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  • Visual Studio Macros on 64 bit fail with COM error

    - by bruce.kinchin
    I'm doing some javascript development and found a cool macro to region my code ("Using #region Directive With JavaScript Files in Visual Studio"). I used this on my 32 bit box, and it worked first time. (Visual Studio 2008 SP1, Win7) For easy of reference the macro is: Option Strict Off Option Explicit Off Imports System Imports EnvDTE Imports EnvDTE80 Imports System.Diagnostics Imports System.Collections Public Module JsMacros Sub OutlineRegions() Dim selection As EnvDTE.TextSelection = DTE.ActiveDocument.Selection Const REGION_START As String = "//#region" Const REGION_END As String = "//#endregion" DTE.ExecuteCommand("Edit.StopOutlining") selection.SelectAll() Dim text As String = selection.Text selection.StartOfDocument(True) Dim startIndex As Integer Dim endIndex As Integer Dim lastIndex As Integer = 0 Dim startRegions As Stack = New Stack() Do startIndex = text.IndexOf(REGION_START, lastIndex) endIndex = text.IndexOf(REGION_END, lastIndex) If startIndex = -1 AndAlso endIndex = -1 Then Exit Do End If If startIndex <> -1 AndAlso startIndex < endIndex Then startRegions.Push(startIndex) lastIndex = startIndex + 1 Else ' Outline region ... selection.MoveToLineAndOffset(CalcLineNumber(text, CInt(startRegions.Pop())), text.Length) selection.MoveToLineAndOffset(CalcLineNumber(text, endIndex) + 1, 1, True) selection.OutlineSection() lastIndex = endIndex + 1 End If Loop selection.StartOfDocument() End Sub Private Function CalcLineNumber(ByVal text As String, ByVal index As Integer) Dim lineNumber As Integer = 1 Dim i As Integer = 0 While i < index If text.Chars(i) = vbCr Then lineNumber += 1 i += 1 End If i += 1 End While Return lineNumber End Function End Module I then tried to use the same macro on two separate 64 bit machines (Win7 x64), identical other than the 64 bit OS version and it fails to work. Stepping through it with the Visual Studio Macros IDE, it fails the first time on the DTE.ExecuteCommand("Edit.StopOutlining") line with a COM error (Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component). If I attempt to run it a second time, I can run it from the Macro Editor with no issue, but not from within Visual Studio with the macro explorer 'run macro' command. I have reviewed the following articles without finding anything helpful: Stackoverflow: Visual Studio 2008 macro only works from the Macro IDE, not the Macro Explorer Recorded macro does not run; Failing on DTE.ExecuteCommand Am I missing something dumb?

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  • How to fix RapidXML String ownership concerns?

    - by Roddy
    RapidXML is a fast, lightweight C++ XML DOM Parser, but it has some quirks. The worst of these to my mind is this: 3.2 Ownership Of Strings. Nodes and attributes produced by RapidXml do not own their name and value strings. They merely hold the pointers to them. This means you have to be careful when setting these values manually, by using xml_base::name(const Ch *) or xml_base::value(const Ch *) functions. Care must be taken to ensure that lifetime of the string passed is at least as long as lifetime of the node/attribute. The easiest way to achieve it is to allocate the string from memory_pool owned by the document. Use memory_pool::allocate_string() function for this purpose. Now, I understand it's done this way for speed, but this feels like an car crash waiting to happen. The following code looks innocuous but 'name' and 'value' are out of scope when foo returns, so the doc is undefined. void foo() { char name[]="Name"; char value[]="Value"; doc.append_node(doc.allocate_node(node_element, name, value)); } The suggestion of using allocate_string() as per manual works, but it's so easy to forget. Has anyone 'enhanced' RapidXML to avoid this issue?

