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  • Mapscript queryByPoint return no results

    - by lucian.jp
    I have a dynamically generated mapfile made with c# mapscript that is defined like: MAP EXTENT 5.91828 45.63552 5.92346 45.65051 IMAGECOLOR 192 192 192 IMAGETYPE png SIZE 256 256 STATUS ON TRANSPARENT TRUE UNITS METERS NAME "GMAP_TILE" OUTPUTFORMAT NAME "png" MIMETYPE "image/png" DRIVER "GD/PNG" EXTENSION "png" IMAGEMODE "PC256" TRANSPARENT TRUE END SYMBOL NAME "circle" TYPE ELLIPSE FILLED TRUE POINTS 1 1 END END SYMBOL NAME ">" TYPE TRUETYPE ANTIALIAS TRUE CHARACTER ">" GAP -20 FONT "arial" POSITION CC END PROJECTION "proj=merc" "a=6378137" "b=6378137" "lat_ts=0.0" "lon_0=0.0" "x_0=0.0" "y_0=0" "units=m" "k=1.0" "nadgrids=@null" END LEGEND IMAGECOLOR 255 255 255 KEYSIZE 20 10 KEYSPACING 5 5 LABEL SIZE MEDIUM TYPE BITMAP BUFFER 0 COLOR 0 0 0 FORCE FALSE MINDISTANCE -1 MINFEATURESIZE -1 OFFSET 0 0 PARTIALS TRUE END POSITION LL STATUS OFF END QUERYMAP COLOR 255 255 0 SIZE -1 -1 STATUS ON STYLE HILITE END SCALEBAR ALIGN CENTER COLOR 0 0 0 IMAGECOLOR 255 255 255 INTERVALS 4 LABEL SIZE MEDIUM TYPE BITMAP BUFFER 0 COLOR 0 0 0 FORCE FALSE MINDISTANCE -1 MINFEATURESIZE -1 OFFSET 0 0 PARTIALS TRUE END POSITION LL SIZE 200 3 STATUS OFF STYLE 0 UNITS MILES END WEB IMAGEPATH "" IMAGEURL "" QUERYFORMAT text/html LEGENDFORMAT text/html BROWSEFORMAT text/html END LAYER NAME "Troncons" PROJECTION "proj=longlat" "ellps=WGS84" "datum=WGS84" END STATUS DEFAULT TEMPLATE "nofile.html" TOLERANCE 100 TOLERANCEUNITS METERS TYPE LINE UNITS METERS CLASS NAME "Troncons" STYLE ANGLE 360 COLOR 0 0 255 SIZE 5 SYMBOL "circle" WIDTH 5 END STYLE ANGLE 360 COLOR 0 0 0 SIZE 12 SYMBOL ">" WIDTH 1 END END FEATURE POINTS 5.91828 45.63552 5.91876 45.63611 5.91898 45.6364 5.91936 45.63701 5.91952 45.63731 5.91968 45.63762 5.91993 45.63825 5.92003 45.63856 5.92018 45.63919 5.92028 45.63983 5.92031 45.64014 5.92033 45.64046 5.92034 45.64077 5.92034 45.64108 5.92034 45.64171 5.92035 45.64234 5.92035 45.6428 5.92037 45.6433 5.9204 45.64394 5.92046 45.64458 5.92056 45.64522 5.92062 45.64554 5.92069 45.64586 5.92077 45.64617 5.92097 45.64679 5.92122 45.64739 5.92136 45.64769 5.92169 45.64828 5.92207 45.64886 5.92228 45.64914 5.92272 45.64969 5.92321 45.65023 5.92346 45.65051 END END END END I try to queryByPoint to retreive the index of the shape clciked near. In the code below I made a specific test function with fixed point instead of points passed by parameter so I am sure the point I use is actually part of a feature. In my case I use the first point of the only feature contained in mapfile. public string GetTronconId() { //_map is my dynamically created mapObj if (_map != null) for (int i = 0; i < _map.numlayers; i++) { layerObj layer = _map.getLayer(i); // Code never pass this point if (layer.queryByPoint(_map, new pointObj(5.91898, 45.6364, 0, 0), (int) MS_QUERY_MODE.MS_QUERY_MULTIPLE, 100) == (int) MS_RETURN_VALUE.MS_SUCCESS) { int numresults = layer.getNumResults(); if (numresults != 0) { layer.open(); for (int j = 0; j < numresults; j++) { resultCacheMemberObj resultat = layer.getResult(j); shapeObj shape = null; if (layer.getShape(shape, resultat.tileindex, resultat.shapeindex) == (int) MS_RETURN_VALUE.MS_SUCCESS) return shape.getValue(0); } } } } return null; } I have a dummy TEMPLATE set, I do not eveen have to use the tolerance since the point is derectly in a shape, but the queryByPoint keep returning me MS_FAILURE. From my searches on the web everything seem to be OK. Any idea?

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  • How can we retrieve value on main.mxml from other .mxml?

    - by Roshan
    main.mxml [Bindable] private var _dp:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection([ {day:"Monday", dailyTill:7792.43}, {day:"Tuesday", dailyTill:8544.875}, {day:"Wednesday", dailyTill:6891.432}, {day:"Thursday", dailyTill:10438.1}, {day:"Friday", dailyTill:8395.222}, {day:"Saturday", dailyTill:5467.00}, {day:"Sunday", dailyTill:10001.5} ]); public var hx:String ; public function init():void { //parameters is passed to it from flashVars //values are either amount or order hx = Application.application.parameters.tab; } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:LineChart id="myLC" dataProvider="{_dp}" showDataTips="true" dataTipRenderer="com.Amount" > <mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:CategoryAxis categoryField="day" /> </mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:series> <mx:LineSeries xField="day" yField="dailyTill"> </mx:LineSeries> </mx:series> </mx:LineChart> com/Amount.mxml [Bindable] private var _dayText:String; [Bindable] private var _dollarText:String; override public function set data(value:Object):void{ //Alert.show(Application.application.parameters.tab); //we know to expect a HitData object from a chart, so let's cast it as such //so that there aren't any nasty runtime surprises var hd:HitData = value as HitData; //Any HitData object carries a reference to the ChartItem that created it. //This is where we need to know exactly what kind of Chartitem we're dealing with. //Why? Because a pie chart isn't going to have an xValue and a yValue, but things //like bar charts, column charts and, in our case, line charts will. var item:LineSeriesItem = hd.chartItem as LineSeriesItem; //the xValue and yValue are returned as Objects. Let's cast them as strings, so //that we can display them in the Label fields. _dayText = String(item.xValue); var hx : String = String(item.yValue) _dollarText = hx.replace("$"," "); }//end set data ]]> </mx:Script> QUES : Amount.mxml is used as dataTipRenderer for line chart. Now, I need to obtain the value assigned to variable "hx" in main.mxml from "com/Amount.mxml".Any help would be greatly appreciated?

