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  • Rails. Putting update logic in your migrations

    - by Daniel Abrahamsson
    A couple of times I've been in the situation where I've wanted to refactor the design of some model and have ended up putting update logic in migrations. However, as far as I've understood, this is not good practice (especially since you are encouraged to use your schema file for deployment, and not your migrations). How do you deal with these kind of problems? To clearify what I mean, say I have a User model. Since I thought there would only be two kinds of users, namely a "normal" user and an administrator, I chose to use a simple boolean field telling whether the user was an adminstrator or not. However, after I while I figured I needed some third kind of user, perhaps a moderator or something similar. In this case I add a UserType model (and the corresponding migration), and a second migration for removing the "admin" flag from the user table. And here comes the problem. In the "add_user_type_to_users" migration I have to map the admin flag value to a user type. Additionally, in order to do this, the user types have to exist, meaning I can not use the seeds file, but rather create the user types in the migration (also considered bad practice). Here comes some fictional code representing the situation: class CreateUserTypes < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :user_types do |t| t.string :name, :nil => false, :unique => true end #Create basic types (can not put in seed, because of future migration dependency) UserType.create!(:name => "BASIC") UserType.create!(:name => "MODERATOR") UserType.create!(:name => "ADMINISTRATOR") end def self.down drop_table :user_types end end class AddTypeIdToUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up add_column :users, :type_id, :integer #Determine type via the admin flag basic = UserType.find_by_name("BASIC") admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") User.all.each {|u| u.update_attribute(:type_id, (u.admin?) ? admin.id : basic.id)} #Remove the admin flag remove_column :users, :admin #Add foreign key execute "alter table users add constraint fk_user_type_id foreign key (type_id) references user_types (id)" end def self.down #Re-add the admin flag add_column :users, :admin, :boolean, :default => false #Reset the admin flag (this is the problematic update code) admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") execute "update users set admin=true where type_id=#{admin.id}" #Remove foreign key constraint execute "alter table users drop foreign key fk_user_type_id" #Drop the type_id column remove_column :users, :type_id end end As you can see there are two problematic parts. First the row creation part in the first model, which is necessary if I would like to run all migrations in a row, then the "update" part in the second migration that maps the "admin" column to the "type_id" column. Any advice?

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  • EJB failure to update datamodel

    - by Ignacio
    Here my EJB @Entity @Table(name = "modelos") @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name = "Modelos.findAll", query = "SELECT m FROM Modelos m"), @NamedQuery(name = "Modelos.findById", query = "SELECT m FROM Modelos m WHERE m.id = :id"), @NamedQuery(name = "Modelos.findByDescripcion", query = "SELECT m FROM Modelos m WHERE m.descripcion = :descripcion")}) public class Modelos implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "id") private Integer id; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "descripcion") private String descripcion; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, mappedBy = "idModelo") private Collection produtosCollection; @JoinColumn(name = "id_marca", referencedColumnName = "id") @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Marcas idMarca; public Modelos() { } public Modelos(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public Modelos(Integer id, String descripcion) { this.id = id; this.descripcion = descripcion; } public Modelos(Integer id, Marcas idMarca) { this.id = id; this.idMarca = idMarca; } public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getDescripcion() { return descripcion; } public void setDescripcion(String descripcion) { this.descripcion = descripcion; } public Collection<Produtos> getProdutosCollection() { return produtosCollection; } public void setProdutosCollection(Collection<Produtos> produtosCollection) { this.produtosCollection = produtosCollection; } public Marcas getIdMarca() { return idMarca; } public void setIdMarca(Marcas idMarca) { this.idMarca = idMarca; } @Override public int hashCode() { int hash = 0; hash += (id != null ? id.hashCode() : 0); return hash; } @Override public boolean equals(Object object) { // TODO: Warning - this method won't work in the case the id fields are not set if (!(object instanceof Modelos)) { return false; } Modelos other = (Modelos) object; if ((this.id == null && other.id != null) || (this.id != null && !this.id.equals(other.id))) { return false; } return true; } @Override public String toString() { return "" + descripcion + ""; } } And the method accesing from the Modelosfacade public List findByMarcas(Marcas idMarca){ return em.createQuery("SELECT id, descripcion FROM Modelos WHERE idMarca = "+idMarca.getId()+"").getResultList(); } And the calling method from the controller public String createByMarcas() { //recreateModel(); items = new ListDataModel(ejbFacade.findByMarcas(current.getIdMarca())); updateCurrentItem(); System.out.println(current.getIdMarca()); return "List"; } I do not understand why I keep falling in an EJB exception.

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  • Performance issue when querying a large xml file through php/ajax on Apache Server

    - by Niall
    Hey, I have a simple "live search" (results displayed while typing) web site. This make up is Ajax to PHP querying a pretty large XML document (10,000+ lines). This is all been hosted on a local Apache server (xamp). The scale of the xml document seems to be causing huge performance issue with results taking 10ish seconds to give the results. I'm very new to PHP (this actually being my first play about) so there below is a snippet of code in case there is something obvious for($i=0; $i<($foodListXML->length); $i++){ $type=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('type'); $foodnote=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('foodnote'); $style=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('style'); if ($type->item(0)->nodeType==1) { //find a link matching the search text if (stristr($type->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue,$q)){ $currentFoodName = $type->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; $currentFoodStyle = $style->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; $currentFoodNote = $foodnote->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; if ($hint==""){ $hint= $currentFoodName . " , " . $currentFoodNote . " , <b>" . $currentFoodStyle. "</b>" . "<br>" ; } else{ $hint=$hint . $currentFoodName . " , " . $currentFoodNote . " , <b>" . $currentFoodStyle. "</b>" . "<br>" ; } } } } } Also if having the data in a DB and accessing that is faster, then I'm open to that.. All ideas really!! Thanks.