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  • HTTP requests and Apache modules: Creative attack vectors

    - by pinkgothic
    Slightly unorthodox question here: I'm currently trying to break an Apache with a handful of custom modules. What spawned the testing is that Apache internally forwards requests that it considers too large (e.g. 1 MB trash) to modules hooked in appropriately, forcing them to deal with the garbage data - and lack of handling in the custom modules caused Apache in its entirety to go up in flames. Ouch, ouch, ouch. That particular issue was fortunately fixed, but the question's arisen whether or not there may be other similar vulnerabilities. Right now I have a tool at my disposal that lets me send a raw HTTP request to the server (or rather, raw data through an established TCP connection that could be interpreted as an HTTP request if it followed the form of one, e.g. "GET ...") and I'm trying to come up with other ideas. (TCP-level attacks like Slowloris and Nkiller2 are not my focus at the moment.) Does anyone have a few nice ideas how to confuse the server and/or its modules to the point of self-immolation? Broken UTF-8? (Though I doubt Apache cares about encoding - I imagine it just juggles raw bytes.) Stuff that is only barely too long, followed by a 0-byte, followed by junk? et cetera I don't consider myself a very good tester (I'm doing this by necessity and lack of manpower; I unfortunately don't even have a more than basic grasp of Apache internals that would help me along), which is why I'm hoping for an insightful response or two or three. Maybe some of you have done some similar testing for your own projects? (If stackoverflow is not the right place for this question, I apologise. Not sure where else to put it.)

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  • User Control SiteMap Provider Rendering Error

    - by Serexx
    I have created a Custom Server Control that renders the SiteMap as a pure UL for CSS styling. At run-time it renders properly but in VS2008 Design View VS shows this error: Error Rendering Control - menuMainAn unhandled exception has occurred. The provider 'AspNetXmlSiteMapProvider' specified for the defaultProvider does not exist in the providers collection. I have 'AspNetXmlSiteMapProvider' specified in web.config as per here : link text While I am happy that the code runs properly, the Designer error is bothersome if the underlying issue might cause the code to break in some circumstances so I need to understand what is going on... The code explicitly references the sitemap in the Render Method with : int level = 1; string ul = string.Format("<div class='{0}' id='{1}'>{2}</div>", CssClassName, this.ID.ToString(), EnumerateNodesRecursive(SiteMap.RootNode, level)); output.Write(ul); and the recursive method called referrences SiteMap.CurrentNode. Otherwise there are no explicit sitemap references in the code. Does anyone have any ideas why Deisgner is complaining?

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  • Custom Django admin URL + changelist view for custom list filter by Tags

    - by Botondus
    In django admin I wanted to set up a custom filter by tags (tags are introduced with django-tagging) I've made the ModelAdmin for this and it used to work fine, by appending custom urlconf and modifying the changelist view. It should work with URLs like: http://127.0.0.1:8000/admin/reviews/review/only-tagged-vista/ But now I get 'invalid literal for int() with base 10: 'only-tagged-vista', error which means it keeps matching the review edit page instead of the custom filter page, and I cannot figure out why since it used to work and I can't find what change might have affected this. Any help appreciated. Relevant code: class ReviewAdmin(VersionAdmin): def changelist_view(self, request, extra_context=None, **kwargs): from django.contrib.admin.views.main import ChangeList cl = ChangeList(request, self.model, list(self.list_display), self.list_display_links, self.list_filter, self.date_hierarchy, self.search_fields, self.list_select_related, self.list_per_page, self.list_editable, self) cl.formset = None if extra_context is None: extra_context = {} if kwargs.get('only_tagged'): tag = kwargs.get('tag') cl.result_list = cl.result_list.filter(tags__icontains=tag) extra_context['extra_filter'] = "Only tagged %s" % tag extra_context['cl'] = cl return super(ReviewAdmin, self).changelist_view(request, extra_context=extra_context) def get_urls(self): from django.conf.urls.defaults import patterns, url urls = super(ReviewAdmin, self).get_urls() def wrap(view): def wrapper(*args, **kwargs): return self.admin_site.admin_view(view)(*args, **kwargs) return update_wrapper(wrapper, view) info = self.model._meta.app_label, self.model._meta.module_name my_urls = patterns('', # make edit work from tagged filter list view # redirect to normal edit view url(r'^only-tagged-\w+/(?P<id>.+)/$', redirect_to, {'url': "/admin/"+self.model._meta.app_label+"/"+self.model._meta.module_name+"/%(id)s"} ), # tagged filter list view url(r'^only-tagged-(P<tag>\w+)/$', self.admin_site.admin_view(self.changelist_view), {'only_tagged':True}, name="changelist_view"), ) return my_urls + urls Edit: Original issue fixed. I now receive 'Cannot filter a query once a slice has been taken.' for line: cl.result_list = cl.result_list.filter(tags__icontains=tag) I'm not sure where this result list is sliced, before tag filter is applied. Edit2: It's because of the self.list_per_page in ChangeList declaration. However didn't find a proper solution yet. Temp fix: if kwargs.get('only_tagged'): list_per_page = 1000000 else: list_per_page = self.list_per_page cl = ChangeList(request, self.model, list(self.list_display), self.list_display_links, self.list_filter, self.date_hierarchy, self.search_fields, self.list_select_related, list_per_page, self.list_editable, self)