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  • Troubleshooting Multiple Endpoints Problem in WCF

    - by omatase
    I have been using WCF for a few years now and am fairly comfortable with it, however there is one simple WCF concept that I have yet to employ and am having difficulties with it. Following this article about WCF addressing as it specifically relates to multiple endpoints in IIS I see these two excerpts: "Suppose you have a file named calc.svc and you place it in a virtual directory that corresponds to (http://localhost:8080/calcservice). The base address for this service will be (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc)." and "Now, consider the endpoint configuration found in the virtual directory’s web.config file (in Figure 3). In this case, the address of the first endpoint becomes the same as the base address (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc) since I left the endpoint address empty. The address of the second endpoint becomes the combination of the base address appended with "secure", like this: (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc/secure)." Now in my application I'm trying to create two endpoints for the same service (shown below). The service name is MainService.svc. For endpoint one I have address="" and endpoint two has address="Soap11". Bringing the site up in IIS I can successfully hit this URL: (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc). This is the base address for the service according to all the documentation I can find. According to this article and others I have seen that confirm its information I should have the second endpoint at (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc/Soap11) but if I navigate to that URL I get a .Net exception indicating the resource is not found. Is there a tool I can use to see where my different endpoints will be available? Maybe some IIS or aspnet_isapi.dll logging I can turn on? My web.config section defining my endpoints follows. Thanks in advance for your help <service behaviorConfiguration="MyService.MainServiceBehavior" name="MyService.MainService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSBindingConfig" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="Soap11" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicBindingWithCredentials" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service>

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  • Write STDOUT & STDERR to a logfile, also write STDERR to screen

    - by Stefan Lasiewski
    I would like to run several commands, and capture all output to a logfile. I also want to print any errors to the screen (or optionally mail the output to someone). Here's an example. The following command will run three commands, and will write all output (STDOUT and STDERR) into a single logfile. { command1 && command2 && command3 ; } > logfile.log 2>&1 Here is what I want to do with the output of these commands: STDERR and STDOUT for all commands goes to a logfile, in case I need it later--- I usually won't look in here unless there are problems. Print STDERR to the screen (or optionally, pipe to /bin/mail), so that any error stands out and doesn't get ignored. It would be nice if the return codes were still usable, so that I could do some error handling. Maybe I want to send email if there was an error, like this: { command1 && command2 && command3 ; } logfile.log 2&1 || mailx -s "There was an error" [email protected] The problem I run into is that STDERR loses context during I/O redirection. A '2&1' will convert STDERR into STDOUT, and therefore I cannot view errors if I do 2 error.log Here are a couple juicier examples. Let's pretend that I am running some familiar build commands, but I don't want the entire build to stop just because of one error so I use the '--keep-going' flag. { ./configure && make --keep-going && make install ; } > build.log 2>&1 Or, here's a simple (And perhaps sloppy) build and deploy script, which will keep going in the event of an error. { ./configure && make --keep-going && make install && rsync -av --keep-going /foo devhost:/foo} > build-and-deploy.log 2>&1 I think what I want involves some sort of Bash I/O Redirection, but I can't figure this out.

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  • overloading friend operator<< for template class

    - by starcorn
    Hello, I have read couple of the question regarding my problem on stackoverflow now, and none of it seems to solve my problem. Or I maybe have done it wrong... The overloaded << if I make it into an inline function. But how do I make it work in my case? warning: friend declaration std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream&, const D<classT>&)' declares a non-template function warning: (if this is not what you intended, make sure the function template has already been declared and add <> after the function name here) -Wno-non-template-friend disables this warning /tmp/cc6VTWdv.o:uppgift4.cc:(.text+0x180): undefined reference to operator<<(std::basic_ostream<char, std::char_traits<char> >&, D<int> const&)' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status template <class T> T my_max(T a, T b) { if(a > b) return a; else return b; } template <class classT> class D { public: D(classT in) : d(in) {}; bool operator>(const D& rhs) const; classT operator=(const D<classT>& rhs); friend ostream& operator<< (ostream & os, const D<classT>& rhs); private: classT d; }; int main() { int i1 = 1; int i2 = 2; D<int> d1(i1); D<int> d2(i2); cout << my_max(d1,d2) << endl; return 0; } template <class classT> ostream& operator<<(ostream &os, const D<classT>& rhs) { os << rhs.d; return os; }

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  • compiler warning at C++ template base class

    - by eike
    I get a compiler warning, that I don't understand in that context, when I compile the "Child.cpp" from the following code. (Don't wonder: I stripped off my class declarations to the bare minuum, so the content will not make much sense, but you will see the problem quicker). I get the warning with VS2003 and VS2008 on the highest warning level. The code AbstractClass.h : #include <iostream> template<typename T> class AbstractClass { public: virtual void Cancel(); // { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; }; virtual void Process() = 0; }; //outside definition. if I comment out this and take the inline //definition like above (currently commented out), I don't get //a compiler warning template<typename T> void AbstractClass<T>::Cancel() { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; } Child.h : #include "AbstractClass.h" class Child : public AbstractClass<int> { public: virtual void Process(); }; Child.cpp : #include "Child.h" #include <iostream> void Child::Process() { std::cout << "Process" << std::endl; } The warning The class "Child" is derived from "AbstractClass". In "AbstractClass" there's the public method "AbstractClass::Cancel()". If I define the method outside of the class body (like in the code you see), I get the compiler warning... AbstractClass.h(7) : warning C4505: 'AbstractClass::Cancel' : unreferenced local function has been removed with [T=int] ...when I compile "Child.cpp". I do not understand this, because this is a public function and the compiler can't know if I later reference this method or not. And, in the end, I reference this method, because I call it in main.cpp and despite this compiler warning, this method works if I compile and link all files and execute the program: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Child.h" int main() { Child child; child.Cancel(); //works, despite the warning } If I do define the Cancel() function as inline (you see it as out commented code in AbstractClass.h), then I don't get the compiler warning. Of course my program works, but I want to understand this warning or is this just a compiler mistake? Furthermore, if do not implement AbsctractClass as a template class (just for a test purpose in this case) I also don't get the compiler warning...?