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  • Parallel.For maintain input list order on output list

    - by romeozor
    I'd like some input on keeping the order of a list during heavy-duty operations that I decided to try to do in a parallel manner to see if it boosts performance. (It did!) I came up with a solution, but since this was my first attempt at anything parallel, I'd need someone to slap my hands if I did something very stupid. There's a query that returns a list of card owners, sorted by name, then by date of birth. This needs to be rendered in a table on a web page (ASP.Net WebForms). The original coder decided he would construct the table cell-by-cell (TableCell), add them to rows (TableRow), then each row to the table. So no GridView, allegedly its performance is bad, but the performance was very poor regardless :). The database query returns in no time, the most time is spent on looping through the results and adding table cells etc. I made the following method to maintain the original order of the list: private TableRow[] ComposeRows(List<CardHolder> queryResult) { int queryElementsCount = queryResult.Count(); // array with the query's size var rowArray = new TableRow[queryElementsCount]; Parallel.For(0, queryElementsCount, i => { var row = new TableRow(); var cell = new TableCell(); // various operations, including simple ones such as: cell.Text = queryResult[i].Name; row.Cells.Add(cell); // here I'm adding the current item to it's original index // to maintain order in the output list rowArray[i] = row; }); return rowArray; } So as you can see, because I'm returning a very different type of data (List<CardHolder> -> TableRow[]), I can't just simply omit the ordering from the original query to do it after the operations. Also, I also thought it would be a good idea to Dispose() the objects at the end of each loop, because the query can return a huge list and letting cell and row objects pile up in the heap could impact performance.(?) How badly did I do? Does anyone have a better solution in case mine is flawed?

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  • Java: omitting a data member from the equals method.

    - by cchampion
    public class GamePiece { public GamePiece(char cLetter, int nPointValue) { m_cLetter=cLetter; m_nPointValue=nPointValue; m_nTurnPlaced=0; //has not been placed on game board yet. } public char GetLetter() {return m_cLetter;} public int GetPointValue() {return m_nPointValue;} public int GetTurnPlaced() {return m_nTurnPlaced;} public void SetTurnPlaced(int nTurnPlaced) { m_nTurnPlaced=nTurnPlaced; } @Override public boolean equals(Object obj) { /*NOTE to keep this shorter I omitted some of the null checking and instanceof stuff. */ GamePiece other = (GamePiece) obj; //not case sensitive, and I don`t think we want it to be here. if(m_cLetter != other.m_cLetter) { return false; } if(m_nPointValue != other.m_nPointValue) { return false; } /* NOTICE! m_nPointValue purposely omitted. It does not affect hashcode or equals */ return true; } @Override public int hashCode() { /* NOTICE! m_nPointValue purposely omitted. It should not affect hashcode or equals */ final int prime = 41; return prime * (prime + m_nPointValue + m_cLetter); } private char m_cLetter; private int m_nPointValue; private int m_nTurnPlaced;//turn which the game piece was placed on the game board. Does not affect equals or has code! } Consider the given piece of code. This object has been immutable until the introduction of the m_nTurnPlaced member (which can be modified by the SetTurnPlaced method, so now GamePiece becomes mutable). GamePiece is used in an ArrayList, I call contains and remove methods which both rely on the equals method to be implemented. My question is this, is it ok or common practice in Java for some members to not affect equals and hashcode? How will this affect its use in my ArrayList? What type of java Collections would it NOT be safe to use this object now that it is mutable? I've been told that you're not supposed to override equals on mutable objects because it causes some collections to behave "strangely" (I read that somewhere in the java documentation).

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  • Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Hibernate Based Java Servlet application powered by MySQL

    - by Vatsala
    Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?) edit - Here are the c3p0 parameters I tried out - select 1; 2

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  • Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture not working consistently

    - by xTRUMANx
    I've been working on a pet project on the weekends to learn more about C# and have encountered an odd problem when working with localization. To be more specific, the problem I have is with System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture. I've set up my app so that the user can quickly change the language of the app by clicking a menu item. The menu item in turn, saves the two-letter code for the language (e.g. "en", "fr", etc.) in a user setting called 'Language' and then restarts the application. Properties.Settings.Default.Language = "en"; Properties.Settings.Default.Save(); Application.Restart(); When the application is started up, the first line of code in the Form's constructor (even before InitializeComponent()) fetches the Language string from the settings and sets the CurrentUICulture like so: public Form1() { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = new CultureInfo(Properties.Settings.Default.Language); InitializeComponent(); } The thing is, this doesn't work consistently. Sometimes, all works well and the application loads the correct language based on the string saved in the settings file. Other times, it doesn't, and the language remains the same after the application is restarted. At first I thought that I didn't save the language before restarting the application but that is definitely not the case. When the correct language fails to load, if I were to close the application and run it again, the correct language would come up correctly. So this implies that the Language string has been saved but the CurrentUICulture assignment in my form constructor is having no effect sometimes. Any help? Is there something I'm missing of how threading works in C#? This could be machine-specific, so if it makes any difference I'm using Pentium Dual-Core CPU. UPDATE Vlad asked me to check what the CurrentThread's CurrentUICulture is. So I added a MessageBox on my constructor to tell me what the CurrentUICulture two-letter code is as well as the value of my Language user string. MessageBox.Show(string.Format("Current Language: {0}\nCurrent UI Culture: {1}", Properties.Settings.Default.Language, Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.TwoLetterISOLanguageName)); When the wrong language is loaded, both the Language string and CurrentUICulture have the wrong language. So I guess the CurrentUICulture has been cleared and my problem is actually with the Language Setting. So I guess the problem is that my application sometimes loads the previously saved language string rather than the last saved language string. If the app is restarted, it will then load the actual saved language string.

