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  • ASP.NET MVC Page - Viewstate for Confirm email field is getting erased on Registration Page if valid

    - by Rita
    Hi I have a Registaration page with the following fields Email, Confirm Email, Password and Confrim Password. On Register Button click and post the model to the server, the Model validates and if that Email is already Registered, it displays the Validation Error Message "User already Exists. Please Login or Register with a different email ID". While we are displaying this validation error message, I am loosing the value of "Confirm Email" field. So that the user has to reenter again and I want to avoid this. Here I don't have confirm_Email field in my Model. Is there something special that has to be done to remain Confirm Email value on the Page even in case of Validation failure? Appreciate your responses. Here is my Code: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(false) %> <fieldset> <div class="cssform"> <p> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Email)%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Email, new { @class = "required email" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Email)%> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm email")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBox("confirm_email")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_email") %> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("Password", null, new { @class = "required" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Password")%><br /> (Note: Password should be minimum 6 characters) </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("confirm_password")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_password") %> </p><hr /> <p>Note: Confirmation email will be sent to the email address listed above.</p> </fieldset> <% } %>

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  • Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Hibernate Based Java Servlet application powered by MySQL

    - by Vatsala
    Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?) edit - Here are the c3p0 parameters I tried out - select 1; 2

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  • Writing Device Drivers for Microcontrollers, where to define IO Port pins?

    - by volting
    I always seem to encounter this dilemma when writing low level code for MCU's. I never know where to declare pin definitions so as to make the code as reusable as possible. In this case Im writing a driver to interface an 8051 to a MCP4922 12bit serial DAC. Im unsure how/where I should declare the pin definitions for The CS(chip select) and LDAC(data latch) for the DAC. At the moment there declared in the header file for the driver. Iv done a lot of research trying to figure out the best approach but havent really found anything. Im basically want to know what the best practices... if there are some books worth reading or online information, examples etc, any recommendations would be welcome. Just a snippet of the driver so you get the idea /** @brief This function is used to write a 16bit data word to DAC B -12 data bit plus 4 configuration bits @param dac_data A 12bit word @param ip_buf_unbuf_select Input Buffered/unbuffered select bit. Buffered = 1; Unbuffered = 0 @param gain_select Output Gain Selection bit. 1 = 1x (VOUT = VREF * D/4096). 0 =2x (VOUT = 2 * VREF * D/4096) */ void MCP4922_DAC_B_TX_word(unsigned short int dac_data, bit ip_buf_unbuf_select, bit gain_select) { unsigned char low_byte=0, high_byte=0; CS = 0; /**Select the chip*/ high_byte |= ((0x01 << 7) | (0x01 << 4)); /**Set bit to select DAC A and Set SHDN bit high for DAC A active operation*/ if(ip_buf_unbuf_select) high_byte |= (0x01 << 6); if(gain_select) high_byte |= (0x01 << 5); high_byte |= ((dac_data >> 8) & 0x0F); low_byte |= dac_data; SPI_master_byte(high_byte); SPI_master_byte(low_byte); CS = 1; LDAC = 0; /**Latch the Data*/ LDAC = 1; }

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  • How to successfully implement og:image for the LinkedIn

    - by Sabo
    THE PROBLEM: I am trying, without much success, to implement open graph image on site: http://www.guarenty-group.com/cz/ The homepage is completeply bypassing the og:image tag, where internal pages are reading all images from the site and place og:image as the last option. Other social networks are working fine on both internal pages and homepage. THE CONFIGURATION: I have no share buttons or alike, all I want is to be able to share the link via my profile. The image is well over 300x300px: http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png Here is how my head tag looks like: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Guarenty Group : Pojištení pro nájemce a pronajímatelé</title> <meta name="keywords" content="" /> <meta name="description" content="Guarenty Group pojištuje príjem z nájmu pronajímatelum, kauci nájemcum - aby nemuseli platit velkou cástku v hotovostí predem - a dále nájemcum pojištuje príjmy, aby meli na nájem pri nemoci, úrazu ci nezamestnání." /> <meta name="image_src" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta name="image_url" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta property="og:title" content="Pojištení pro nájemce a pronajímatelé" /> <meta property="og:url" content="http://guarenty-group.com/cz/" /> <meta property="og:image" content="http://guarenty-group.com/img/gg_seal.png" /> <meta property="og:description" content="Guarenty Group pojištuje príjem z nájmu pronajímatelum, kauci nájemcum - aby nemuseli platit velkou cástku v hotovostí predem - a dále nájemcum pojištuje príjmy, aby meli na nájem pri nemoci, úrazu ci nezamestnání [...]" /> ... </head> THE TESTING RESULTS: In order to trick the cache i have tested the site with http://www.guarenty-group.com/cz/?try=N, where I have changed the N every time. The strange thing is that images found for different value of N is different. Sometimes there is no image, sometimes there is 1, 2 or 3 images, but each time there is a different set of images. But, in any case I could not find the image specified in the og:graph! MY QUESTIONS: https://developer.linkedin.com/documents/setting-display-tags-shares is saying one thing, and the personnel on the support forum is saying "over 300" Does anyone know What is the official minimum dimension of the image (both w and h)? Can an image be too large? Should I use the xmlns, should I not use xmlns or it doesn't matter? What are the maximum (and minimum) lengths for og:title and og:description tags? Any other suggestion is of course welcomed :) Thanks in advance, cheers~

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  • dynamiclly schedule a lead sales agent