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  • Multiline editable textarea in SVG

    - by Timo
    I'm trying to implement multiline editable textfield in SVG. I have the following code in http://jsfiddle.net/ca4d3/ : <svg width="1000" height="1000" overflow="scroll"> <g transform="rotate(5)"> <rect width="300" height="400" fill="#22DD22" fill-opacity="0.5"/> </g> <foreignObject x="10" y="10" overflow="visible" width="10000" height="10000" requiredFeatures="http://www.w3.org/TR/SVG11/feature#Extensibility"> <p style="display:table-cell;padding:10px;border:1px solid red; background-color:white;opacity:0.5;font-family:Verdana; font-size:20px;white-space: pre; word-wrap: normal; overflow: visible; overflow-y: visible; overflow-x:visible;" contentEditable="true" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> Write here some text. Be smart and select some word. If you wanna be really COOL, paste here something cool! </p> </foreignObject> </svg> In newest Chrome, Safari and Firefox the code works in some way, but in Opera and IE 9 not. The goal is that: 0) Works in newest Chrome, Safari, Firefox, Opera and IE and if ever possible in some pads. 1) White-spaces are preserved and text wraps only on newline char (works in Chrome, Safari and Firefox, but not in Opera and IE 9 *). 2) The textfield is editable (in the same reliable and stabile way as textareas and contenteditable p elements in html) and height and width is expanded to fit text (works in Chrome, Safari and Firefox, but not in Opera and IE 9 *). 3) Texfield can be transformed (rotated, skewed, translated) while maintaining text editability (Tested rotation, but not work in any browser *). EDIT: Foreignobject rotation works on Firefox 15.0.1, but not in Safari 5.1.7 (6534.57.2), Chrome 22.0.1229.79, Opera 12.02, IE 9. Tested on Mac OS X 10.6.8. 4) Textfield can be clipped and masked while not necessarily maintaining text editability (not yet tested). *) using above code These all can be achieved using Flash, but Flash has so severe problems that it is not suitable for my purposes (after every little change in code, all have to be compiled again using Flex, which is slow, font size has limits, tracking technique is pixeloriented, not relative to em size etc.) and there still are differences across platforms. And I want to give a try to SVG! GUESTION: Can I achieve my goals 0-4 with current SVG support in browsers? Is coming SVG 2.0 for some help in this case? EDIT: Changed display:table to display:table-cell (and added new jsfiddle), because display:table made the field to loses focus when pressed arrow-up on first text row.

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  • Invoke Python modules from Java

    - by user36813
    I have a Python interface of a graph library written in C - igraph (the name of library). My need is to invoke the python modules pertaining to this graph library from Java code. It goes like this, the core of library is in c. This core has been imported into Python and interfaces to the functions embedded in core are available in Python. My project's rest of the code is in Java and hence I would like to call the graph functions by Java as well. Jython - which lets you invoke python modules with in Java was an option.I went on trying Jython to discover that it will not work in my case as the core code is in C and Jython wont support anything that is imported as a c dll in python code.I also thought of opting for the approach of calling graph routines directly in c. That is without passing through Python code. I am assuming there must be something which lets you call c code from Java, how ever I am not good in C hence I did not go for it. My last resort seems to execute Python interpreter from command line using Java. But that is a dirty and shameless. Also to deal with the results produced by Python code I will have to write the results in a file and read it back in java. Again dirty way. Is there something that any one can suggest me? Thanks to every one giving time. Thanks Igal for answering. I had a look at it. At first glance it appears as if it is simply calling the python script. Jep jep = new Jep(false, SCRIPT_PATH, cl); jep.set("query", query); jep.runScript(SCRIPT_PATH + file); jep.close(); Isnt it very similar to what we would do if called the python interpreter from command line through a Java code. Runtime runtime = Runtime.getRuntime(); Process proc = runtime.exec("python test.py"); Concern is how do I use the results generated by Python script. The naive way is to write them to file and read it back in Java. I am searching for a smarter approach.Thanks for suggestion anyway.

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  • How to force VS 2010 to skip "builds" of projects which haven't changed?

    - by Ladislav Mrnka
    Our product's solution has more than 100+ projects (500+ksloc of production code). Most of them are C# projects but we also have few using C++/CLI to bridge communication with native code. Rebuilding the whole solution takes several minutes. That's fine. If I want to rebuilt the solution I expect that it will really take some time. What is not fine is time needed to build solution after full rebuild. Imagine I used full rebuild and know without doing any changes to to the solution I press Build (F6 or Ctrl+Shift+B). Why it takes 35s if there was no change? In output I see that it started "building" of each project - it doesn't perform real build but it does something which consumes significant amount of time. That 35s delay is pain in the ass. Yes I can improve the time by not using build solution but only build project (Shift+F6). If I run build project on particular test project I'm currently working on it will take "only" 8+s. It requires me to run project build on correct project (the test project to ensure dependent tested code is build as well). At least ReSharper test runner correctly recognizes that only this single project must be build and rerunning test usually contains only 8+s compilation. My current coding Kata is: don't touch Ctrl+Shift+B. The test project build will take 8s even if I don't do any changes. The reason why it takes 8s is because it also "builds" dependencies = in my case it "builds" more than 20 projects but I made changes only to unit test or single dependency! I don't want it to touch other projects. Is there a way to simply tell VS to build only projects where some changes were done and projects which are dependent on changed ones (preferably this part as another build option)? I worry you will tell me that it is exactly what VS is doing but in MS way ... I want to improve my TDD experience and reduce the time of compilation (in TDD the compilation can happen twice per minute). To make this even more frustrated I'm working in a team where most of developers used to work on Java projects prior to joining this one. So you can imagine how they are pissed off when they must use VS in contrast to full incremental compilation in Java. I don't require incremental compilation of classes. I expect working incremental compilation of solutions. Especially in product like VS 2010 Ultimate which costs several thousands dollars. I really don't want to get answers like: Make a separate solution Unload projects you don't need etc. I can read those answers here. Those are not acceptable solutions. We're not paying for VS to do such compromises.