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  • bundler/capistrano is not installing gems with correct ruby version

    - by Douglas
    I'm trying to deploy my first app on a server with Capistrano, and I'm a bit lost with managing gemsets and ruby version. These are my (server and workstation) versions : Rails 3.2.8 RVM 1.16.17 Gem 1.8.24 Bundler 1.2.1 pg gem 0.14.1 My gemset are : Gemsets for ruby-1.9.3-p194 (found in /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194) (default) global = rail3dev20120606 I set the default gemset with : rvm use 1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606 --default --passenger When I run a : cap bundle:install The task end with success, but when I do a : gem list There are many missing gems though they are present in my Gemfile. When I go to check my gems in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/ I find a folder called 1.9.1 and in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/gems/ I can fond all of my needed gems (specified in Gemfile). I'm sure there is a problem with ruby version, but how do I solve this ? At the moment, if I do any rake command, I got a ruby crash [Bug] Segmentation fault, as it try to access the db and using postgresql_adapter. I think as many gems are missing there must have some gem dependencies not verified, and maybe a gem is using an incompatible ruby version 1.9.1 though it expect a 1.9.3. I think the issue is around managing ruby versions and gems. I'm certainly doing some mix with gemset and my capistrano deployement. I'm missing experience and info. Could anybody advise me how to handle this on the server ? What are the best practices ? How am I suppose to update my ruby version ? with Capistrano deploy.rb ? manually ? with/without rvm ? I saw a new version of ruby 1.9.3-p327 has just released. Should I use gemset or not ? What about the :rvm_ruby_string in my deploy.rb. Is it correctly spelled or should I remove the p194 part ? Should I Remove the :rvm_ruby_string ? Keep it ? Use a .rvmrc file ??? I'm really lost and some kind help would be welcome. This is my config/deploy.rb in any case : require 'bundler/capistrano' require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'deploy') + '/capistrano_database' set :rvm_type, :system set :rvm_ruby_string, 'ruby-1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606' require 'rvm/capistrano' set :application, 'opf' set :deploy_to, '/var/www/opf' set :rails_env, 'production' set :user, 'the_user' set :use_sudo, false set :group_writable, false set :scm, :git set :repository, '[email protected]:user/opf.git' set :branch, 'master' default_run_options[:pty] = true set :deploy_via, :remote_cache server '192.168.5.200', :web, :app, :db, :primary => true # If you are using Passenger mod_rails uncomment this: namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles => :app, :except => { :no_release => true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Thanks for any help

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  • dynamiclly schedule a lead sales agent

    - by Josh
    I have a website that I'm trying to migrate from classic asp to asp.net. It had a lead schedule, where each sales agent would be featured for the current day, or part of the day.The next day a new agent would be scheduled. It was driven off a database table that had a row for each day in it. So to figure out if a sales agent would show on a day, it was easy, just find today's date in the table. Problem was it ran out rows, and you had to run a script to update the lead days 6 months at a time. Plus if there was ever any change to the schedule, you had to delete all the rows and re-run the script. So I'm trying to code it where sql server figures that out for me, and no script has to be ran. I have a table like so CREATE TABLE [dbo].[LeadSchedule]( [leadid] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [int] NOT NULL, [sunday] [bit] NOT NULL, [monday] [bit] NOT NULL, [tuesday] [bit] NOT NULL, [wednesday] [bit] NOT NULL, [thursday] [bit] NOT NULL, [friday] [bit] NOT NULL, [saturday] [bit] NOT NULL, [StartDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [EndDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [StartTime] [time](0) NULL, [EndTime] [time](0) NULL, [order] [int] NULL, So the user can schedule a sales agent depending on their work schedule. Also if they wanted to they could split certain days, or sales agents by time, So from Midnight to 4 it was one agent, from 4-midnight it was another. So far I've tried using a numbers table, row numbers, goofy date math, and I'm at a loss. Any suggestions on how to handle this purely from sql code? If it helps, the table should always be small, like less than 20 never over 100. update After a few hours all I've managed to come up with is the below. It doesn't handle filling in days not available or times, just rotates through all the sales agents with leadTable as ( select leadid,userid,[order],StartDate, case DATEPART(dw,getdate()) when 1 then sunday when 2 then monday when 3 then tuesday when 4 then wednesday when 5 then thursday when 6 then friday when 7 then saturday end as DayAvailable , ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [order] ASC) AS ROWID from LeadSchedule where GETDATE()>=StartDate and (CONVERT(time(0),GETDATE())>= StartTime or StartTime is null) and (CONVERT(time(0),GETDATE())<= EndTime or EndTime is null) ) select userid, DATEADD(d,(number+ROWID-2)*totalUsers,startdate ) leadday from (select *, (select COUNT(1) from leadTable) totalUsers from leadTable inner join Numbers on 1=1 where DayAvailable =1 ) tb1 order by leadday asc

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  • Is there a way to split a widescreen monitor in to two or more virtual monitors?