    - by Josh
    I have a website that I'm trying to migrate from classic asp to asp.net. It had a lead schedule, where each sales agent would be featured for the current day, or part of the day.The next day a new agent would be scheduled. It was driven off a database table that had a row for each day in it. So to figure out if a sales agent would show on a day, it was easy, just find today's date in the table. Problem was it ran out rows, and you had to run a script to update the lead days 6 months at a time. Plus if there was ever any change to the schedule, you had to delete all the rows and re-run the script. So I'm trying to code it where sql server figures that out for me, and no script has to be ran. I have a table like so CREATE TABLE [dbo].[LeadSchedule]( [leadid] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [int] NOT NULL, [sunday] [bit] NOT NULL, [monday] [bit] NOT NULL, [tuesday] [bit] NOT NULL, [wednesday] [bit] NOT NULL, [thursday] [bit] NOT NULL, [friday] [bit] NOT NULL, [saturday] [bit] NOT NULL, [StartDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [EndDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [StartTime] [time](0) NULL, [EndTime] [time](0) NULL, [order] [int] NULL, So the user can schedule a sales agent depending on their work schedule. Also if they wanted to they could split certain days, or sales agents by time, So from Midnight to 4 it was one agent, from 4-midnight it was another. So far I've tried using a numbers table, row numbers, goofy date math, and I'm at a loss. Any suggestions on how to handle this purely from sql code? If it helps, the table should always be small, like less than 20 never over 100. update After a few hours all I've managed to come up with is the below. It doesn't handle filling in days not available or times, just rotates through all the sales agents with leadTable as ( select leadid,userid,[order],StartDate, case DATEPART(dw,getdate()) when 1 then sunday when 2 then monday when 3 then tuesday when 4 then wednesday when 5 then thursday when 6 then friday when 7 then saturday end as DayAvailable , ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [order] ASC) AS ROWID from LeadSchedule where GETDATE()>=StartDate and (CONVERT(time(0),GETDATE())>= StartTime or StartTime is null) and (CONVERT(time(0),GETDATE())<= EndTime or EndTime is null) ) select userid, DATEADD(d,(number+ROWID-2)*totalUsers,startdate ) leadday from (select *, (select COUNT(1) from leadTable) totalUsers from leadTable inner join Numbers on 1=1 where DayAvailable =1 ) tb1 order by leadday asc

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  • Java: omitting a data member from the equals method.

    - by cchampion
    public class GamePiece { public GamePiece(char cLetter, int nPointValue) { m_cLetter=cLetter; m_nPointValue=nPointValue; m_nTurnPlaced=0; //has not been placed on game board yet. } public char GetLetter() {return m_cLetter;} public int GetPointValue() {return m_nPointValue;} public int GetTurnPlaced() {return m_nTurnPlaced;} public void SetTurnPlaced(int nTurnPlaced) { m_nTurnPlaced=nTurnPlaced; } @Override public boolean equals(Object obj) { /*NOTE to keep this shorter I omitted some of the null checking and instanceof stuff. */ GamePiece other = (GamePiece) obj; //not case sensitive, and I don`t think we want it to be here. if(m_cLetter != other.m_cLetter) { return false; } if(m_nPointValue != other.m_nPointValue) { return false; } /* NOTICE! m_nPointValue purposely omitted. It does not affect hashcode or equals */ return true; } @Override public int hashCode() { /* NOTICE! m_nPointValue purposely omitted. It should not affect hashcode or equals */ final int prime = 41; return prime * (prime + m_nPointValue + m_cLetter); } private char m_cLetter; private int m_nPointValue; private int m_nTurnPlaced;//turn which the game piece was placed on the game board. Does not affect equals or has code! } Consider the given piece of code. This object has been immutable until the introduction of the m_nTurnPlaced member (which can be modified by the SetTurnPlaced method, so now GamePiece becomes mutable). GamePiece is used in an ArrayList, I call contains and remove methods which both rely on the equals method to be implemented. My question is this, is it ok or common practice in Java for some members to not affect equals and hashcode? How will this affect its use in my ArrayList? What type of java Collections would it NOT be safe to use this object now that it is mutable? I've been told that you're not supposed to override equals on mutable objects because it causes some collections to behave "strangely" (I read that somewhere in the java documentation).

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  • php pdo connection scope

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a connection class I found for pdo. I am calling the connection method on the page that the file is included on. The problem is that within functions the $conn variable is not defined even though I stated the method was public (bare with me I am very new to OOP), and I was wondering if anyone had an elegant solution other then using global in every function. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. CONNECTION class PDOConnectionFactory{ // receives the connection public $con = null; // swich database? public $dbType = "mysql"; // connection parameters // when it will not be necessary leaves blank only with the double quotations marks "" public $host = "localhost"; public $user = "user"; public $senha = "password"; public $db = "database"; // arrow the persistence of the connection public $persistent = false; // new PDOConnectionFactory( true ) <--- persistent connection // new PDOConnectionFactory() <--- no persistent connection public function PDOConnectionFactory( $persistent=false ){ // it verifies the persistence of the connection if( $persistent != false){ $this->persistent = true; } } public function getConnection(){ try{ // it carries through the connection $this->con = new PDO($this->dbType.":host=".$this->host.";dbname=".$this->db, $this->user, $this->senha, array( PDO::ATTR_PERSISTENT => $this->persistent ) ); // carried through successfully, it returns connected return $this->con; // in case that an error occurs, it returns the error; }catch ( PDOException $ex ){ echo "We are currently experiencing technical difficulties. We have a bunch of monkies working really hard to fix the problem. Check back soon: ".$ex->getMessage(); } } // close connection public function Close(){ if( $this->con != null ) $this->con = null; } } PAGE USED ON include("includes/connection.php"); $db = new PDOConnectionFactory(); $conn = $db->getConnection(); function test(){ try{ $sql = 'SELECT * FROM topic'; $stmt = $conn->prepare($sql); $result=$stmt->execute(); } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } } test();

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  • Performance issue when querying a large xml file through php/ajax on Apache Server