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  • Strange error coming from ActiveRecord (probably)

    - by artemave
    My development environment: Ubuntu 9 Ruby 1.9.1/1.8.7 (rvm) Rails 2.3.5 Mysql 5.0 Apache Passenger Below is the part of the program flow to represent the issue. Request comes: #action def create begin @report = Report.new(params[:report]) ... rescue LocationNotFound => e ... end end Report constructor: class Report attr_accessor :locations def initialize(params = {}) @locations = params[:locations] ? fetch_locations(params[:locations]) : [] end ... end fetch_locations: def fetch_locations(loc_names) Rails.logger.debug "LOC_NAMES: " + loc_names.inspect ls = Location.find(:all, :conditions => [ # line 57 "locations.name in (#{loc_names.map{'?'}.join(',')})", *loc_names ], :include => [:sample_summaries, :samples]) # loc_names will never be empty ... end Location model: class Location < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :sample_summaries has_many :samples, :through => :sample_summaries ... end Now, the first time (after passenger restart) this runs fine and does the job. Most of the consequent times I get the error: Mar-11 11:01:00 #15098 DEBUG: LOC_NAMES: ["Moscow, RF", "London, UK"] Mar-11 11:01:00 #15098 DEBUG: Location Load (0.0ms) SELECT * FROM `locations` WHERE (locations.name in ('Moscow, RF','London, UK')) Mar-11 11:01:00 #15098 DEBUG: SampleSummary Load (0.0ms) SELECT `sample_summaries`.* FROM `sample_summaries` WHERE (`sample_summaries`.location_id IN (1,3)) Mar-11 11:01:00 #15098 DEBUG: SampleSummary Columns (0.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `sample_summaries` Mar-11 11:01:00 #15098 FATAL: NoMethodError (You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil.include?): app/models/report.rb:57:in `fetch_locations' app/models/report.rb:9:in `initialize' app/controllers/report_controller.rb:11:in `new' app/controllers/report_controller.rb:11:in `create' Looks quite random to me. Any ideas? P.S. I also tried to wrap the query in uncached block, but that didn't change anything. EDIT Here is what SampleSummary model looks like: class SampleSummary < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :samples belongs_to :location ... #validations default_scope :include => :samples, :order => 'rss_ts desc' ... end

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  • What is weird about wrapping setjmp and longjmp?

    - by Max
    Hello. I am using setjmp and longjmp for the first time, and I ran across an issue that comes about when I wrap setjmp and longjmp. I boiled the code down to the following example: #include <stdio.h> #include <setjmp.h> jmp_buf jb; int mywrap_save() { int i = setjmp(jb); return i; } int mywrap_call() { longjmp(jb, 1); printf("this shouldn't appear\n"); } void example_wrap() { if (mywrap_save() == 0){ printf("wrap: try block\n"); mywrap_call(); } else { printf("wrap: catch block\n"); } } void example_non_wrap() { if (setjmp(jb) == 0){ printf("non_wrap: try block\n"); longjmp(jb, 1); } else { printf("non_wrap: catch block\n"); } } int main() { example_wrap(); example_non_wrap(); } Initially I thought example_wrap() and example_non_wrap() would behave the same. However, the result of running the program (GCC 4.4, Linux): wrap: try block non_wrap: try block non_wrap: catch block If I trace the program in gdb, I see that even though mywrap_save() returns 1, the else branch after returning is oddly ignored. Can anyone explain what is going on?