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  • Gap appears between navigation bar and view after rotating & tab switching

    - by Bogatyr
    My iphone application is showing strange behavior when rotating: a gap appears between the navigation title and content view inside a tab bar view (details on how to reproduce are below). I've created a tiny test case that exhibits the same problem: a custom root UIViewController, which creates and displays a UITabBarController programmatically, which has two tabs: 1) plain UIViewController, and 2) UINavigationController created programmatically with a single plain UIViewController content view. The complete code for the application is in the root controller's viewDidLoad (every "*VC" class is a totally vanilla UIViewController subclass with XIB for user interface from XCode, with only the view background color changed to clearly identify each view, nothing else). Here's the viewDidLoad code, and the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation code, this code is the entire application basically: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; FirstVC *fvc = [[FirstVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstVC" bundle:nil]; NavContentsVC *ncvc = [[NavContentsVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"NavContentsVC" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *svc = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:ncvc]; NSMutableArray *localControllersArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:2]; [localControllersArray addObject:fvc]; [localControllersArray addObject:svc]; fvc.title = @"FirstVC-Title"; ncvc.title = @"NavContents-Title"; UITabBarController *tbc = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tbc.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460); [tbc setViewControllers:localControllersArray]; [self.view addSubview:tbc.view]; [localControllersArray release]; [ncvc release]; [svc release]; [fvc release]; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Here's how to reproduce the problem: 1) start application 2) rotate device (happens in simulator, too) to landscape (UITabBar properly rotates) 3) click on tab 2 4) rotate device to portrait -- notice gap of root view controller's background color of about 10 pixels high beneath the Navigation title bar and the Navigation content view. 5) click tab 1 6) click tab 2 And the gap is gone! From my real application, I see that the gap remains during all VC push and pops while the NavigationController tab is active. Switching away to a different tab and back to the Nav tab clears up the gap. What am I doing wrong? I'm running on SDK 3.1.3, this happens both on the simulator and on the device. Except for this particular sequence, everything seems to work fine. Help!

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  • Suggestions for designing large-scale Java webapp from the ground up

    - by Chris Thompson
    Hi all, I'm about to start developing a large-scale system and I'm struggling with which direction to proceed. I've done plenty of Java web apps before and I have plenty of experience with servlet containers and GWT and some experience with Spring. The problem is most of my webapps have been thrown together just to be a proof of concept and what I'm struggling with is what set of frameworks to use. I need to have both a browser based application as well as a web service designed to support access from mobile devices (Android and iPhone for now). Ideally, I'd like to design this system in such a way that I don't end up rewriting all of my servlets for each client (browser and phone) although I don't mind having some small checks in there to properly format the data. In addition, although I'm the only developer now, that won't necessarily be the case down the road and I'd like to design something that scales well both with regards to traffic and number of developers (isn't just a nightmare to maintain). So where I am now is planning on using GWT to design the browser-based interface but I'm struggling with how to reuse that code with to present the interface (most likely xml) for the mobile devices. Using GWT RPC would, I think, make it relatively easy to do all of the AJAX in the browser, but might make generating xml for the mobile phones difficult. In addition, I like the idea of using something like Hibernate for persistence and Spring Security to secure the whole thing. Again, I'm not sure how well those will cooperate with GWT (I think Hibernate should be fine...) There's obviously a lot more to this than I've presented here, but I've tried to give you the 5-minute overview. I'm a bit stumped and was wondering if anybody in the community had any experience starting from this place. Does what I'm trying to do make sense? Is it realistic? I have no doubt I can make all of these frameworks speak the same language, I'm just wondering if it's worth my time to fight with them. Also, am I missing a framework that would be really beneficial? Thanks in advance and sorry for the relatively broad question... Chris

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  • Unit finalization order for application, compiled with run-time packages?

    - by Alexander
    I need to execute my code after finalization of SysUtils unit. I've placed my code in separate unit and included it first in uses clause of dpr-file, like this: project Project1; uses MyUnit, // <- my separate unit SysUtils, Classes, SomeOtherUnits; procedure Test; begin // end; begin SetProc(Test); end. MyUnit looks like this: unit MyUnit; interface procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); implementation var Test: TProcedure; procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); begin Test := AProc; end; initialization finalization Test; end. Note that MyUnit doesn't have any uses. This is usual Windows exe, no console, without forms and compiled with default run-time packages. MyUnit is not part of any package (but I've tried to use it from package too). I expect that finalization section of MyUnit will be executed after finalization section of SysUtils. This is what Delphi's help tells me. However, this is not always the case. I have 2 test apps, which differs a bit by code in Test routine/dpr-file and units, listed in uses. MyUnit, however, is listed first in all cases. One application is run as expected: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... But the second is not. MyUnit's finalization is invoked before SysUtils's finalization. The actual call chain looks like this: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (skipped) - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (executed) Both projects have very similar settings. I tried a lot to remove/minimize their differences, but I still do not see a reason for this behaviour. I've tried to debug this and found out that: it seems that every unit have some kind of reference counting. And it seems that InitTable contains multiply references to the same unit. When SysUtils's finalization section is called first time - it change reference counter and do nothing. Then MyUnit's finalization is executed. And then SysUtils is called again, but this time ref-count reaches zero and finalization section is executed: Finalization: // SysUtils' finalization 5003B3F0 55 push ebp // here and below is some form of stub 5003B3F1 8BEC mov ebp,esp 5003B3F3 33C0 xor eax,eax 5003B3F5 55 push ebp 5003B3F6 688EB50350 push $5003b58e 5003B3FB 64FF30 push dword ptr fs:[eax] 5003B3FE 648920 mov fs:[eax],esp 5003B401 FF05DCAD1150 inc dword ptr [$5011addc] // here: some sort of reference counter 5003B407 0F8573010000 jnz $5003b580 // <- this jump skips execution of finalization for first call 5003B40D B8CC4D0350 mov eax,$50034dcc // here and below is actual SysUtils' finalization section ... Can anyone can shred light on this issue? Am I missing something?

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  • paypal ipn working but stopping at 'thank you' page.