    - by Niall
    Hey, I have a simple "live search" (results displayed while typing) web site. This make up is Ajax to PHP querying a pretty large XML document (10,000+ lines). This is all been hosted on a local Apache server (xamp). The scale of the xml document seems to be causing huge performance issue with results taking 10ish seconds to give the results. I'm very new to PHP (this actually being my first play about) so there below is a snippet of code in case there is something obvious for($i=0; $i<($foodListXML->length); $i++){ $type=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('type'); $foodnote=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('foodnote'); $style=$foodListXML->item($i)->getElementsByTagName('style'); if ($type->item(0)->nodeType==1) { //find a link matching the search text if (stristr($type->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue,$q)){ $currentFoodName = $type->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; $currentFoodStyle = $style->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; $currentFoodNote = $foodnote->item(0)->childNodes->item(0)->nodeValue; if ($hint==""){ $hint= $currentFoodName . " , " . $currentFoodNote . " , <b>" . $currentFoodStyle. "</b>" . "<br>" ; } else{ $hint=$hint . $currentFoodName . " , " . $currentFoodNote . " , <b>" . $currentFoodStyle. "</b>" . "<br>" ; } } } } } Also if having the data in a DB and accessing that is faster, then I'm open to that.. All ideas really!! Thanks.

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  • Rails. Putting update logic in your migrations

    - by Daniel Abrahamsson
    A couple of times I've been in the situation where I've wanted to refactor the design of some model and have ended up putting update logic in migrations. However, as far as I've understood, this is not good practice (especially since you are encouraged to use your schema file for deployment, and not your migrations). How do you deal with these kind of problems? To clearify what I mean, say I have a User model. Since I thought there would only be two kinds of users, namely a "normal" user and an administrator, I chose to use a simple boolean field telling whether the user was an adminstrator or not. However, after I while I figured I needed some third kind of user, perhaps a moderator or something similar. In this case I add a UserType model (and the corresponding migration), and a second migration for removing the "admin" flag from the user table. And here comes the problem. In the "add_user_type_to_users" migration I have to map the admin flag value to a user type. Additionally, in order to do this, the user types have to exist, meaning I can not use the seeds file, but rather create the user types in the migration (also considered bad practice). Here comes some fictional code representing the situation: class CreateUserTypes < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :user_types do |t| t.string :name, :nil => false, :unique => true end #Create basic types (can not put in seed, because of future migration dependency) UserType.create!(:name => "BASIC") UserType.create!(:name => "MODERATOR") UserType.create!(:name => "ADMINISTRATOR") end def self.down drop_table :user_types end end class AddTypeIdToUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up add_column :users, :type_id, :integer #Determine type via the admin flag basic = UserType.find_by_name("BASIC") admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") User.all.each {|u| u.update_attribute(:type_id, (u.admin?) ? admin.id : basic.id)} #Remove the admin flag remove_column :users, :admin #Add foreign key execute "alter table users add constraint fk_user_type_id foreign key (type_id) references user_types (id)" end def self.down #Re-add the admin flag add_column :users, :admin, :boolean, :default => false #Reset the admin flag (this is the problematic update code) admin = UserType.find_by_name("ADMINISTRATOR") execute "update users set admin=true where type_id=#{admin.id}" #Remove foreign key constraint execute "alter table users drop foreign key fk_user_type_id" #Drop the type_id column remove_column :users, :type_id end end As you can see there are two problematic parts. First the row creation part in the first model, which is necessary if I would like to run all migrations in a row, then the "update" part in the second migration that maps the "admin" column to the "type_id" column. Any advice?

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  • Using a function with reference as a function with pointers?

    - by epatel
    Today I stumbled over a piece of code that looked horrifying to me. The pieces was chattered in different files, I have tried write the gist of it in a simple test case below. The code base is routinely scanned with FlexeLint on a daily basis, but this construct has been laying in the code since 2004. The thing is that a function implemented with a parameter passing using references is called as a function with a parameter passing using pointers...due to a function cast. The construct has worked since 2004 on Irix and now when porting it actually do work on Linux/gcc too. My question now. Is this a construct one can trust? I can understand if compiler constructors implement the reference passing as it was a pointer, but is it reliable? Are there hidden risks? Should I change the fref(..) to use pointers and risk braking anything in the process? What to you think? #include <iostream> using namespace std; // ---------------------------------------- // This will be passed as a reference in fref(..) struct string_struct { char str[256]; }; // ---------------------------------------- // Using pointer here! void fptr(const char *str) { cout << "fptr: " << str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Using reference here! void fref(string_struct &str) { cout << "fref: " << str.str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Cast to f(const char*) and call with pointer void ftest(void (*fin)()) { void (*fcall)(const char*) = (void(*)(const char*))fin; fcall("Hello!"); } // ---------------------------------------- // Let's go for a test int main() { ftest((void (*)())fptr); // test with fptr that's using pointer ftest((void (*)())fref); // test with fref that's using reference return 0; }

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  • How to troubleshoot a Highcharts script that's not rendering data when date is added and hanging the JS engine with large datasets?

