Gustavo Cavalcanti
    I wrote an application to use SQL SMO to find all SQL Servers, databases, jobs and job outcomes. This application is executed through a scheduled task using a local service account. This service account is local to the application server only and is not present in any SQL Server to be inspected. I am having problems getting information on job and job outcomes when connecting to the servers using a user with dbReader rights on system tables. If we set the user to be sysadmin on the server it all works fine. My question to you is: What are the minimum privileges a local SQL Server user needs to have in order to connect to the server and inspect jobs/job outcomes using the SQL SMO API? I connect to each SQL Server by doing the following: var conn = new ServerConnection { LoginSecure = false, ApplicationName = "SQL Inspector", ServerInstance = serverInstanceName, ConnectAsUser = false, Login = user, Password = password }; var smoServer = new Server (conn); I read the jobs by reading smoServer.JobServer.Jobs and read the JobSteps property on each of these jobs. The variable server is of type Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server. user/password are of the user found in each SQL Server to be inspected. If "user" is SysAdmin on the SQL Server to be inspected all works ok, as well as if we set ConnectAsUser to true and execute the scheduled task using my own credentials, which grants me SysAdmin privileges on SQL Server per my Active Directory membership. Thanks!

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