    - by Mike Thompson
    Like most developers I have grown to love dual monitors. I won't go into all the reasons for their goodness; just take it as a given. However, they are not perfect. You can never seem to line them up "just right". You always end up with the monitors at slight funny angles. And of course the bezel always gets in the way. And this is with identical monitors. The problem is much worse with different monitors -- VMWare's multi monitor feature won't even work with monitors of differnt resolutions. When you use multiple monnitors, one of them becomes your primary monitor of focus. Your focus may flip from one monitor to the other, but at any point in time you are usually focusing on only one monitor. There are exceptions to this (WinDiff, Excel), but this is generally the case. I suggest that having a single large monitor with all the benefits of multiple smaller monitors would be a better solution. Wide screen monitors are fantastic, but it is hard to use all the space efficiently. If you are writing code you are generally working on the left-hand side of the window. If you maximize an editor on a wide-screen monitor the right-hand side of the window will be a sea of white. Programs like WinSplit Revolution will help to organise your windows, but this is really just addressing the symptom, not the problem. Even with WinSplit Revolution, when you maximise a window it will take up the whole screen. You can't lock a window into a specific section of the screen. This is where virtual monitors comes in. What would be really nice is a video driver that sits on top of the existing driver, but allows a single monitor to be virtualised into multiple monitors. Control Panel would see your single physical monitor as two or more virtual monitors. The software could even support a virtual bezel to emphasise what is happening, or you could opt for seamless mode. Programs like WinSplit Revolution and UltraMon would still work. This virtual video driver would allow you to slice & dice your physical monitor into as many virtual monitors as you want. Does anybody know if such software exists? If not, are there any budding Windows display driver guru's out there willing to take up the challenge? I am not after the myriad of virtual desktop/window manager programs that are available. I get frustrated with these programs. They seem good at first but they usually have some strange behaviour and don't work well with other programs (such as WinSplit Revolution). I want the real thing!

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  • ASP.NET- forcing child/container events to fire before parent onload?

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on a questionnaire type application in which questions are stored in a database. Therefore, I create my controls dynamically on every Page.OnLoad. This works like a charm and ViewState is persisted between postbacks because I ensure that my dynamic controls always have the same generated Control.ID. In addition to the user control that dynamically populates the questions, my questionnaire page also contains a 'Status' section (also encapsulated by a user control) which represents the status of the questionnaire (choices are 'Complete', 'Started' or 'In Progress'). If the user changes the status of questionnaire (i.e. from 'In Progress' to 'Complete'), I need to postback to the server because the contents of the dynamic portion of the questionnaire depend on the selected status. Some questions are always present regardless of status, and yet others may not be present at all for the selected status. The point is, when the status changes, I have to postback to the page and render the right set of questions. Additionally, I need to preserve any user entered values for those questions which are 'always available'. However, due to the page life cycle in ASP.NET, the 'Status' user control's OnLoad, which contains the correct status needed to load the right questions from the DB, doesn't get executed until after the 'dynamic questions' user control has already been populated (with the wrong/stale values). To get around this, I raise an event from my 'Status' user control to the main page to indicate that the Status has changed. The main page then raises an event on the 'dynamic questions' user control. Since by the time this event bubbles up, the 'dynamic questions' user control has already loaded the 'wrong' questions from the DB, it first calls Controls.Clear. It then happily uses the new status to query the database for the 'correct' questions and does a Control.Add() on each. FYI, Control.IDs are consistent across postbacks. This solution works...sorta. The correct set of questions for the selected status do get rendered; however ViewState is getting lost for those 'always available' questions. I'm guessing this is because the 'dynamic questions' user control calls Controls.Clear when responding to the status changed event. This must somehow kill the association between ViewState and my dynamic controls, even though the Control.ID are consistent. This seems like such a common requirement, I'm virtually certain there is a better, cleaner and less error prone approach to accomplish this. In case its not plain obvious, I haven't been able to grok the ASP.NET page life-cycle despite working with it for the last year. Any help is much appreciated!

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  • Failed to obtain JDBC Driver for MySQL under Tomcat environment

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I've been trying to obtain the Driver class for JDBC connection to MySQL. The workstation is running on Linux, Fedora 10. I have manually set up the classpath variable for Java by CLI like this: bash-3.2$ echo $CLASSPATH /home/cmao/public_html/jsp/mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin.jar This shows that I've added the lastest mysql connection jar archive to my CLASSPATH variable. I've created a test JSP page which can be found here And source code for this page is: <%@page language="java"%> <%@page import="java.sql.*"%> <%@page import="java.util.*"%> <html> <head> <title>UTS JDBC MySQL connection test page</title> </head> <body> <% Connection con = null; out.print("Java version is : " + System.getProperty("java.version") + "<br />"); out.print("Tomcat version is : " + application.getServerInfo() + "<br />"); out.print("Servlet version is: " + application.getMajorVersion() + "<br />"); out.print("JSP version is : " + JspFactory.getDefaultFactory().getEngineInfo().getSpecificationVersion() +"<br />"); //out.print("Java classpath is : " + System.getProperty("java.class.path")+ "<br />"); //out.print("JSP classpath is : " + appliaction.getAttribute("org.apache.catalina.jsp_classpath") + "<br />"); //out.print("Tomcat classpath is : " + System.getProperty("org.apache.tomcat.common.classpath") + "<br />"); try { Class c = Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); } catch(Exception e) { out.println("Error! Failed to obtain JDBC driver for MySQL... Missing class \"com.mysql.jdbc.Driver\"<br />"); } %> </body> </html> None of those commented out line would work, various Jsper Expetions would be thrown. You can check those Error pages from the following links: classpath Error page catalina Error page tomcat Error page It seems, from my limited knowledge of JSP and Servlet, the Tomcat environment "ignores" my Java CLASSPATH? In which case I cannot configure the MySQL JDBC package to let my Servlets(a JSP is but a Servlet anyway) work. I am not sure how to fix this issue. would it be better if I use an IDE like Eclipse or NetBeans and create a real Java "web app" so that everything can be "self-configured" by the usage of a web.config XML configuration file? So that I can certainly bypass this Tomcat environment restriction? Many thanks for the suggestions in advance.

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  • Killing Mysql prcoesses staying in sleep command.