    - by ylluminate
    I have a Highchart JS graph that I'm building in Rails (although I don't think Ruby has real bearing on this problem unless it's the Date output format) to which I'm adding the timestamp of each datapoint. Presently the array of floats is rendering fine without timestamps, however when I add the timestamp to the series it fails to rend. What's worse is that when the series has hundreds of entries all sorts of problems arise, not the least of which is the browser entirely hanging and requiring a force quit / kill. I'm using the following to build the array of arrays data series: series1 = readings.map{|row| [(row.date.to_i * 1000), (row.data1.to_f if BigDecimal(row.data1) != BigDecimal("-1000.0"))] } This yields a result like this: series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-09],[1326262920000,1.29e-09],[1326262860000,1.22e-09],[1326262800000,1.42e-09],[1326262740000,1.29e-09],[1326262680000,1.34e-09],[1326262620000,1.31e-09],[1326262560000,1.51e-09],[1326262500000,1.24e-09],[1326262440000,1.7e-09],[1326262380000,1.24e-09],[1326262320000,1.29e-09],[1326262260000,1.53e-09],[1326262200000,1.23e-09],[1326262140000,1.21e-09]],"color":"blue"}] Yet nothing appears on the graph as noted. Notwithstanding, when I compare the data series in one of their very similar examples here: http://www.highcharts.com/demo/spline-irregular-time It appears that really the data series are formatted identically (except in mine I use the timestamp vs date method). This leads me to think I've got a problem with the timestamp output, but I'm just not able to figure out where / how as I'm converting the date output to an integer multipled by 1000 to convert it to milliseconds as per explained in a similar Railscasts tutorial. I would very much appreciate it if someone could point me in the right direction here as to what I may be doing wrong. What could cause no data to appear on the graph in smaller sized sets (<100 points) and when into the hundreds causes an apparent hang in the javascript engine in this case? Perhaps ultimately the key lies here as this is the entire js that's being generated and not rendering: jQuery(function() { // 1. Define JSON options var options = { chart: {"defaultSeriesType":"spline","renderTo":"chart_name"}, title: {"text":"Title"}, legend: {"layout":"vertical","style":{}}, xAxis: {"title":{"text":"UTC Time"},"type":"datetime"}, yAxis: [{"title":{"text":"Left Title","margin":10}},{"title":{"text":"Right Groups Title"},"opposite":true}], tooltip: {"enabled":true}, credits: {"enabled":false}, plotOptions: {"areaspline":{}}, series: [{"name":"Data 1","data":[[1326262980000,1.79e-08],[1326262920000,1.69e-08],[1326262860000,1.62e-08],[1326262800000,1.42e-08],[1326262740000,1.29e-08],[1326262680000,1.34e-08],[1326262620000,1.31e-08],[1326262560000,1.51e-08],[1326262500000,1.64e-08],[1326262440000,1.7e-08],[1326262380000,1.64e-08],[1326262320000,1.69e-08],[1326262260000,1.53e-08],[1326262200000,1.23e-08],[1326262140000,1.21e-08]],"color":"blue"},{"name":"Data 2","data":[[1326262980000,9.79e-09],[1326262920000,9.78e-09],[1326262860000,9.8e-09],[1326262800000,9.82e-09],[1326262740000,9.88e-09],[1326262680000,9.89e-09],[1326262620000,1.3e-06],[1326262560000,1.32e-06],[1326262500000,1.33e-06],[1326262440000,1.33e-06],[1326262380000,1.34e-06],[1326262320000,1.33e-06],[1326262260000,1.32e-06],[1326262200000,1.32e-06],[1326262140000,1.32e-06]],"color":"red"}], subtitle: {} }; // 2. Add callbacks (non-JSON compliant) // 3. Build the chart var chart = new Highcharts.StockChart(options); });

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  • Malformed Farsi characters on AWT

    - by jlover2010
    Hi As i started programming by jdk6, i had no problem in text components neither in awt nor in swing. But for labels or titles of awt components, yes : I couldn't have Farsi characters displayable on AWTs just as simple as Swing by typing them into the source code. lets check this SSCCE : import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.*; import java.io.*; import java.util.Properties; public class EmptyFarsiCharsOnAWT extends JFrame{ public EmptyFarsiCharsOnAWT() { super("????"); setDefaultCloseOperation(3); setVisible(rootPaneCheckingEnabled); } public static void main(String[] args) throws AWTException, IOException { JFrame jFrame = new EmptyFarsiCharsOnAWT(); MenuItem show ; // approach 1 = HardCoding : /* show = new MenuItem("\u0646\u0645\u0627\u06cc\u0634"); * */ // approach 2 = using simple utf-8 saved text file : /* BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("farsiLabels.txt")); String showLabel = in.readLine(); in.close(); show = new MenuItem(showLabel); * */ // approach 3 = using properties file : FileReader in = new FileReader("farsiLabels.properties"); Properties farsiLabels = new Properties(); farsiLabels.load(in); show = new MenuItem(farsiLabels.getProperty("tray.show")); PopupMenu popUp = new PopupMenu(); popUp.add(show); // creating Tray object Image iconIamge = Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().getImage("greenIcon.png"); TrayIcon trayIcon = new TrayIcon(iconIamge, null, popUp); SystemTray tray = SystemTray.getSystemTray(); tray.add(trayIcon); jFrame.setIconImage(iconIamge); } } Yes, i know each of three approaches in source code does right when you may test it from IDE , but if you make a JAR contains just this class, by means of NetBeans project clean&build ,you won't see the expected characters and will just get EMPTY/BLANK SQUARES ! Unfortunately, opposed to other situations i encountered before, here there is no way to avoid using awt and make use of Swing in this case. And this was just an SSCCE i made to show the problem and my recent (also first) application suffers from this subject. Note: it seems i can not attach anything, so the contents od the text file would be this: ????? and the contents of properties file: #Sun May 02 09:45:10 IRDT 2010 tray.show=????? but i don't think by giving you the unicode-scape sequence, these would be necessary any way... And i think should have to let you know I posted this question a while ago in SDN and "the Java Ranch" forums and other native forums and still I'm watching... By the way i am using latest version of Netbeans IDE... I will be so grateful if anybody has a solution to this damn AWT components never rendered any Farsi character for me... Thanks in advance

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  • bundler/capistrano is not installing gems with correct ruby version