    - by Tarique Imam
    I am using the code for controller(CODEIGNITER): function paypal_tran(){ if (empty($_GET['action'])){ $_GET['action'] = 'process';} if($this-uri-segment ( 3 )){ $action=$this-uri-segment ( 3 ); } else{ $action='process'; } $ammount=39.99; $this-lenders_model-paypal_process($action,$this_script,$ammount); $this-load-view('view_paypal_tran'); } function ipn(){ if ($this->paypal_class->validate_ipn()) { $data = array( 'fname'=> 'fname', /* insert the user id */ 'lname'=>'lname' ); //$this->db->insert('ajax_test',$data); // For this example, we'll just email ourselves ALL the data. $subject = 'Instant Payment Notification - Recieved Payment'; $to = '[email protected]'; // your email $body = "An instant payment notification was successfully recieved\n"; $body .= "from ".$p->ipn_data['payer_email']." on ".date('m/d/Y'); $body .= " at ".date('g:i A')."\n\nDetails:\n"; foreach ($this->paypal_class->ipn_data as $key => $value) { $body .= "\n$key: $value"; } mail($to, $subject, $body); } } function success() { $this->load->view('paypal_succ_view'); } AND this is my model: function paypal_process($action,$this_script,$ammount){ switch ($action) { case 'process': // Process and order... // There should be no output at this point. To process the POST data, // the submit_paypal_post() function will output all the HTML tags which // contains a FORM which is submited instantaneously using the BODY onload // attribute. In other words, don't echo or printf anything when you're // going to be calling the submit_paypal_post() function. // This is where you would have your form validation and all that jazz. // You would take your POST vars and load them into the class like below, // only using the POST values instead of constant string expressions. // For example, after ensureing all the POST variables from your custom // order form are valid, you might have: // // $p->add_field('first_name', $_POST['first_name']); // $p->add_field('last_name', $_POST['last_name']); $this->paypal_class->add_field('business', '[email protected]'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('return', $this_script.'/success'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('cancel_return', $this_script.'/cancel'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('notify_url', $this_script.'/ipn'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('item_name', 'Lenders Account for one month'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('amount', $ammount); $this->paypal_class->submit_paypal_post(); // submit the fields to paypal $this->paypal_class->dump_fields(); // for debugging, output a table of all the fields break; PROBLEM IS IPN IS NOT WORKING. THE HIDDEN FIELD HAS VALUE FOR REDIRECT TO IPN, BUT NOT WORKING!!PLS HELP

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  • jQuery Validation plugin: checkbox groups and error message issues

    - by boomturn
    I've put together a form using the jQuery Validation plugin, and all inputs are fine with working validation and error messages – except for checkboxes. I have two checkbox problems. The first is that the Validation plugin API doesn't seem to handle checkboxes in grouped contexts (I'm using fieldsets for grouping). Found several approaches to the issue here, including reference to a post by Rebecca Murphey for a more general case using a custom method and class. Adapting that to this situation: jQuery.validator.addMethod('required_group', function(val, el) { var fieldParent = $(el).closest('fieldset'); return fieldParent.find('.required_group:checked').length; }); jQuery.validator.addClassRules('required_group', { 'required_group': true }); jQuery.validator.messages.required_group = 'Please check at least one box.'; This sort of works, but produces error messages on every checkbox, and only removes them as each box is clicked. This is not an acceptable situation for the user, who can only get rid of them by clicking false positives. Ideally, I guess what's needed is something to prevent or eliminate extra messages before they are displayed and use errorPlacement to display a single error message in the parent fieldset, that would then be removed with a click on any checkbox. Less ideally, maybe they would all display but an event handler could turn off the full set of redundant messages with a click, which is what this approach offered by tvanfosson appears to do. (Another customized approach here, but I couldn't get it to work.) I guess I should also note this form requires the checkboxes to have different names. My second problem is that one of the fieldsets with checkboxes in the form also contains a nested fieldset of checkboxes under one of the outer checkboxes. So in addition to the first-level one-box-checked requirement, if the particular checkbox containing the second-level checkboxes is checked, then at least one of the second-level boxes must be checked. Not sure about the right approach; I'm guessing what needs to happen (following the above scheme) is that the trigger checkbox would use toggleClass to add/remove 'required_group' class to all the checkboxes in the subfield, which would then (hopefully) behave the same as the parent field: $("#triggerCheckbox").click(function () { $(this).find(":checkbox").toggleClass("required_group"); }); Any suggestions or ideas welcome. I'm well beyond my limited jQuery skills on this one and would be happy to hear that I missed simple, elegant and/or obvious ways to do this!

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  • I've got my 2D/3D conversion working perfectly, how to do perspective

    - by user346992
    Although the context of this question is about making a 2d/3d game, the problem i have boils down to some math. Although its a 2.5D world, lets pretend its just 2d for this question. // xa: x-accent, the x coordinate of the projection // mapP: a coordinate on a map which need to be projected // _Dist_ values are constants for the projection, choosing them correctly will result in i.e. an isometric projection xa = mapP.x * xDistX + mapP.y * xDistY; ya = mapP.x * yDistX + mapP.y * yDistY; xDistX and yDistX determine the angle of the x-axis, and xDistY and yDistY determine the angle of the y-axis on the projection (and also the size of the grid, but lets assume this is 1-pixel for simplicity). x-axis-angle = atan(yDistX/xDistX) y-axis-angle = atan(yDistY/yDistY) a "normal" coordinate system like this --------------- x | | | | | y has values like this: xDistX = 1; yDistX = 0; xDistY = 0; YDistY = 1; So every step in x direction will result on the projection to 1 pixel to the right end 0 pixels down. Every step in the y direction of the projection will result in 0 steps to the right and 1 pixel down. When choosing the correct xDistX, yDistX, xDistY, yDistY, you can project any trimetric or dimetric system (which is why i chose this). So far so good, when this is drawn everything turns out okay. If "my system" and mindset are clear, lets move on to perspective. I wanted to add some perspective to this grid so i added some extra's like this: camera = new MapPoint(60, 60); dx = mapP.x - camera.x; // delta x dy = mapP.y - camera.y; // delta y dist = Math.sqrt(dx * dx + dy * dy); // dist is the distance to the camera, Pythagoras etc.. all objects must be in front of the camera fac = 1 - dist / 100; // this formula determines the amount of perspective xa = fac * (mapP.x * xDistX + mapP.y * xDistY) ; ya = fac * (mapP.x * yDistX + mapP.y * yDistY ); Now the real hard part... what if you got a (xa,ya) point on the projection and want to calculate the original point (x,y). For the first case (without perspective) i did find the inverse function, but how can this be done for the formula with the perspective. May math skills are not quite up to the challenge to solve this. ( I vaguely remember from a long time ago mathematica could create inverse function for some special cases... could it solve this problem? Could someone maybe try?)