    - by Shino88
    Hey I am connecting a MYSQL database through hibernate and i seem to have processes that are not being killed after they are finished in the session. I have called flush and close on each session but when i check the server the last processes are still there with a sleep command. This is a new problem which i am having and was not the case yesterday. Is there any way i can ensure the killng of theses processes when i am done with a session. Below is an example of one of my classes. public JSONObject check() { //creates a new session needed to add elements to a database Session session = null; //holds the result of the check in the database JSONObject check = new JSONObject(); try{ //creates a new session needed to add elements to a database SessionFactory sessionFactory = new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); session = sessionFactory.openSession(); if (justusername){ //query created to select a username from user table String hquery = "Select username from User user Where username = ? "; //query created Query query = session.createQuery(hquery); //sets the username of the query the values JSONObject contents query.setString(0, username); // executes query and adds username string variable String user = (String) query.uniqueResult(); //checks to see if result is found (null if not found) if (user == null) { //adds false to Jobject if not found check.put("indatabase", "false"); } else { check.put("indatabase", "true"); } //adds check to Jobject to say just to check username check.put("justusername", true); } else { //query created to select a username and password from user table String hquery = "Select username from User user Where username = :user and password = :pass "; Query query = session.createQuery(hquery); query.setString("user", username); query.setString("pass", password); String user = (String) query.uniqueResult(); if(user ==null) { check.put("indatabase", false); } else { check.put("indatabase", true); } check.put("justusername", false); } }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); //logg.log(Level.WARNING, " Exception", e.getMessage()); }finally{ // Actual contact insertion will happen at this step session.flush(); session.close(); } //returns Jobject return check; }

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  • How can i convert this to a factory/abstract factory?

    - by Amitd
    I'm using MigraDoc to create a pdf document. I have business entities similar to the those used in MigraDoc. public class Page{ public List<PageContent> Content { get; set; } } public abstract class PageContent { public int Width { get; set; } public int Height { get; set; } public Margin Margin { get; set; } } public class Paragraph : PageContent{ public string Text { get; set; } } public class Table : PageContent{ public int Rows { get; set; } public int Columns { get; set; } //.... more } In my business logic, there are rendering classes for each type public interface IPdfRenderer<T> { T Render(MigraDoc.DocumentObjectModel.Section s); } class ParagraphRenderer : IPdfRenderer<MigraDoc.DocumentObjectModel.Paragraph> { BusinessEntities.PDF.Paragraph paragraph; public ParagraphRenderer(BusinessEntities.PDF.Paragraph p) { paragraph = p; } public MigraDoc.DocumentObjectModel.Paragraph Render(MigraDoc.DocumentObjectModel.Section s) { var paragraph = s.AddParagraph(); // add text from paragraph etc return paragraph; } } public class TableRenderer : IPdfRenderer<MigraDoc.DocumentObjectModel.Tables.Table> { BusinessEntities.PDF.Table table; public TableRenderer(BusinessEntities.PDF.Table t) { table =t; } public MigraDoc.DocumentObjectModel.Tables.Table Render(Section obj) { var table = obj.AddTable(); //fill table based on table } } I want to create a PDF page as : var document = new Document(); var section = document.AddSection();// section is a page in pdf var page = GetPage(1); // get a page from business classes foreach (var content in page.Content) { //var renderer = createRenderer(content); // // get Renderer based on Business type ?? // renderer.Render(section) } For createRenderer() i can use switch case/dictionary and return type. How can i get/create the renderer generically based on type ? How can I use factory or abstract factory here? Or which design pattern better suits this problem?

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  • IQueryable and lazy loading

    - by Nelson
    I'm having a hard time determining the best way to handle this... With Entity Framework (and L2S), LINQ queries return IQueryable. I have read various opinions on whether the DAL/BLL should return IQueryable, IEnumerable or IList. Assuming we go with IList, then the query is run immediately and that control is not passed on to the next layer. This makes it easier to unit test, etc. You lose the ability to refine the query at higher levels, but you could simply create another method that allows you to refine the query and still return IList. And there are many more pros/cons. So far so good. Now comes Entity Framework and lazy loading. I am using POCO objects with proxies in .NET 4/VS 2010. In the presentation layer I do: foreach (Order order in bll.GetOrders()) { foreach (OrderLine orderLine in order.OrderLines) { // Do something } } In this case, GetOrders() returns IList so it executes immediately before returning to the PL. But in the next foreach, you have lazy loading which executes multiple SQL queries as it gets all the OrderLines. So basically, the PL is running SQL queries "on demand" in the wrong layer. Is there any sensible way to avoid this? I could turn lazy loading off, but then what's the point of having this "feature" that everyone was complaining EF1 didn't have? And I'll admit it is very useful in many scenarios. So I see several options: Somehow remove all associations in the entities and add methods to return them. This goes against the default EF behavior/code generation and makes it harder to do some composite (multiple entity) LINQ queries. It seems like a step backwards. I vote no. If we have lazy loading anyway which makes it hard to unit test, then go all the way and return IQueryable. You'll have more control farther up the layers. I still don't think this is a good option because IQueryable ties you to L2S, L2E, or your own full implementation of IQueryable. Lazy loading may run queries "on demand", but doesn't tie you to any specific interface. I vote no. Turn off lazy loading. You'll have to handle your associations manually. This could be with eager loading's .Include(). I vote yes in some specific cases. Keep IList and lazy loading. I vote yes in many cases, only due to the troubles with the others. Any other options or suggestions? I haven't found an option that really convinces me.