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  • Server reporting incorrect mime type for css files

    - by Becky
    We have a VPS server that we host our websites on. I have written a CMS using CodeIgniter. On one of the interfaces, I am attempting to upload a css file to the system. This worked correctly when we had it hosted on shared hosting. Since we've moved it to the VPS, I am getting an "incorrect filetype" error. It all comes down to the fact that the server is reporting a mime type of text/x-c for the css file rather than text/css. I logged in via shell and ran the following command on an existing valid css file (to make sure it wasn't an issue with either CodeIgniter or with php). file --brief --mime 'filename.css' 2>&1 The server gave me the following in response to my command: text/x-c; charset=us-ascii My question ... is there some sort of server setting that I need to tweak to get the server to correctly identify the css file as text/css? Do I just have to add a mime type for the css files to the server? I found the mime types file (etc/mime.types), and it just hase video types and a couple other that I have no idea what they are. There is nothing in there for css or images or html files. Unless I'm looking in the wrong spot. I'm not a server person, so I'm hoping someone can help me out. Some server specs: Apache/2.2.22 (Unix) php 5.3.13 Server API = CGI/FastCGI the fileinfo php extension appears to be disabled

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  • Microsoft Reporting 2005 and Report Viewer Report ASP.Net Session Has Expired on Load

    - by ThaKidd
    At my job, I have been tasked with fixing an error with our reporting server. That error is ASP.Net Session Has Expired. This error occurs when the Visual Studio ReportViewer 2005 Control attempts to load a report. We are trying to host this report to users hitting our Internet exposed Windows 2003 Server running IIS 6.0. The reportviewer control is attempting to load this report from a second server running Microsoft SQL 2005 w/Reporting Services. The SQL server is not exposed to the Internet. Here is the weird thing. This error never occurs on the development box. When it is transferred to the production IIS server, the error starts to occur. It only happens every time the report is first loaded. If the browser's refresh button is clicked 5-10 times, the report will finally load correctly. I have reproduced this same error on the latest version of Mozilla Firefox, IE 7, and IE 8. The report only takes 10-20 seconds to load. I have tried timeouts in the 300+ second range on the reporting server/iis production server. I have tried a few options like Async (which causes images not to load properly) and setting the session mode to iproc with a high timeout value in the Reporting Server's web.config. I have also tried using the reporting server's IP address in the report viewer's code instead of the server name. I plan on verifying a picture loading issue which I also read about tomorrow when I get into work. I am unsure what service packs Visual Studio 2005 and the MSSQL server are running. Was an update released to fix this problem that I could not find? Does anyone have a fix for this?

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  • Asp.Net MVC Tutorial Unit Tests

    - by Nicholas
    I am working through Steve Sanderson's book Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and I having some issues with two unit tests which produce errors. In the example below it tests the CheckOut ViewResult: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ViewResult CheckOut(Cart cart, FormCollection form) { // Empty carts can't be checked out if (cart.Lines.Count == 0) { ModelState.AddModelError("Cart", "Sorry, your cart is empty!"); return View(); } // Invoke model binding manually if (TryUpdateModel(cart.ShippingDetails, form.ToValueProvider())) { orderSubmitter.SubmitOrder(cart); cart.Clear(); return View("Completed"); } else // Something was invalid return View(); } with the following unit test [Test] public void Submitting_Empty_Shipping_Details_Displays_Default_View_With_Error() { // Arrange CartController controller = new CartController(null, null); Cart cart = new Cart(); cart.AddItem(new Product(), 1); // Act var result = controller.CheckOut(cart, new FormCollection { { "Name", "" } }); // Assert Assert.IsEmpty(result.ViewName); Assert.IsFalse(result.ViewData.ModelState.IsValid); } I have resolved any issues surrounding 'TryUpdateModel' by upgrading to ASP.NET MVC 2 (Release Candidate 2) and the website runs as expected. The associated error messages are: *Tests.CartControllerTests.Submitting_Empty_Shipping_Details_Displays_Default_View_With_Error: System.ArgumentNullException : Value cannot be null. Parameter name: controllerContext* and the more detailed at System.Web.Mvc.ModelValidator..ctor(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext controllerContext) at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.OnModelUpdated(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindComplexModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.TryUpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String prefix, String[] includeProperties, String[] excludeProperties, IValueProvider valueProvider) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.TryUpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, IValueProvider valueProvider) at WebUI.Controllers.CartController.CheckOut(Cart cart, FormCollection form) Has anyone run into a similar issue or indeed got the test to pass?