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  • extra vertical space within <li> in IE7

    - by powerboy
    The test case is in below. Or you can view it in jsbin: http://jsbin.com/uxagi. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> body {margin: 20px; } #main {border: 1px solid red;} img {float: left; height: 100px; padding: 0 10px 10px 0;} ul {margin: 0; padding: 0; list-style-type: none;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="main"> <ul> <li> <img src="http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/thumb/0/07/CranebyLinson1894.jpg/100px-CranebyLinson1894.jpg" /> <div class="content">"The Open Boat" is a short story by American author Stephen Crane. First published in 1897, it was based on Crane's experience of having survived a shipwreck off the coast of Florida earlier that year while traveling to Cuba to work as a newspaper correspondent. Crane was stranded at sea for thirty hours when his ship, the SS Commodore, sank after hitting a sandbar. He and three other men were forced to navigate their way to shore in a small boat; one of the men, an oiler named Billie Higgins, drowned. Crane subsequently adapted his report into narrative form, and the short story "The Open Boat" was published in Scribner's Magazine. The story is told from the point of view of an anonymous correspondent, Crane's fictional doppelgänger, and the action closely resembles the author's experiences after the shipwreck. A volume titled The Open Boat and Other Tales of Adventure was published in the United States in 1898. Praised for its innovation by contemporary critics, the story is considered an exemplary work of literary Naturalism. One of the most frequently discussed works in Crane's canon, it is notable for its use of imagery, irony, symbolism, and exploration of themes including survival, solidarity, and the conflict between man and nature. H. G. Wells considered "The Open Boat" to be "beyond all question, the crown of all [Crane's] work".</div> </li> </ul> </div> </body> </html> Note that in standards-compliant browsers and IE8, there is no vertical space between the red border and the text. But there is vertical space in IE7 (haven't tested in IE6).

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  • WCF (REST) multiple host headers with one endpoint

    - by Maan
    I have an issue with a WCF REST service (.NET 4) which has multiple host headers, but one end point. The host headers are for example: xxx.yyy.net xxx.yyy.com Both host headers are configured in IIS over HTTPS and redirect to the same WCF service endpoint. I have an Error Handling behavior which logs some extra information in case of an error. The problem is that the logging behavior only works for one of both URLs. When I first call the .net URL, the logging is only working for requests on the .net URL. When I first call the .com URL (after a Worker Process recycle), it’s only working on requests on the .com URL. The configuration looks like this: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"/> <services> <service name="XXX.RemoteHostService"> <endpoint address="" behaviorConfiguration="RemoteHostEndPointBehavior" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="HTTPSTransport" contract="XXX.IRemoteHostService" /> </service> </services> <extensions> <behaviorExtensions> <add name="errorHandling" type="XXX.ErrorHandling.ErrorHandlerBehavior, XXX.Services, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </behaviorExtensions> </extensions> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="HTTPSTransport"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="None"/> </security> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="RemoteHostEndPointBehavior"> <webHttp /> <errorHandling /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> …. Should I configure multiple endpoints? Or in which way could I configure the WCF Service so the logging behavior is working for both URLs? I tried several things, also solutions mentioned earlier on StackOverflow. But no luck until now...

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  • JDBC CommunicationsException with MySQL Database

    - by Dominik Siebel
    I'm having a little trouble with my MySQL- Connection- Pooling. This is the case: Different jobs are scheduled via Quartz. All jobs connect to different databases which works fine the whole day while the nightly scheduled jobs fail with a CommunicationsException... Quartz-Jobs: Job1 runs 0 0 6,10,14,18 * * ? Job2 runs 0 30 10,18 * * ? Job3 runs 0 0 5 * * ? As you can see the last job runs at 18 taking about 1 hour to run. The first job at 5am is the one that fails. I already tried all kinds of parameter-combinations in my resource config this is the one I am running right now: <!-- Database 1 (MySQL) --> <Resource auth="Container" driverClassName="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" maxActive="100" maxIdle="30" maxWait="10000" removeAbandoned="true" removeAbandonedTimeout="60" logAbandoned="true" type="javax.sql.DataSource" name="jdbc/appDbProd" username="****" password="****" url="jdbc:mysql://127.0.0.1:3306/appDbProd?autoReconnect=true&amp;useUnicode=true&amp;characterEncoding=UTF-8" testWhileIdle="true" testOnBorrow="true" testOnReturn="true" validationQuery="SELECT 1" timeBetweenEvictionRunsMillis="1800000" /> <!-- Database 2 (MySQL) --> <Resource auth="Container" driverClassName="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" maxActive="100" maxIdle="30" maxWait="10000" removeAbandoned="true" removeAbandonedTimeout="60" logAbandoned="true" type="javax.sql.DataSource" name="jdbc/prodDbCopy" username="****" password="****" url="jdbc:mysql://127.0.0.1:3306/prodDbCopy?autoReconnect=true&amp;useUnicode=true&amp;characterEncoding=UTF-8" testWhileIdle="true" testOnBorrow="true" testOnReturn="true" validationQuery="SELECT 1" timeBetweenEvictionRunsMillis="1800000" /> <!-- Database 3 (MSSQL)--> <Resource auth="Container" driverClassName="net.sourceforge.jtds.jdbc.Driver" maxActive="30" maxIdle="30" maxWait="100" removeAbandoned="true" removeAbandonedTimeout="60" logAbandoned="true" name="jdbc/catalogDb" username="****" password="****" type="javax.sql.DataSource" url="jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://127.0.0.1:1433;databaseName=catalog;useNdTLMv2=false" testWhileIdle="true" testOnBorrow="true" testOnReturn="true" validationQuery="SELECT 1" timeBetweenEvictionRunsMillis="1800000" /> For obvious reasons I changed IPs, Usernames and Passwords but they can be assumed to be correct, seeing that the application runs successfully the whole day. The most annoying thing is: The first job that runs first queries Database2 successfully but fails to query Database1 for some reason (CommunicationsException): Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: The last packet successfully received from the server was 39,376,539 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 39,376,539 milliseconds ago. is longer than the server configured value of 'wait_timeout'. You should consider either expiring and/or testing connection validity before use in your application, increasing the server configured values for client timeouts, or using the Connector/J connection property 'autoReconnect=true' to avoid this problem. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Finding what makes strings unique in a list, can you improve on brute force?