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  • Is it possible to reliably auto-decode user files to Unicode? [C#]

    - by NVRAM
    I have a web application that allows users to upload their content for processing. The processing engine expects UTF8 (and I'm composing XML from multiple users' files), so I need to ensure that I can properly decode the uploaded files. Since I'd be surprised if any of my users knew their files even were encoded, I have very little hope they'd be able to correctly specify the encoding (decoder) to use. And so, my application is left with task of detecting before decoding. This seems like such a universal problem, I'm surprised not to find either a framework capability or general recipe for the solution. Can it be I'm not searching with meaningful search terms? I've implemented BOM-aware detection (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Byte_order_mark) but I'm not sure how often files will be uploaded w/o a BOM to indicate encoding, and this isn't useful for most non-UTF files. My questions boil down to: Is BOM-aware detection sufficient for the vast majority of files? In the case where BOM-detection fails, is it possible to try different decoders and determine if they are "valid"? (My attempts indicate the answer is "no.") Under what circumstances will a "valid" file fail with the C# encoder/decoder framework? Is there a repository anywhere that has a multitude of files with various encodings to use for testing? While I'm specifically asking about C#/.NET, I'd like to know the answer for Java, Python and other languages for the next time I have to do this. So far I've found: A "valid" UTF-16 file with Ctrl-S characters has caused encoding to UTF-8 to throw an exception (Illegal character?) (That was an XML encoding exception.) Decoding a valid UTF-16 file with UTF-8 succeeds but gives text with null characters. Huh? Currently, I only expect UTF-8, UTF-16 and probably ISO-8859-1 files, but I want the solution to be extensible if possible. My existing set of input files isn't nearly broad enough to uncover all the problems that will occur with live files. Although the files I'm trying to decode are "text" I think they are often created w/methods that leave garbage characters in the files. Hence "valid" files may not be "pure". Oh joy. Thanks.

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  • Hotfixing Code running inside Web Container with Groovy

    - by raoulsson
    I have a webapp running that has a bug. I know how to fix it in the sources. However I cannot redeploy the app as I would have to take it offline to do so. (At least not right now). I now want to fix the code "at runtime". Surgery on the living object, so to speak. The app is implemented in Java and is build on top of Seam. I have added a Groovy Console to the app previous to the last release. (A way to run arbitrary code at runtime) The normal way of adding behaviour to a class with Groovy would be similar to this: String.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } println "anything".foo(3) This code added the method foo to java.lang.String and prints 9. I can do the same thing with classes running inside my webapp container. New instances will thereafter show the same behaviour: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) Works as excpected. All good so far. My problem is now that the container, the web framework, Seam in this case, has already instantiated and cached the classes that I would like to manipulate (that is change their behaviour to reflect my bug fix). Ideally this code would work: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def x = org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(com.my.package.SomeService) println x.foo(3) However the instantiation of SomeService has already happened and there is no effect. Thus I need a way to make my changes "sticky". Has the groovy magic gone after my script has been run? Well, after logging out and in again, I can run this piece of code and get the expected result: def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) So the foo method is still around and it looks like my change has been permanent... So I guess the question that remains is how to force Seam to re-instantiate all its components and/or how to permanently make the change on all living instances...?

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  • Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

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  • php pdo connection scope

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a connection class I found for pdo. I am calling the connection method on the page that the file is included on. The problem is that within functions the $conn variable is not defined even though I stated the method was public (bare with me I am very new to OOP), and I was wondering if anyone had an elegant solution other then using global in every function. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. CONNECTION class PDOConnectionFactory{ // receives the connection public $con = null; // swich database? public $dbType = "mysql"; // connection parameters // when it will not be necessary leaves blank only with the double quotations marks "" public $host = "localhost"; public $user = "user"; public $senha = "password"; public $db = "database"; // arrow the persistence of the connection public $persistent = false; // new PDOConnectionFactory( true ) <--- persistent connection // new PDOConnectionFactory() <--- no persistent connection public function PDOConnectionFactory( $persistent=false ){ // it verifies the persistence of the connection if( $persistent != false){ $this->persistent = true; } } public function getConnection(){ try{ // it carries through the connection $this->con = new PDO($this->dbType.":host=".$this->host.";dbname=".$this->db, $this->user, $this->senha, array( PDO::ATTR_PERSISTENT => $this->persistent ) ); // carried through successfully, it returns connected return $this->con; // in case that an error occurs, it returns the error; }catch ( PDOException $ex ){ echo "We are currently experiencing technical difficulties. We have a bunch of monkies working really hard to fix the problem. Check back soon: ".$ex->getMessage(); } } // close connection public function Close(){ if( $this->con != null ) $this->con = null; } } PAGE USED ON include("includes/connection.php"); $db = new PDOConnectionFactory(); $conn = $db->getConnection(); function test(){ try{ $sql = 'SELECT * FROM topic'; $stmt = $conn->prepare($sql); $result=$stmt->execute(); } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } } test();

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  • What am I not getting about this abstract class implementation?