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  • Sending hidden fields via POST in iPhone in-app email

    - by Michael
    I'm letting my App's user send email from within the app to share some content on myserver. To do so I need to include a button with two bits of data and I want to use POST to keep it somewhat hidden. I've decided to add an html form using POST and two hidden fields in the email rather, like so: NSString *buttonCode = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<form method='post' action='http://www.example.com/iphone/nifty.php'> <input type='hidden' name='dataOne' value='%@'> <input type='hidden' name='dataTwo' value='%@'> <input type='submit'value='Submit'></form>",dataOne, dataTwo]; NSString *emailBody = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<b>%@ - %@</b>\n\n<HR WIDTH=200 SIZE=2 COLOR=#755f0f ALIGN=CENTER>\n Here is a email:<br><br>%@", dateString, timeString, buttonCode]; [picker setMessageBody:emailBody isHTML:YES]; I've confirmed by looking at the raw source of the email that the form is constructed correctly and I've copied and pasted it into a web page and it works. So here is the problem. When I click on the button in the received email (using apple's mail client) the dataOne and dataTwo variables don't get passed to my server. Is there a better way to do this or is the issue with my mail client?

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  • How do you determine subtype of an entity using Inheritance with Entity Framework 4?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am just starting to use the Entity Framework 4 for the first time ever. So far I am liking it but I am a bit confused on how to correctly do inheritance. I am doing a model-first approach, and I have my Person entity with two subtype entities, Employee and Client. EF is correctly using the table per type approach, however I can't seem to figure out how to determine what type of a Person a specific object is. For example, if I do something like var people = from p in entities.Person select p; return people.ToList<Person>(); In my list that I form from this, all I care about is the Id field so i don't want to actually query all the subtype tables (this is a webpage list with links, so all I need is the name and the Id, all in the Persons table). However, I want to form different lists using this one query, one for each type of person (so one list for Clients and another for Employees). The issue is if I have a Person entity, I can't see any way to determine if that entity is a Client or an Employee without querying the Client or Employee tables directly. How can I easily determine the subtype of an entity without performing a bunch of additional database queries?

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  • jQuery autopopulate select drop down from JSON issues

    - by Jonathon Joyce
    I have an issue regarding to auto populating a select dropdown from jQuery/JSON data which is return from a ColdFusion CFC, the code is below: $(function(){ $("#licences-add").dialog({autoOpen:false,modal:true,title:'Add Licences',height:250,width:380}); }); function openAddLicence(intInstanceID,szName,szDatasourceName){ $.getJSON('/ASPAdmin/billing/handler.cfc?method=ListLicenceTypes&queryformat=column',{szInstanceDatasource:szDatasourceName}, function(data){ $.each(data,function(){ $('<option></option>').val(data.DATA.UUIDLICENCETYPE).text(data.DATA.SZLICENCETYPE).appendTo('#uuidLicenceType'); }); }); $("#intInstanceID").attr('value', intInstanceID); $('span#szInstanceName').text(szName); $("#licences-add").dialog('open');}; The json returned is: {"ROWCOUNT":1,"COLUMNS":["UUIDLICENCETYPE","SZLICENCETYPE"],"DATA":{"UUIDLICENCETYPE":["480CE560-BCD3-C7AC-AF50B3C71BBCC473"],"SZLICENCETYPE":["Standard"]}} However i get the following error: $("").val(this.UUIDLICENCETYPE).text is not a function Any ideas? HTML: <tr> <td><label for="uuidLicenceType" title="Select the licence type (required).">Licence Type</label> <span class="req">*</span></td> <td> <select name="uuidLicenceType" id="uuidLicenceType" class="bmSelect"> <option value=""></option> </select> </td> </tr>