    - by Douglas
    I'm trying to deploy my first app on a server with Capistrano, and I'm a bit lost with managing gemsets and ruby version. These are my (server and workstation) versions : Rails 3.2.8 RVM 1.16.17 Gem 1.8.24 Bundler 1.2.1 pg gem 0.14.1 My gemset are : Gemsets for ruby-1.9.3-p194 (found in /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194) (default) global = rail3dev20120606 I set the default gemset with : rvm use 1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606 --default --passenger When I run a : cap bundle:install The task end with success, but when I do a : gem list There are many missing gems though they are present in my Gemfile. When I go to check my gems in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/ I find a folder called 1.9.1 and in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/gems/ I can fond all of my needed gems (specified in Gemfile). I'm sure there is a problem with ruby version, but how do I solve this ? At the moment, if I do any rake command, I got a ruby crash [Bug] Segmentation fault, as it try to access the db and using postgresql_adapter. I think as many gems are missing there must have some gem dependencies not verified, and maybe a gem is using an incompatible ruby version 1.9.1 though it expect a 1.9.3. I think the issue is around managing ruby versions and gems. I'm certainly doing some mix with gemset and my capistrano deployement. I'm missing experience and info. Could anybody advise me how to handle this on the server ? What are the best practices ? How am I suppose to update my ruby version ? with Capistrano deploy.rb ? manually ? with/without rvm ? I saw a new version of ruby 1.9.3-p327 has just released. Should I use gemset or not ? What about the :rvm_ruby_string in my deploy.rb. Is it correctly spelled or should I remove the p194 part ? Should I Remove the :rvm_ruby_string ? Keep it ? Use a .rvmrc file ??? I'm really lost and some kind help would be welcome. This is my config/deploy.rb in any case : require 'bundler/capistrano' require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'deploy') + '/capistrano_database' set :rvm_type, :system set :rvm_ruby_string, 'ruby-1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606' require 'rvm/capistrano' set :application, 'opf' set :deploy_to, '/var/www/opf' set :rails_env, 'production' set :user, 'the_user' set :use_sudo, false set :group_writable, false set :scm, :git set :repository, '[email protected]:user/opf.git' set :branch, 'master' default_run_options[:pty] = true set :deploy_via, :remote_cache server '192.168.5.200', :web, :app, :db, :primary => true # If you are using Passenger mod_rails uncomment this: namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles => :app, :except => { :no_release => true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Thanks for any help

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  • Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

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  • Unlocking a mutex from a different thread (C++)

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect.

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  • EJB failure to update datamodel

    - by Ignacio
    Here my EJB @Entity @Table(name = "modelos") @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name = "Modelos.findAll", query = "SELECT m FROM Modelos m"), @NamedQuery(name = "Modelos.findById", query = "SELECT m FROM Modelos m WHERE m.id = :id"), @NamedQuery(name = "Modelos.findByDescripcion", query = "SELECT m FROM Modelos m WHERE m.descripcion = :descripcion")}) public class Modelos implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "id") private Integer id; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "descripcion") private String descripcion; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, mappedBy = "idModelo") private Collection produtosCollection; @JoinColumn(name = "id_marca", referencedColumnName = "id") @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Marcas idMarca; public Modelos() { } public Modelos(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public Modelos(Integer id, String descripcion) { this.id = id; this.descripcion = descripcion; } public Modelos(Integer id, Marcas idMarca) { this.id = id; this.idMarca = idMarca; } public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getDescripcion() { return descripcion; } public void setDescripcion(String descripcion) { this.descripcion = descripcion; } public Collection<Produtos> getProdutosCollection() { return produtosCollection; } public void setProdutosCollection(Collection<Produtos> produtosCollection) { this.produtosCollection = produtosCollection; } public Marcas getIdMarca() { return idMarca; } public void setIdMarca(Marcas idMarca) { this.idMarca = idMarca; } @Override public int hashCode() { int hash = 0; hash += (id != null ? id.hashCode() : 0); return hash; } @Override public boolean equals(Object object) { // TODO: Warning - this method won't work in the case the id fields are not set if (!(object instanceof Modelos)) { return false; } Modelos other = (Modelos) object; if ((this.id == null && other.id != null) || (this.id != null && !this.id.equals(other.id))) { return false; } return true; } @Override public String toString() { return "" + descripcion + ""; } } And the method accesing from the Modelosfacade public List findByMarcas(Marcas idMarca){ return em.createQuery("SELECT id, descripcion FROM Modelos WHERE idMarca = "+idMarca.getId()+"").getResultList(); } And the calling method from the controller public String createByMarcas() { //recreateModel(); items = new ListDataModel(ejbFacade.findByMarcas(current.getIdMarca())); updateCurrentItem(); System.out.println(current.getIdMarca()); return "List"; } I do not understand why I keep falling in an EJB exception.

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  • Is it possible to reliably auto-decode user files to Unicode? [C#]

    - by NVRAM
    I have a web application that allows users to upload their content for processing. The processing engine expects UTF8 (and I'm composing XML from multiple users' files), so I need to ensure that I can properly decode the uploaded files. Since I'd be surprised if any of my users knew their files even were encoded, I have very little hope they'd be able to correctly specify the encoding (decoder) to use. And so, my application is left with task of detecting before decoding. This seems like such a universal problem, I'm surprised not to find either a framework capability or general recipe for the solution. Can it be I'm not searching with meaningful search terms? I've implemented BOM-aware detection (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Byte_order_mark) but I'm not sure how often files will be uploaded w/o a BOM to indicate encoding, and this isn't useful for most non-UTF files. My questions boil down to: Is BOM-aware detection sufficient for the vast majority of files? In the case where BOM-detection fails, is it possible to try different decoders and determine if they are "valid"? (My attempts indicate the answer is "no.") Under what circumstances will a "valid" file fail with the C# encoder/decoder framework? Is there a repository anywhere that has a multitude of files with various encodings to use for testing? While I'm specifically asking about C#/.NET, I'd like to know the answer for Java, Python and other languages for the next time I have to do this. So far I've found: A "valid" UTF-16 file with Ctrl-S characters has caused encoding to UTF-8 to throw an exception (Illegal character?) (That was an XML encoding exception.) Decoding a valid UTF-16 file with UTF-8 succeeds but gives text with null characters. Huh? Currently, I only expect UTF-8, UTF-16 and probably ISO-8859-1 files, but I want the solution to be extensible if possible. My existing set of input files isn't nearly broad enough to uncover all the problems that will occur with live files. Although the files I'm trying to decode are "text" I think they are often created w/methods that leave garbage characters in the files. Hence "valid" files may not be "pure". Oh joy. Thanks.