    - by Schnapple
    PREFACE: I'm relatively inexperienced in C++ so this very well could be a Day 1 n00b question. I'm working on something whose long term goal is to be portable across multiple operating systems. I have the following files: Utilities.h #include <string> class Utilities { public: Utilities() { }; virtual ~Utilities() { }; virtual std::string ParseString(std::string const& RawString) = 0; }; UtilitiesWin.h (for the Windows class/implementation) #include <string> #include "Utilities.h" class UtilitiesWin : public Utilities { public: UtilitiesWin() { }; virtual ~UtilitiesWin() { }; virtual std::string ParseString(std::string const& RawString); }; UtilitiesWin.cpp #include <string> #include "UtilitiesWin.h" std::string UtilitiesWin::ParseString(std::string const& RawString) { // Magic happens here! // I'll put in a line of code to make it seem valid return ""; } So then elsewhere in my code I have this #include <string> #include "Utilities.h" void SomeProgram::SomeMethod() { Utilities *u = new Utilities(); StringData = u->ParseString(StringData); // StringData defined elsewhere } The compiler (Visual Studio 2008) is dying on the instance declaration c:\somepath\somecode.cpp(3) : error C2259: 'Utilities' : cannot instantiate abstract class due to following members: 'std::string Utilities::ParseString(const std::string &)' : is abstract c:\somepath\utilities.h(9) : see declaration of 'Utilities::ParseString' So in this case what I'm wanting to do is use the abstract class (Utilities) like an interface and have it know to go to the implemented version (UtilitiesWin). Obviously I'm doing something wrong but I'm not sure what. It occurs to me as I'm writing this that there's probably a crucial connection between the UtilitiesWin implementation of the Utilities abstract class that I've missed, but I'm not sure where. I mean, the following works #include <string> #include "UtilitiesWin.h" void SomeProgram::SomeMethod() { Utilities *u = new UtilitiesWin(); StringData = u->ParseString(StringData); // StringData defined elsewhere } but it means I'd have to conditionally go through the different versions later (i.e., UtilitiesMac(), UtilitiesLinux(), etc.) What have I missed here?

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  • jQuery AJAX Web service works only locally

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have a simple ASP.NET Web Service [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { } [WebMethod] public string SetName(string name) { return "hello my dear friend " + name; } } For this Web Service I created Virtual Directory, so I can receive the access by taping http://localhost:89/Service.asmx. I try to call it via simple html page with jQuery. For this purpose I use function CallWS() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "{'name':'Pumba'}", dataType: "json", url: "http://localhost:89/Service.asmx/SetName", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (msg) { $('#DIVid').html(msg.d); }, error: function (e) { $('#DIVid').html("Error"); } }); The most interesting fact: If I create the html page in the project with my WebService and change url to Service.asmx/SetName everything works excellent. But if I try to call this webservice remotely - success function works but msg is null. After that I tried to call this service even via SOAP. It is the the same - locally it works excellent, but remotely - not at all. var ServiceUrl = 'http://localhost:89/Service.asmx?op=SetName'; function beginSetName(Name) { var soapMessage = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <SetName xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <name>' + Name + '</name> </SetName> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope>'; $.ajax({ url: ServiceUrl, type: "POST", dataType: "xml", data: soapMessage, complete: endSetName, contentType: "text/xml; charset=\"utf-8\"" }); return false; } function endSetName(xmlHttpRequest, status) { $(xmlHttpRequest.responseXML) .find('SetNameResult') .each(function () { var name = $(this).text(); alert(name); }); } In this case status has value "parseerror". Could you please help me to resolve this problem? What should I do to call another WebService remotely by url via jQuery. Thank you in advance, Greg

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  • Is there anyway to exclude artifacts inherited from a parent POM?

    - by Miguel
    Artifacts from dependencies can be excluded by declaring an <exclusions> element inside a <dependency> But in this case it's needed to exclude an artifact inherited from a parent project. An excerpt of the POM under discussion follows: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>test</groupId> <artifactId>jruby</artifactId> <version>0.0.1-SNAPSHOT</version> <parent> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> </parent> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>com.liferay.portal</groupId> <artifactId>ALL-DEPS</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> <scope>provided</scope> <type>pom</type> </dependency> </dependencies> </project> base artifact, depends on javax.mail:mail-1.4.jar, and ALL-DEPS depends on another version of the same library. Due to the fact that mail.jar from ALL-DEPS exist on the execution environment, although not exported, collides with the mail.jar that exists on the parent, which is scoped as compile. A solution could be to rid off mail.jar from the parent POM, but most of the projects that inherit base, need it (as is a transtive dependency for log4j). So What I would like to do is to simply exclude parent's library from the child project, as it could be done if base was a dependency and not the parent pom: ... <dependency> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> <type>pom<type> <exclusions> <exclusion> <groupId>javax.mail</groupId> <artifactId>mail</artifactId> </exclusion> </exclusions> </dependency> ...

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  • How to troubleshoot a Highcharts script that's not rendering data when date is added and hanging the JS engine with large datasets?