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  • Authlogic, logout and credential capture

    - by Paddy
    Ok this is something weird. I got authlogic-oid installed in my rails app today. Everything works perfectly fine but for one small nuisance. This is what i did: I first register with my google openid. Successful login, redirection and my email, along with my correct openid is stored in my database. I am happy that everything worked fine! Now when i logout, my rails app as usual destroys the session and redirects me back to my root url where i can login again. Now if i try to login it still remembers my last login id. Not a big issue as i can always "Sign in as a different user" but i am wondering if there is anyway to not only logout from my app but also logout from google. I noticed the same with stack overflow's openid authentication system. Why am i so bothered about this, you may ask. But is it not a bad idea if your web apps end user, who happens to be in a cyber cafe, thinks he has logged out from your app and hence from his google account only to realize later that his google account had got hacked by some unworthy loser who just happened to notice that the one before had not logged out from google and say.. changed his password!! Should i be paranoid?

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  • Limit the number of rows returned on the server side (forced limit)

    - by evolve
    So we have a piece of software which has a poorly written SQL statement which is causing every row from a table to be returned. There are several million rows in the table so this is causing serious memory issues and crashes on our clients machine. The vendor is in the process of creating a patch for the issue, however it is still a few weeks out. In the mean time we were attempting to figure out a method of limiting the number of results returned on the server side just as a temporary fix. I have no real hope of there being a solution, I've looked around and don't really see any ways of doing this, however I'm hoping someone might have an idea. Thank you in advance. EDIT I forgot an important piece of information, we have no access to the source code so we can not change this on the client side where the SQL statement is formed. There is no real server side component, the client just accesses the database directly. Any solution would basically require a procedure, trigger, or some sort of SQL-Server 2008 setting/command.

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  • DataTableReader is invalid for current DataTable 'TempTable'

    - by Sk93
    Hi, I'm getting the following error whenever my code creates a DataTableReader from a valid DataTable Object: "DataTableReader is invalid for current DataTable 'TempTable'." The thing is, if I reboot my machine, it works fine for an undertimed amount of time, then dies with the above. The code that throws this error could have been working fine for hours and then: bang. you get this error. It's not limited to one line either; it's every single location that a DataTableReader is used. Also, this error does NOT occur on the production web server - ever. This is an example of one of the lines where it falls over: If I step over this line, I get this: However, if I do this in the immediate window: I get no problems. Same goes if I actually use that line in the code. This has been driving me nuts for the best part of a week, and I've failed to find anything on Google that could help (as I'm pretty positive this isn't a coding issue). Some technical info: DEV Box: Vista 32bit (with all current windows updates) Visual Studio 2008 v9.0.30729.1 SP dotNet Framework 3.5 SP1 SQL Server: Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition- 9.00.4035.00 (X64) Windows 2003 64bit (with all current windows updates) Web Server: Windows 2003 64bit (with all current windows updates) any help, ideas, or advice would be greatly appreciated! Cheers, Ian

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  • Problems getting text from an openWysiwyg enabled TextBox

    - by stephenbayer
    I have a multiline text box on a form. I dropped in the js file for openWYSIWYG and attached it to the textbox. When I submit the form, the text box has no value. I'm having problems finding documentation on this library. Has anyone else used this who would be able to direct me as to where I can troubleshoot this issue. The HTML is here: <table> <tr><td>Comment</td> <td><asp:TextBox ID="txtComment" Height="150px" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" /> </td> </tr> <tr><td colspan="2"><asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" OnClick="btnSumbit_Click" Text="Submit" /> </table> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> WYSIWYG.attach('<%= txtComment.ClientID %>', full); </script> The codebehind for the method is: public void btnSumbit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //txtComment.Text is "" The text is not available }

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  • Check box and text box for Other value