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  • Generate a list of file names based on month and year arithmetic

    - by MacUsers
    How can I list the numbers 01 to 12 (one for each of the 12 months) in such a way so that the current month always comes last where the oldest one is first. In other words, if the number is grater than the current month, it's from the previous year. e.g. 02 is Feb, 2011 (the current month right now), 03 is March, 2010 and 09 is Sep, 2010 but 01 is Jan, 2011. In this case, I'd like to have [09, 03, 01, 02]. This is what I'm doing to determine the year: for inFile in os.listdir('.'): if inFile.isdigit(): month = months[int(inFile)] if int(inFile) <= int(strftime("%m")): year = strftime("%Y") else: year = int(strftime("%Y"))-1 mnYear = month + ", " + str(year) I don't have a clue what to do next. What should I do here? Update: I think, I better upload the entire script for better understanding. #!/usr/bin/env python import os, sys from time import strftime from calendar import month_abbr vGroup = {} vo = "group_lhcb" SI00_fig = float(2.478) months = tuple(month_abbr) print "\n%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10s" % ('VOs','CPU-time','CPU-time','kSI2K-hrs') print "%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10s" % ('','(in Sec)','(in Hrs)','(*2.478)') print "=" * 58 for inFile in os.listdir('.'): if inFile.isdigit(): readFile = open(inFile, 'r') lines = readFile.readlines() readFile.close() month = months[int(inFile)] if int(inFile) <= int(strftime("%m")): year = strftime("%Y") else: year = int(strftime("%Y"))-1 mnYear = month + ", " + str(year) for line in lines[2:]: if line.find(vo)==0: g, i = line.split() s = vGroup.get(g, 0) vGroup[g] = s + int(i) sumHrs = ((vGroup[g]/60)/60) sumSi2k = sumHrs*SI00_fig print "%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10.2f" % (mnYear,vGroup[g],sumHrs,sumSi2k) del vGroup[g] When I run the script, I get this: [root@serv07 usage]# ./test.py VOs CPU-time CPU-time kSI2K-hrs (in Sec) (in Hrs) (*2.478) ================================================== Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 As I said in the original post, I like the result to be in this order instead: Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 The files in the source directory reads like this: [root@serv07 usage]# ls -l total 3632 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1144972 Feb 9 19:23 01 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 556630 Feb 13 09:11 02 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 443782 Feb 11 17:23 02.bak -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1144556 Feb 14 09:30 09 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 370822 Feb 9 19:24 12 Did I give a better picture now? Sorry for not being very clear in the first place. Cheers!! Update @Mark Ransom This is the result from Mark's suggestion: [root@serv07 usage]# ./test.py VOs CPU-time CPU-time kSI2K-hrs (in Sec) (in Hrs) (*2.478) ========================================================== Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 As I said before, I'm looking for the result to b printed in this order: Sep, 2010 - Dec, 2010 - Jan, 2011 - Feb, 2011 Cheers!!

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  • ASP.NET- forcing child/container events to fire before parent onload?

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on a questionnaire type application in which questions are stored in a database. Therefore, I create my controls dynamically on every Page.OnLoad. This works like a charm and ViewState is persisted between postbacks because I ensure that my dynamic controls always have the same generated Control.ID. In addition to the user control that dynamically populates the questions, my questionnaire page also contains a 'Status' section (also encapsulated by a user control) which represents the status of the questionnaire (choices are 'Complete', 'Started' or 'In Progress'). If the user changes the status of questionnaire (i.e. from 'In Progress' to 'Complete'), I need to postback to the server because the contents of the dynamic portion of the questionnaire depend on the selected status. Some questions are always present regardless of status, and yet others may not be present at all for the selected status. The point is, when the status changes, I have to postback to the page and render the right set of questions. Additionally, I need to preserve any user entered values for those questions which are 'always available'. However, due to the page life cycle in ASP.NET, the 'Status' user control's OnLoad, which contains the correct status needed to load the right questions from the DB, doesn't get executed until after the 'dynamic questions' user control has already been populated (with the wrong/stale values). To get around this, I raise an event from my 'Status' user control to the main page to indicate that the Status has changed. The main page then raises an event on the 'dynamic questions' user control. Since by the time this event bubbles up, the 'dynamic questions' user control has already loaded the 'wrong' questions from the DB, it first calls Controls.Clear. It then happily uses the new status to query the database for the 'correct' questions and does a Control.Add() on each. FYI, Control.IDs are consistent across postbacks. This solution works...sorta. The correct set of questions for the selected status do get rendered; however ViewState is getting lost for those 'always available' questions. I'm guessing this is because the 'dynamic questions' user control calls Controls.Clear when responding to the status changed event. This must somehow kill the association between ViewState and my dynamic controls, even though the Control.ID are consistent. This seems like such a common requirement, I'm virtually certain there is a better, cleaner and less error prone approach to accomplish this. In case its not plain obvious, I haven't been able to grok the ASP.NET page life-cycle despite working with it for the last year. Any help is much appreciated!

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  • Killing Mysql prcoesses staying in sleep command.

