Search Results

Search found 23613 results on 945 pages for 'query parameters'.

Page 863/945 | < Previous Page | 859 860 861 862 863 864 865 866 867 868 869 870  | Next Page >

  • wordpress extended_valid_elements for script tag?

    - by John
    Can someone tell me how to tell Wordpress' tinymce editor to NOT strip out script tags? I looked in wp-admin/includes/post.php and added 'extended_valid_elements'=>'script[charset|defer|language|src|type]', to the $initArray. When I do a view source on the CMS post editor, I see taht it does show up like so: <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ tinyMCEPreInit = { base : "http://dev.esolar.ca/wp-includes/js/tinymce", suffix : "", query : "ver=327-1235", mceInit : {mode:"specific_textareas", editor_selector:"theEditor", width:"100%", theme:"advanced", skin:"wp_theme", theme_advanced_buttons1:"bold,italic,strikethrough,|,bullist,numlist,blockquote,|,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright,|,link,unlink,wp_more,|,spellchecker,fullscreen,wp_adv", theme_advanced_buttons2:"formatselect,underline,justifyfull,forecolor,|,pastetext,pasteword,removeformat,|,charmap,|,outdent,indent,|,undo,redo,wp_help", theme_advanced_buttons3:"", theme_advanced_buttons4:"", language:"en", spellchecker_languages:"+English=en,Danish=da,Dutch=nl,Finnish=fi,French=fr,German=de,Italian=it,Polish=pl,Portuguese=pt,Spanish=es,Swedish=sv", theme_advanced_toolbar_location:"top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align:"left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location:"bottom", theme_advanced_resizing:"1", theme_advanced_resize_horizontal:"", dialog_type:"modal", relative_urls:"", remove_script_host:"", convert_urls:"", apply_source_formatting:"", remove_linebreaks:"1", gecko_spellcheck:"1", entities:"38,amp,60,lt,62,gt", accessibility_focus:"1", tabfocus_elements:"major-publishing-actions", media_strict:"", paste_remove_styles:"1", paste_remove_spans:"1", paste_strip_class_attributes:"all", wpeditimage_disable_captions:"", plugins:"safari,inlinepopups,spellchecker,paste,wordpress,media,fullscreen,wpeditimage,wpgallery,tabfocus"}, load_ext : function(url,lang){var sl=tinymce.ScriptLoader;sl.markDone(url+'/langs/'+lang+'.js');sl.markDone(url+'/langs/'+lang+'_dlg.js');} }; /* ]]> */ </script> But for some reason ,my editor still doesn't save <script> tags. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • pass other form elements to ajax suggestion box script

    - by Alex Calder
    I paid somebody to build me a jQuery AJAX suggestion box script a while back. It works great. Now I'm trying to learn about it enough to modify it to do something different. Right now, the script that generates the suggestions just takes the query text and does the same check every time. Now, I want to be able to pass along additional info so different things are looked for with each instance of a search box. The HTML... simple, obvious. input class="suggest" name="q" type="text" autocomplete="off" / The jQuery looks like this: jQuery(document).ready(function() { $('.suggest').autocomplete( { source:'output.php', minLength:3, focus: function (event, ui) { $(event.target).val(ui.item.label); return false; } } ); [snip] } Instead of: source:'output.php', minLength:3, I'd like: source:'output.php?arg1=blah1&arg2=blah2', minLength:3, where arg1 and arg2 are passed along in the form... input class="suggest" name="q" type="text" autocomplete="off" / input type="hidden" name="arg1" value="blah1" input type="hidden" name="arg2" value="blah2" Does this make sense? Thanks guys. I know just about "this much" about OOL's and javascript, so I'm learning... Alex

    Read the article

  • SOAP Messages on iPhone

    - by CocoaNewBee
    Hello everyone !! I have to use several SOAP messages to get data from a web service. I got some examples how to do that but they all have the XML (http://icodeblog.com/2008/11/03/iphone-programming-tutorial-intro-to-soap-web-services/) // ---- LOGIN ----- NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap12:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap12=\"http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope\">\n" "<soap12:Body>\n" "<Login xmlns=\"http://tempuri.org/\">\n" "<sUserID>USER</sUserID>\n" "<sUserPw>PASSWORD</sUserPw>\n" "<sDomain>SERVER</sDomain>\n" "</Login>\n" "</soap12:Body>\n" "</soap12:Envelope>\n" ]; NSString *urlToSend = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"http://SERVER/DIRECTORY/WSDL_FILE.ASMX"]; NSString *callTOMake = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"http://WEBSERVER/Login"]; TWO questions: 1) Does it make sense to read the SOAP Message from a class or a file into xcode?? or sould I just define them thru the code ?? 2) I used SOAPUI & .NET to query the service. It works fine... but when I do it from the iphone simulator it returns the following: 2010-03-10 15:13:54.773 Hello_SOAP[91204:207] soap:ClientServer did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: http://WEBSERVER/DIRECTORY/Login How can I figure out what the issue is that's causing the said error on the simulator??