    - by Svish
    When I have a set of either check boxes or radio buttons I often need to have an Other choice. This check box or radio button is very often accompanied by a text box where the user is supposed to fill out what this Other is. How do you usually handle this set up? What kind of markup do you use? What do you require in your validation? Do you use java script for anything? For example: How do you make the form accessible? Do you use and how do you use the label tag, for example. Do you connect the check box and text box in any way with some javascript? For example, do you activate the text box when the check box is checked? Do you check or uncheck the check box automatically if the text box is filled out or cleared? Do you let validation fail with error messages if the check box is checked but the text box is not filled out, or if the text box is filled out but the check box is not checked? Or do you just consider it not filled out and not checked? Very unsure how to best deal with this issue, so any advice and examples are most welcome c",)

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  • Factories, or Dependency Injection for object instantiation in WCF, when coding against an interface

    - by Saajid Ismail
    Hi I am writing a client/server application, where the client is a Windows Forms app, and the server is a WCF service hosted in a Windows Service. Note that I control both sides of the application. I am trying to implement the practice of coding against an interface: i.e. I have a Shared assembly which is referenced by the client application. This project contains my WCF ServiceContracts and interfaces which will be exposed to clients. I am trying to only expose interfaces to the clients, so that they are only dependant on a contract, not any specific implementation. One of the reasons for doing this is so that I can have my service implementation, and domain change at any time without having to recompile and redeploy the clients. The interfaces/contracts will in this case not change. I only need to recompile and redeploy my WCF service. The design issue I am facing now, is: on the client, how do I create new instances of objects, e.g. ICustomer, if the client doesn't know about the Customer concrete implementation? I need to create a new customer to be saved to the DB. Do I use dependency injection, or a Factory class to instantiate new objects, or should I just allow the client to create new instances of concrete implementations? I am not doing TDD, and I will typically only have one implementation of ICustomer or any other exposed interface.

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  • jquery slide toggle divs without creating multiple classes, functions, etc... ui accordion

    - by SPE
    Greetings, based on the jquery ui accordion I'm using, I have added a slide toggle to my accordion list items. so what happens is I click on an li and a div slides down underneath to reveal more content. The issue I'm having is that I find myself having to create multiple id's to reference the slidetoggle. example of the div id css: #panel, #panel2, #panel3, #panel4, etc.... the Is there a way I can use the slide toggle without having to adding another number so it will slide? I have 50 list items I'm using: Here's a sample of the js (as you can see where I'm going with this): $(".btn-slide").click(function(){ $("#panel").slideToggle("slow"); $(this).toggleClass("active"); return false; }); $(".btn-slide2").click(function(){ $("#panel2").slideToggle("slow"); $(this).toggleClass("active"); return false; }); sample html: <li><div class="slide"><a href="#" class="btn-slide">One</a></div><div id="panel"></div></li> <li><div class="slide"><a href="#" class="btn-slide2">Two</a></div><div id="panel2"></div></li>

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  • COM access to classic ASP intrinsic objects

    - by wrench
    I'm converting a VB6 COM object that works with classic ASP to a c# .Net COM Object Interop_COMSVCS.ObjectContext objContext; Interop_COMSVCS.AppServer objAppServer; objAppServer = null; // need to initialize before using objAppServer = new Interop_COMSVCS.AppServer(); objContext = objAppServer.GetObjectContext(); oApplication = (Interop_ASP.Application)objContext["Application"]; oSession = (Interop_ASP.Session)objContext["Session"]; oResponse = (Interop_ASP.Response)objContext["Response"]; oRequest = (Interop_ASP.Request)objContext["Request"]; oSession works to store local information to.from ASP storage oResponse can do simple writes to the browser BUT any code like oRequest.Cookies["sessionId"] or oResponse.Cookies["sessionId"] doesn't provide any sort of read or write access. Any cast or conversion I trry to do tells me I'm dealing with an empty or null System Object. There doesn't seem to be any sort of syntax to get/set the cookie collection. With COM+ I've seesn soem articles that indcate a switch for Access to ASP Intrinsic Objects -- that seesm to describe my issue, but I'd rather not use COM+. There are also some articles that indicate if I was using ASP.NET I could use HttpContext and HttpRequest/Response, but that's a completely different set of data objects that don't seem to be available with classic ASP. I've been stuck on this fopr a few days. Any help appreciated.