    - by Shino88
    Hey I am connecting a MYSQL database through hibernate and i seem to have processes that are not being killed after they are finished in the session. I have called flush and close on each session but when i check the server the last processes are still there with a sleep command. This is a new problem which i am having and was not the case yesterday. Is there any way i can ensure the killng of theses processes when i am done with a session. Below is an example of one of my classes. public JSONObject check() { //creates a new session needed to add elements to a database Session session = null; //holds the result of the check in the database JSONObject check = new JSONObject(); try{ //creates a new session needed to add elements to a database SessionFactory sessionFactory = new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); session = sessionFactory.openSession(); if (justusername){ //query created to select a username from user table String hquery = "Select username from User user Where username = ? "; //query created Query query = session.createQuery(hquery); //sets the username of the query the values JSONObject contents query.setString(0, username); // executes query and adds username string variable String user = (String) query.uniqueResult(); //checks to see if result is found (null if not found) if (user == null) { //adds false to Jobject if not found check.put("indatabase", "false"); } else { check.put("indatabase", "true"); } //adds check to Jobject to say just to check username check.put("justusername", true); } else { //query created to select a username and password from user table String hquery = "Select username from User user Where username = :user and password = :pass "; Query query = session.createQuery(hquery); query.setString("user", username); query.setString("pass", password); String user = (String) query.uniqueResult(); if(user ==null) { check.put("indatabase", false); } else { check.put("indatabase", true); } check.put("justusername", false); } }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); //logg.log(Level.WARNING, " Exception", e.getMessage()); }finally{ // Actual contact insertion will happen at this step session.flush(); session.close(); } //returns Jobject return check; }

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  • embedded Italic, bold fonts don't look the same in flex as in Windows...

    - by Mark
    ...unless they're something like "Times New Roman" or some other established font with a fully designed italic and bold, presumably in seperate files. Let me explain what I mean (though why no one has commented on this before I have no idea.) Numerous, numerous fonts do not have a seperate file for italic and bold, and in fact to the best of my knowledge don't even have italic and bold defined as such. But if you install them on windows (for example) and then use them in an app, You can still make use of italic and bold with those fonts. For italic, and oblique angle is just given to it, presumably by Windows, and it looks the same in all Windows apps, and the bold is just given a heavier weight. OK, well here's the problem: if you embed a font like that in a Flex app, as a "SystemFont" the italic and bold will not look the same as they do in Windows. Specifically, the oblique angle is invariably much less than in Windows (i.e the italic slant is much less) and the bold version is not bold enough. I vaguely recall thinking that there was some flex mechanism to assign custom oblique angles for italic (and weight for bold) but now can't recall what it is. Does anyone know the correct established way to do this. The following is actually a seperate (but related) font question (in case anyone is expert in all this.) Its rather a lengthy question and can be skipped, but its something that's plagued me for a long time. I mention above embedding as a "SystemFont", so iow something like this: package fonts { import flash.display.Sprite; public class FLW_Script_I extends Sprite { [Embed(systemFont='FLW Script', fontName='FLW Script', fontStyle='italic', fntWeight='normal', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype')] public var wrFont:Class; } } The other alternative to SystemFont for embedding, is "Source" followed by the name of an actual font file. If you try to embed one of the aformentioned single file fonts as a Source file (as opposed to SystemFont) and specify fontStyle='italic', then the mxmlc compiler will return an error and say there is no italic info in the font file. So up to now I have only been embedding these fonts as "SystemFont". The problem is, flex uses two different font compilers internally for Source embedding and SystemFont embedding. For source font embeds it uses the "Batik" compiler and for SystemFont, the JRE (Java Runtime) font compiler. Well actually the Batik is considered a superior compiler and generally produces better looking fonts. And also if you mix normal fonts compiled with Batik and italic compiled with JRE, sometimes the line spacing is different for the two, and it doesn't look right. So does anyone have an idea how to get mxmlc to do italic and bold for these single file fonts when embedding as "Source". Would there be a way using C++ or whatever to construct an "italic" font file from the SystemFont for such a font in windows.

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  • Is there anyway to exclude artifacts inherited from a parent POM?

    - by Miguel
    Artifacts from dependencies can be excluded by declaring an <exclusions> element inside a <dependency> But in this case it's needed to exclude an artifact inherited from a parent project. An excerpt of the POM under discussion follows: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>test</groupId> <artifactId>jruby</artifactId> <version>0.0.1-SNAPSHOT</version> <parent> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> </parent> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>com.liferay.portal</groupId> <artifactId>ALL-DEPS</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> <scope>provided</scope> <type>pom</type> </dependency> </dependencies> </project> base artifact, depends on javax.mail:mail-1.4.jar, and ALL-DEPS depends on another version of the same library. Due to the fact that mail.jar from ALL-DEPS exist on the execution environment, although not exported, collides with the mail.jar that exists on the parent, which is scoped as compile. A solution could be to rid off mail.jar from the parent POM, but most of the projects that inherit base, need it (as is a transtive dependency for log4j). So What I would like to do is to simply exclude parent's library from the child project, as it could be done if base was a dependency and not the parent pom: ... <dependency> <artifactId>base</artifactId> <groupId>es.uniovi.innova</groupId> <version>1.0.0</version> <type>pom<type> <exclusions> <exclusion> <groupId>javax.mail</groupId> <artifactId>mail</artifactId> </exclusion> </exclusions> </dependency> ...