    Read the article

  • How Do I Escape Apostrophes in Field Valued in SQL Server?

    - by Mikecancook
    I asked a question a couple days ago about creating INSERTs by running a SELECT to move data to another server. That worked great until I ran into a table that has full on HTML and apostrophes in it. What's the best way to deal with this? Lucking there aren't too many rows so it is feasible as a last resort to 'copy and paste'. But, eventually I will need to do this and the table by that time will probably be way too big to copy and paste these HTML fields. This is what I have now: select 'Insert into userwidget ([Type],[UserName],[Title],[Description],[Data],[HtmlOutput],[DisplayOrder],[RealTime],[SubDisplayOrder]) VALUES (' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Type)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Username)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Title)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Description)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Data)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),HTMLOutput)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),DisplayOrder)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),RealTime)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),SubDisplayOrder)+'''','NULL') + ')' from userwidget Which is works fine except those pesky apostrophes in the HTMLOutput field. Can I escape them by having the query double up on the apostrophes or is there a way of encoding the field result so it won't matter?

    Read the article

  • jQuery ajax multiline "script" response

    - by Rendrik
    I'm designing a template creation tool, which uses a jQuery Ajax request that posts parameters to a PHP file. The PHP does the actual generation of the template's HTML. // Send for processing. Expect JS back to execute. function generate() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "generate.php", data: $('#genform :input').serialize(), dataType: "script", beforeSend: function() { $("#loading").html("<img src='images/loadbar.gif' />"); $("#loading") .dialog({ height: 80, width: 256, autoOpen: true, modal: true }); }, success: function(data) { $("#loading").dialog('close'); } }); } My trouble is that I have the ajax dataType: set to "script". Using this, the PHP file generates some jQuery dialogs for any errors which works nicely. However, after I generate the HTML, i'm having trouble passing it back. So I have probably 100 lines of generated HTML and javascript which i'd like to work with. In the PHP file, i've tried: echo('$("#result").html("'.$html.'");'); This does actually work if there are NO line breaks in $html. As soon as there are any line breaks, the Chrome debugger reports "gen.html:1 Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL". It's obvious that it's trying to eval the returned response headers, but is stopping at any line break. So, to be clear, when I pass $html back, if the contents are this: $html = "<div>hi there</div>"; It works fine (all of my error message dialogs are one line). But if it's: $html = "<div> hi there </div>"; It blows up. I'm really not sure how to get around this, or if there's a better way to go about it. It's important to me to keep the formatting so people can copy the HTML template. I may just break down and display the template file on the PHP page if I can't solve this, but I was really hoping to keep everything within the confines of the HTML page.

    Read the article

  • Who to select value from DropDown list in PHP???Problem

    - by sandy
    Hello .. I want to know the error in this code The following code retrieves the names of the members of the database query in the dropdownlist But how do I know who you selected.... I want to send messages only to the members that selected form dropdown list <?php include ("connect.php"); $name = $_POST['sector_list']; echo $name ; ?> <form method="POST" action="" > <input type="hidden" name="sector" value="sector_list"> <select name="sector_list" class="inputstandard"> <option size ="40" value="default">send to </option> <?php $result = mysql_query('select * from members ') or die (mysql_error()); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo '<option size ="40" value=" '. $row['MemberID'] . '" name="' . $row['MemberName']. '">' . $row['MemberName']. '</option>'; } ?> </select> </form> I hope somebody can help me