    - by Ed Guiness
    Suppose I have a list of strings where each string is exactly 4 characters long and unique within the list. For each of these strings I want to identify the position of the characters within the string that make the string unique. So for a list of three strings abcd abcc bbcb For the first string I want to identify the character in 4th position d since d does not appear in the 4th position in any other string. For the second string I want to identify the character in 4th position c. For the third string it I want to identify the character in 1st position b AND the character in 4th position, also b. This could be concisely represented as abcd -> ...d abcc -> ...c bbcb -> b..b If you consider the same problem but with a list of binary numbers 0101 0011 1111 Then the result I want would be 0101 -> ..0. 0011 -> .0.. 1111 -> 1... Staying with the binary theme I can use XOR to identify which bits are unique within two binary numbers since 0101 ^ 0011 = 0110 which I can interpret as meaning that in this case the 2nd and 3rd bits (reading left to right) are unique between these two binary numbers. This technique might be a red herring unless somehow it can be extended to the larger list. A brute-force approach would be to look at each string in turn, and for each string to iterate through vertical slices of the remainder of the strings in the list. So for the list abcd abcc bbcb I would start with abcd and iterate through vertical slices of abcc bbcb where these vertical slices would be a | b | c | c b | b | c | b or in list form, "ab", "bb", "cc", "cb". This would result in four comparisons a : ab -> . (a is not unique) b : bb -> . (b is not unique) c : cc -> . (c is not unique) d : cb -> d (d is unique) or concisely abcd -> ...d Maybe it's wishful thinking, but I have a feeling that there should be an elegant and general solution that would apply to an arbitrarily large list of strings (or binary numbers). But if there is I haven't yet been able to see it. I hope to use this algorithm to to derive minimal signatures from a collection of unique images (bitmaps) in order to efficiently identify those images at a future time. If future efficiency wasn't a concern I would use a simple hash of each image. Can you improve on brute force?

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  • Job queue manager with RPC interface

    - by admr
    I need a job queue manager that I can control over the Internet. It should be able to execute and stop processes, check on their status (ideally notice and execute some code when a process exits), respond to commands and also be able to report back to a server. Background: I have a GWT application that allows to create jobs to execute on a cloud instance (currently EC2). I want to push a "job packet" (data for a process to operate on etc) to S3, start a Linux EC2 instance (or use one that's already running), and tell a job manager on the instance to execute that job (possibly parallel to other jobs). It should then pull the "job packet" from S3, run a process that operates on that data and report back to the server that is running the server part of my GWT application with some information (e.g. exit code, stdout, stderr). If I have to write e.g. stdour/err to a file from the process and read that file, that's OK too. I would really like the manager to be "close" to the processes it runs, meaning I want to avoid using something like Runtime.exec from the JDK. It seems like I would have to do that if I used Quartz for example. I'm fine with the calls in both directions being asynchronous. I'm fine with any reasonable technology for the calls as long as I can easily build an interface for that in my GWT server side (e.g. HTTP requests to a servlet over SSL would be nice and trivial). The job manager does not need to have a very sophisticated queueing system. Running several processes either sequentially or in parallel should be fine. Determining how much compute time a process received during its lifetime would be nice (AFAIK, this might be challenging). I did not yet find any existing software that does this, including http://java-source.net/open-source/job-schedulers. I suspect I might have to build an RPC interface (with authentication etc, of course) around a job manager; maybe use something like Apache Commons Exec. In that case, I would prefer Java or Python for the job manager part. I would be happy to hear suggestions for either the former or latter scenario!

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  • How to find relation between change in latitudes at centre of map and top/bottom

    - by Imran
    Hi, Im having little trouble finding a relation between the movement at centre and edge of a circle, Im doing for panning world map,my map extent is 180,89:-180,-89, my map pans by adding change(dx,dY) to its extents and not its centre. Now a situation has arrrised where I have to move the map to a specific centre, to calculate the change in longitudes is very easy and simple, but its the change in lattitudes that has caused problem. It seems the change in centreY of map is more than the change at edge of the mapY, or simply if I have to move the map centre from 0long,0lat to 73long,33lat, for dX I simply get 73, but for dY apparently it looks 33 but if i add 33 to top of map that is 89 , it will be 122 which is incorrect since Latitudes are between 90 and -90 . It seems a case a projection of a circle on 2D plane where the edge of circle since is moving backward due to angle expereinces less change and the centre expereinces more change, now is there a relation between these two factors? I tried converting the difference between OriginY and destinationY into radians and then add to Top and Bottom of Map, but it did'nt really work for me. Please note that the map is project on a virtual canvas whose width starts from 256 and increases by 256*2^z , z=0 is default and whole world is visible at that extent of canvas code: public void moveMapTo(double destinationLongitude,double destinationLattitude) // moves map to the new centre { double dXLong=destinationLongitude-centreLongitude; double atanhsinO = atanh(Math.sin(destinationLattitude * Math.PI / 180.00)); double atanhsinD = atanh(Math.sin(centreLatitude * Math.PI / 180.00)); double atanhCentre = (atanhsinD + atanhsinO) / 2; double latitudeSpan =destinationLattitude - centreLatitude; double radianOfCentreLatitude = Math.atan(Math.sinh(atanhCentre)); double dXLat=latitudeSpan / Math.cos(radianOfCentreLatitude); dXLat*=getLattitudeSpan()*(Math.PI/180); <--- HERE IS THE PORBLEM System.out.println("dxLong:"+dXLong+"_dxLat:"+dXLat); mapLeft+=dXLong; mapRight+=dXLong; mapTop+=dXLat; mapBottom+=dXLat; } ////latitude span function private double getLattitudeSpan() { double latitudeSpan = mapTop - mapBottom; latitudeSpan = latitudeSpan / Math.cos(radianOfCentreLatitude); return Math.abs(latitudeSpan); } //ht

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  • Logging in with WebFinger and OpenID