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  • Comparing Nested object properties using C#

    - by Kumar
    I have a method which compares two objects and returns a list of all the property names which are different. public static IList<string> GetDifferingProperties(object source, object) { var sourceType = source.GetType(); var sourceProperties = sourceType.GetProperties(); var targetType = target.GetType(); var targetProperties = targetType.GetProperties(); var properties = (from s in sourceProperties from t in targetProperties where s.Name == t.Name && s.PropertyType == t.PropertyType && s.GetValue(source,null) != t.GetValue(target,null) select s.Name).ToList(); return properties; } For example if I have two classes as follows: public class Address { public string AddressLine1 { get; set; } public string AddressLine2 { get; set; } public string City { get; set; } public string State { get; set; } public string Zip { get; set; } } public class Employee { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string MiddleName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public Address EmployeeAddress { get; set; } } I am trying to compare the following two employee instances: var emp1Address = new Address(); emp1Address.AddressLine1 = "Microsoft Corporation"; emp1Address.AddressLine2 = "One Microsoft Way"; emp1Address.City = "Redmond"; emp1Address.State = "WA"; emp1Address.Zip = "98052-6399"; var emp1 = new Employee(); emp1.FirstName = "Bill"; emp1.LastName = "Gates"; emp1.EmployeeAddress = emp1Address; var emp2Address = new Address(); emp2Address.AddressLine1 = "Gates Foundation"; emp2Address.AddressLine2 = "One Microsoft Way"; emp2Address.City = "Redmond"; emp2Address.State = "WA"; emp2Address.Zip = "98052-6399"; var emp2 = new Employee(); emp2.FirstName = "Melinda"; emp2.LastName = "Gates"; emp2.EmployeeAddress = emp2Address; So when I pass these two employee objects to my GetDifferingProperties method currently it returns FirstName and EmployeeAddress, but it does not tell me which exact property (which in this case is Address1) in the EmployeeAddress has changed. How can I tweak this method to get something like EmployeeAddress.Address1?

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  • What am I not getting about this abstract class implementation?

    - by Schnapple
    PREFACE: I'm relatively inexperienced in C++ so this very well could be a Day 1 n00b question. I'm working on something whose long term goal is to be portable across multiple operating systems. I have the following files: Utilities.h #include <string> class Utilities { public: Utilities() { }; virtual ~Utilities() { }; virtual std::string ParseString(std::string const& RawString) = 0; }; UtilitiesWin.h (for the Windows class/implementation) #include <string> #include "Utilities.h" class UtilitiesWin : public Utilities { public: UtilitiesWin() { }; virtual ~UtilitiesWin() { }; virtual std::string ParseString(std::string const& RawString); }; UtilitiesWin.cpp #include <string> #include "UtilitiesWin.h" std::string UtilitiesWin::ParseString(std::string const& RawString) { // Magic happens here! // I'll put in a line of code to make it seem valid return ""; } So then elsewhere in my code I have this #include <string> #include "Utilities.h" void SomeProgram::SomeMethod() { Utilities *u = new Utilities(); StringData = u->ParseString(StringData); // StringData defined elsewhere } The compiler (Visual Studio 2008) is dying on the instance declaration c:\somepath\somecode.cpp(3) : error C2259: 'Utilities' : cannot instantiate abstract class due to following members: 'std::string Utilities::ParseString(const std::string &)' : is abstract c:\somepath\utilities.h(9) : see declaration of 'Utilities::ParseString' So in this case what I'm wanting to do is use the abstract class (Utilities) like an interface and have it know to go to the implemented version (UtilitiesWin). Obviously I'm doing something wrong but I'm not sure what. It occurs to me as I'm writing this that there's probably a crucial connection between the UtilitiesWin implementation of the Utilities abstract class that I've missed, but I'm not sure where. I mean, the following works #include <string> #include "UtilitiesWin.h" void SomeProgram::SomeMethod() { Utilities *u = new UtilitiesWin(); StringData = u->ParseString(StringData); // StringData defined elsewhere } but it means I'd have to conditionally go through the different versions later (i.e., UtilitiesMac(), UtilitiesLinux(), etc.) What have I missed here?

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  • Constructor versus setter injection

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm currently designing an API where I wish to allow configuration via a variety of methods. One method is via an XML configuration schema and another method is through an API that I wish to play nicely with Spring. My XML schema parsing code was previously hidden and therefore the only concern was for it to work but now I wish to build a public API and I'm quite concerned about best-practice. It seems that many favor javabean type PoJo's with default zero parameter constructors and then setter injection. The problem I am trying to tackle is that some setter methods implementations are dependent on other setter methods being called before them in sequence. I could write anal setters that will tolerate themselves being called in many orders but that will not solve the problem of a user forgetting to set the appropriate setter and therefore the bean being in an incomplete state. The only solution I can think of is to forget about the objects being 'beans' and enforce the required parameters via constructor injection. An example of this is in the default setting of the id of a component based on the id of the parent components. My Interface public interface IMyIdentityInterface { public String getId(); /* A null value should create a unique meaningful default */ public void setId(String id); public IMyIdentityInterface getParent(); public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent); } Base Implementation of interface: public abstract class MyIdentityBaseClass implements IMyIdentityInterface { private String _id; private IMyIdentityInterface _parent; public MyIdentityBaseClass () {} @Override public String getId() { return _id; } /** * If the id is null, then use the id of the parent component * appended with a lower-cased simple name of the current impl * class along with a counter suffix to enforce uniqueness */ @Override public void setId(String id) { if (id == null) { IMyIdentityInterface parent = getParent(); if (parent == null) { // this may be the top level component or it may be that // the user called setId() before setParent(..) } else { _id = Helpers.makeIdFromParent(parent,getClass()); } } else { _id = id; } } @Override public IMyIdentityInterface getParent() { return _parent; } @Override public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent) { _parent = parent; } } Every component in the framework will have a parent except for the top level component. Using the setter type of injection, then the setters will have different behavior based on the order of the calling of the setters. In this case, would you agree, that a constructor taking a reference to the parent is better and dropping the parent setter method from the interface entirely? Is it considered bad practice if I wish to be able to configure these components using an IoC container? Chris

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