    - by ylluminate
    I have a Highchart JS graph that I'm building in Rails (although I don't think Ruby has real bearing on this problem unless it's the Date output format) to which I'm adding the timestamp of each datapoint. Presently the array of floats is rendering fine without timestamps, however when I add the timestamp to the series it fails to rend. What's worse is that when the series has hundreds of entries all sorts of problems arise, not the least of which is the browser entirely hanging and requiring a force quit / kill. I'm using the following to build the array of arrays data series: series1 = readings.map{|row| [(row.date.to_i * 1000), (row.data1.to_f if BigDecimal(row.data1) != BigDecimal("-1000.0"))] } This yields a result like this: series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-09],[1326262920000,1.29e-09],[1326262860000,1.22e-09],[1326262800000,1.42e-09],[1326262740000,1.29e-09],[1326262680000,1.34e-09],[1326262620000,1.31e-09],[1326262560000,1.51e-09],[1326262500000,1.24e-09],[1326262440000,1.7e-09],[1326262380000,1.24e-09],[1326262320000,1.29e-09],[1326262260000,1.53e-09],[1326262200000,1.23e-09],[1326262140000,1.21e-09]],"color":"blue"}] Yet nothing appears on the graph as noted. Notwithstanding, when I compare the data series in one of their very similar examples here: http://www.highcharts.com/demo/spline-irregular-time It appears that really the data series are formatted identically (except in mine I use the timestamp vs date method). This leads me to think I've got a problem with the timestamp output, but I'm just not able to figure out where / how as I'm converting the date output to an integer multipled by 1000 to convert it to milliseconds as per explained in a similar Railscasts tutorial. I would very much appreciate it if someone could point me in the right direction here as to what I may be doing wrong. What could cause no data to appear on the graph in smaller sized sets (<100 points) and when into the hundreds causes an apparent hang in the javascript engine in this case? Perhaps ultimately the key lies here as this is the entire js that's being generated and not rendering: jQuery(function() { // 1. Define JSON options var options = { chart: {"defaultSeriesType":"spline","renderTo":"chart_name"}, title: {"text":"Title"}, legend: {"layout":"vertical","style":{}}, xAxis: {"title":{"text":"UTC Time"},"type":"datetime"}, yAxis: [{"title":{"text":"Left Title","margin":10}},{"title":{"text":"Right Groups Title"},"opposite":true}], tooltip: {"enabled":true}, credits: {"enabled":false}, plotOptions: {"areaspline":{}}, series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-08],[1326262920000,1.69e-08],[1326262860000,1.62e-08],[1326262800000,1.42e-08],[1326262740000,1.29e-08],[1326262680000,1.34e-08],[1326262620000,1.31e-08],[1326262560000,1.51e-08],[1326262500000,1.64e-08],[1326262440000,1.7e-08],[1326262380000,1.64e-08],[1326262320000,1.69e-08],[1326262260000,1.53e-08],[1326262200000,1.23e-08],[1326262140000,1.21e-08]],"color":"blue"},{"name":"Data 2","data":[[1326262980000,9.79e-09],[1326262920000,9.78e-09],[1326262860000,9.8e-09],[1326262800000,9.82e-09],[1326262740000,9.88e-09],[1326262680000,9.89e-09],[1326262620000,1.3e-06],[1326262560000,1.32e-06],[1326262500000,1.33e-06],[1326262440000,1.33e-06],[1326262380000,1.34e-06],[1326262320000,1.33e-06],[1326262260000,1.32e-06],[1326262200000,1.32e-06],[1326262140000,1.32e-06]],"color":"red"}], subtitle: {} }; // 2. Add callbacks (non-JSON compliant) // 3. Build the chart var chart = new Highcharts.StockChart(options); });

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  • Sockets receiving null (Android)

    - by Henrik
    I have a android app that is communicating with a server (written in java). Between these two parts I have established a Socket connection and want to send data. The problem I am having is that sometimes, for some users, the information that reaches the server is null. This works (for all phones, all users): Server: int a = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); int b = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); int c = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); int d = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); String checksum = in.readLine(); String model = in.readLine(); String device = in.readLine(); String name = in.readLine(); Client: out.println(a); out.println(b); out.println(c); out.println(d); out.println(hash); out.println(Build.MODEL); out.println(Build.DEVICE); String name = fixName(); out.print(name); out.flush(); This does not work (for some users): Server: int a = Integer.parseInt(in.readLine()); String checksum = in.readLine(); String model = in.readLine(); String device = in.readLine(); String name = in.readLine(); String msg = in.readLine(); int version = -1; String test = "hej"; try{ test = in.readLine(); version = Integer.parseInt(test); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Client: out.println(a); out.println(hash); out.println(Build.MODEL); out.println(Build.DEVICE); String name = fixName(); if(name == null) name = "John Doe"; out.println(name); String msg = fixMsg(); if(msg == null) name = "nada"; out.println(msg); out.println(curversion); out.flush(); Sometimes, in the second case, the name, msg, and version (the string test) are null at the server side. The catch is triggered because test is null. curversion,a are ints, the rest are strings. Any ideas?

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  • How to successfully implement og:image for the LinkedIn

    - by Sabo
    THE PROBLEM: I am trying, without much success, to implement open graph image on site: http://www.guarenty-group.com/cz/ The homepage is completeply bypassing the og:image tag, where internal pages are reading all images from the site and place og:image as the last option. Other social networks are working fine on both internal pages and homepage. THE CONFIGURATION: I have no share buttons or alike, all I want is to be able to share the link via my profile. The image is well over 300x300px: http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png Here is how my head tag looks like: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Guarenty Group : Pojištení pro nájemce a pronajímatelé</title> <meta name="keywords" content="" /> <meta name="description" content="Guarenty Group pojištuje príjem z nájmu pronajímatelum, kauci nájemcum - aby nemuseli platit velkou cástku v hotovostí predem - a dále nájemcum pojištuje príjmy, aby meli na nájem pri nemoci, úrazu ci nezamestnání." /> <meta name="image_src" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta name="image_url" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta property="og:title" content="Pojištení pro nájemce a pronajímatelé" /> <meta property="og:url" content="http://guarenty-group.com/cz/" /> <meta property="og:image" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta property="og:description" content="Guarenty Group pojištuje príjem z nájmu pronajímatelum, kauci nájemcum - aby nemuseli platit velkou cástku v hotovostí predem - a dále nájemcum pojištuje príjmy, aby meli na nájem pri nemoci, úrazu ci nezamestnání [...]" /> ... </head> THE TESTING RESULTS: In order to trick the cache i have tested the site with http://www.guarenty-group.com/cz/?try=N, where I have changed the N every time. The strange thing is that images found for different value of N is different. Sometimes there is no image, sometimes there is 1, 2 or 3 images, but each time there is a different set of images. But, in any case I could not find the image specified in the og:graph! MY QUESTIONS: https://developer.linkedin.com/documents/setting-display-tags-shares is saying one thing, and the personnel on the support forum is saying "over 300" Does anyone know What is the official minimum dimension of the image (both w and h)? Can an image be too large? Should I use the xmlns, should I not use xmlns or it doesn't matter? What are the maximum (and minimum) lengths for og:title and og:description tags? Any other suggestion is of course welcomed :) Thanks in advance, cheers~

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