    - by Ryan
    I would like to apologize in advance for the ugly formatting. In order to talk about the problem, I need to be posting a bunch of URLs, but the excessive URLs and my lack of reputation makes StackOverflow think I could be a spammer. Any instance of 'ht~tp' is supposed to be 'http'. '{dot}' is supposed to be '.' and '{colon}' is supposed to be ':'. Also, my lack of reputation has prevented me from tagging my question with 'webfinger' and 'google-profiles'. Onto my question: I am messing around with WebFinger and trying to create a small rails app that enables a user to log in using nothing but their WebFinger account. I can succesfully finger myself, and I get back an XRD file with the following snippet: Link rel="ht~tp://specs{dot}openid{dot}net/auth/2.0/provider" href="ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted}"/ Which, to me, reads, "I have an OpenID 2.0 login at the url: ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted}". But when I try to use that URL to log in, I get the following error OpenID::DiscoveryFailure (Failed to fetch identity URL ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted} : Error encountered in redirect from ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted}: Error fetching /profiles/{Redacted}: Connection refused - connect(2)): When I replace the profile URL with 'ht~tps://www{dot}google{dot}com/accounts/o8/id', the login works perfectly. here is the code that I am using (I'm using RedFinger as a plugin, and JanRain's ruby-openid, installed without the gem) require "openid" require 'openid/store/filesystem.rb' class SessionsController < ApplicationController def new @session = Session.new #render a textbox requesting a webfinger address, and a submit button end def create ####################### # # Pay Attention to this section right here # ####################### #use given webfinger address to retrieve openid login finger = Redfinger.finger(params[:session][:webfinger_address]) openid_url = finger.open_id.first.to_s #openid_url is now: ht~tp://www{dot}google{dot}com/profiles/{redacted} #Get needed info about the acquired OpenID login file_store = OpenID::Store::Filesystem.new("./noncedir/") consumer = OpenID::Consumer.new(session,file_store) response = consumer.begin(openid_url) #ERROR HAPPENS HERE #send user to OpenID login for verification redirect_to response.redirect_url('ht~tp://localhost{colon}3000/','ht~tp://localhost{colon}3000/sessions/complete') end def complete #interpret return parameters file_store = OpenID::Store::Filesystem.new("./noncedir/") consumer = OpenID::Consumer.new(session,file_store) response = consumer.complete params case response.status when OpenID::SUCCESS session[:openid] = response.identity_url #redirect somehwere here end end end Is it possible for me to use the URL I received from my WebFinger to log in with OpenID?

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  • Fixing up an entity framework query

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • A continued saga of C# interoprability with unmanaged C++

    - by Gilad
    After a day of banging my head against the wall both literally and metaphorically, I plead for help: I have an unmanaged C++ project, which is compiled as a DLL. Let's call it CPP Project. It currently works in an unmanaged environment. In addition, I have created a WPF project, that shall be called WPF Project. This project is a simple and currently almost empty project. It contains a single window and I want it to use code from Project 1. For that, I have created a CLR C++ project, which shall be called Interop Project and is also compiled as a DLL. For simplicity I will attach some basic testing code I have boiled down to the basics. CPP Project has the following two testing files: tester.h #pragma once extern "C" class __declspec(dllexport) NativeTester { public: void NativeTest(); }; tester.cpp #include "tester.h" void NativeTester::NativeTest() { int i = 0; } Interop Project has the following file: InteropLib.h #pragma once #include <tester.h> using namespace System; namespace InteropLib { public ref class InteropProject { public: static void Test() { NativeTester nativeTester; nativeTester.NativeTest(); } }; } Lastly, WPF Project has a single window refrencing Interop Project: MainWindow.xaml.cs using System; using System.Windows; using InteropLib; namespace AppGUI { public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); InteropProject.Test(); } } } And the XAML itself has an empty window (default created). Once I am trying to run the WPF project, I get the following error: System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: 'The invocation of the constructor on type 'AppGUI.MainWindow' that matches the specified binding constraints threw an exception.' Line number '3' and line position '9'. --- System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'InteropLib.dll' or one of its dependencies. The specified module could not be found. at AppGUI.MainWindow..ctor() Interestingly enough, if I do not export the class from CPP Project, I do not get this error. Say, if i change tester.h to: #pragma once class NativeTester { public: void NativeTest() { int i = 0; } }; However, in this case I cannot use my more complex classes. If I move my implementation to a cpp file like before, I get unresolved linkage errors due to my not exporting my code. The C++ code I want to actually use is large and has many classes and is object oriented, so I can't just move all my implementation to the h files. Please help me understand this horrific error I've been trying resolve without success. Thanks.

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  • Should I deal with files longer than MAX_PATH?

    - by John
    Just had an interesting case. My software reported back a failure caused by a path being longer than MAX_PATH. The path was just a plain old document in My Documents, e.g.: C:\Documents and Settings\Bill\Some Stupid FOlder Name\A really ridiculously long file thats really very very very..........very long.pdf Total length 269 characters (MAX_PATH==260). The user wasn't using a external hard drive or anything like that. This was a file on an Windows managed drive. So my question is this. Should I care? I'm not saying can I deal with the long paths, I'm asking should I. Yes I'm aware of the "\?\" unicode hack on some Win32 APIs, but it seems this hack is not without risk (as it's changing the behaviour of the way the APIs parse paths) and also isn't supported by all APIs . So anyway, let me just state my position/assertions: First presumably the only way the user was able to break this limit is if the app she used uses the special Unicode hack. It's a PDF file, so maybe the PDF tool she used uses this hack. I tried to reproduce this (by using the unicode hack) and experimented. What I found was that although the file appears in Explorer, I can do nothing with it. I can't open it, I can't choose "Properties" (Windows 7). Other common apps can't open the file (e.g. IE, Firefox, Notepad). Explorer will also not let me create files/dirs which are too long - it just refuses. Ditto for command line tool cmd.exe. So basically, one could look at it this way: a rouge tool has allowed the user to create a file which is not accessible by a lot of Windows (e.g. Explorer). I could take the view that I shouldn't have to deal with this. (As an aside, this isn't an vote of approval for a short max path length: I think 260 chars is a joke, I'm just saying that if Windows shell and some APIs can't handle 260 then why should I?). So, is this a fair view? Should I say "Not my problem"? Thanks! John

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