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  • Trouble with data not saving with bindings and shared NSUserDefaults in IB

    - by Chief
    I'm having a bit of a strange issue that I can't quite figure out. I'm somewhat of a n00b to Interface Builder. What I am trying to do seems like it should be simple, but it's not working for some reason. In interface builder I have a preferences window with a simple NSTextField. I have set the value binding to the Shared User Defaults Controller with the controller key "values" and model key "test". I build/run my app and open the preferences window, type some random value into said text field, close the window. Command-Q the app. Then in a shell i do a "defaults read com.xxx.yyy" for my app and the key and value are nowhere to be found. That being said, it seems like the next time I fire up the app and change the value it works but only if I switch focus off of the NSTextField before closing the window. In the documentation for NSUserDefaults it says that the shared controller saves values immediately, am I missing something stupid here? Thanks for any help.

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  • cache_money only writing to memcached on creates and updates, and seemingly never looking in the cac

    - by Shane Liebling
    I seem to be having some extremely odd cache_money interactions. When I am on the console, and I create a new instance of a class and save it I see the cache misses and cache stores on my memcached console output. Then when the create finishes I see a bunch of cache deletions. If I then try to do any kind of find for the newly created object (or any other objects for that matter) I never see any cache access. This is highly confusing. I could kind of understand if all finds never hit the cache (though that in and of itself would be an issue requiring investigation), but finds do seem to hit the cache when the object is being created (checking for associations and such). Anyone have this experience in the past at all? Any thoughts? AFAIK there isn't really much in the way of configuration options for cache_money, and it certainly doesn't seem like there are any that would be on by default and be creating these kinds of symptoms. My cache_money config is basically straight out of the docs. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • PHP's PDO Prepare Method Fails While in a Loop

    - by Andrew G. Johnson
    Given the following code: // Connect to MySQL up here $example_query = $database->prepare('SELECT * FROM table2'); if ($example_query === false) die('prepare failed'); $query = $database->prepare('SELECT * FROM table1'); $query->execute(); while ($results = $query->fetch()) { $example_query = $database->prepare('SELECT * FROM table2'); if ($example_query === false) die('prepare failed'); //it will die here } I obviously attempt to prepare statements to SELET everything from table2 twice. The second one (the one in the WHILE loop) always fails and causes an error. This is only on my production server, developing locally I have no issues so it must be some kind of setting somewhere. My immediate thought is that MySQL has some kind of max_connections setting that is set to 1 and a connection is kept open until the WHILE loop is completed so when I try to prepare a new query it says "nope too many connected already" and shits out. Any ideas? EDIT: Yes I know there's no need to do it twice, in my actual code it only gets prepared in the WHILE loop, but like I said that fails on my production server so after some testing I discovered that a simple SELECT * query fails in the WHILE loop but not out of it. The example code I gave is obviously very watered down to just illustrate the issue.

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  • View Controller's viewDidLoad method finishing before applicationDidFinishLaunching

    - by mwt
    I'm creating a fairly complex iPhone app using Core Data. Up until now, things have been working fine. As the app has been getting more complex, however, a new problem has come up: the first view controller is finishing its viewDidLoad method before the AppDelegate gets even halfway through its applicationDidFinishLaunching method. The view controller is not the root, which is a tab bar controller. The VC in question is the one for the default selected tab on the tab bar. It's getting instantiated by IB. Nothing like this has occurred before in my experience, and it's throwing off the important initialization I'm doing in the AppDelegate (getting objects from Core Data and preparing them for use) . Furthermore, it's intermittent -- sometimes the delegate does finish first. Has anyone else noticed a difficulty like this? Any sample code that deals with such an issue? I suppose that the answer is to make the VC load the data that the AppDelegate is getting ready only when the AppDelegate sends a message that it's ready. I'm a bit concerned that this is adding something that will just end up biting me in the butt later on.

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