    Read the article

  • delete row from selected gridview and database

    - by user175084
    i am trying to delete a row from the gridview and database... It should be deleted if a delte linkbutton is clicked in the gridview.. I am gettin the row index as follows: protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { LinkButton btn = (LinkButton)sender; GridViewRow row = (GridViewRow)btn.NamingContainer; if (row != null) { LinkButton LinkButton1 = (LinkButton)sender; // Get reference to the row that hold the button GridViewRow gvr = (GridViewRow)LinkButton1.NamingContainer; // Get row index from the row int rowIndex = gvr.RowIndex; string str = rowIndex.ToString(); //string str = GridView1.DataKeys[row.RowIndex].Value.ToString(); RemoveData(str); //call the delete method } } now i want to delete it... so i am having problems with this code.. i get an error Must declare the scalar variable "@original_MachineGroupName"... any suggestions private void RemoveData(string item) { SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=JAGMIT-PC\SQLEXPRESS; Initial Catalog=SumooHAgentDB;Integrated Security=True"); string sql = "DELETE FROM [MachineGroups] WHERE [MachineGroupID] = @original_MachineGroupID; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, conn); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@original_MachineGroupID", item); conn.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); } Blockquote <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:SumooHAgentDBConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT MachineGroups.MachineGroupID, MachineGroups.MachineGroupName, MachineGroups.MachineGroupDesc, MachineGroups.TimeAdded, MachineGroups.CanBeDeleted, COUNT(Machines.MachineName) AS Expr1, DATENAME(month, (MachineGroups.TimeAdded - 599266080000000000) / 864000000000) + SPACE(1) + DATENAME(d, (MachineGroups.TimeAdded - 599266080000000000) / 864000000000) + ', ' + DATENAME(year, (MachineGroups.TimeAdded - 599266080000000000) / 864000000000) AS Expr2 FROM MachineGroups FULL OUTER JOIN Machines ON Machines.MachineGroupID = MachineGroups.MachineGroupID GROUP BY MachineGroups.MachineGroupID, MachineGroups.MachineGroupName, MachineGroups.MachineGroupDesc, MachineGroups.TimeAdded, MachineGroups.CanBeDeleted" DeleteCommand="DELETE FROM [MachineGroups] WHERE [MachineGroupID] =@original_MachineGroupID" > <DeleteParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="@original_MachineGroupID" Type="Int16" /> <asp:Parameter Name="@original_MachineGroupName" Type="String" /> <asp:Parameter Name="@original_MachineGroupDesc" Type="String" /> <asp:Parameter Name="@original_CanBeDeleted" Type="Boolean" /> <asp:Parameter Name="@original_TimeAdded" Type="Int64" /> </DeleteParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> I still get an error : Must declare the scalar variable "@original_MachineGroupID"

    Read the article

  • Two seperate tm structs mirroring each other

    - by BSchlinker
    Here is my current situation: I have two tm structs, both set to the current time I make a change to the hour in one of the structs The change is occurring in the other struct magically.... How do I prevent this from occurring? I need to be able to compare and know the number of seconds between two different times -- the current time and a time in the future. I've been using difftime and mktime to determine this. I recognize that I don't technically need two tm structs (the other struct could just be a time_t loaded with raw time) but I'm still interested in understanding why this occurs. void Tracker::monitor(char* buffer){ // time handling time_t systemtime, scheduletime, currenttime; struct tm * dispatchtime; struct tm * uiuctime; double remainingtime; // let's get two structs operating with current time dispatchtime = dispatchtime_tm(); uiuctime = uiuctime_tm(); // set the scheduled parameters dispatchtime->tm_hour = 5; dispatchtime->tm_min = 05; dispatchtime->tm_sec = 14; uiuctime->tm_hour = 0; // both of these will now print the same time! (0:05:14) // what's linking them?? // print the scheduled time printf ("Current Time : %2d:%02d:%02d\n", uiuctime->tm_hour, uiuctime->tm_min, uiuctime->tm_sec); printf ("Scheduled Time : %2d:%02d:%02d\n", dispatchtime->tm_hour, dispatchtime->tm_min, dispatchtime->tm_sec); } struct tm* Tracker::uiuctime_tm(){ time_t uiucTime; struct tm *ts_uiuc; // give currentTime the current time time(&uiucTime); // change the time zone to UIUC putenv("TZ=CST6CDT"); tzset(); // get the localtime for the tz selected ts_uiuc = localtime(&uiucTime); // set back the current timezone unsetenv("TZ"); tzset(); // set back our results return ts_uiuc; } struct tm* Tracker::dispatchtime_tm(){ time_t currentTime; struct tm *ts_dispatch; // give currentTime the current time time(&currentTime); // get the localtime for the tz selected ts_dispatch = localtime(&currentTime); // set back our results return ts_dispatch; }

    Read the article

  • Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

    - by user193655
    I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

    Read the article

  • AJAX contact form in CodeIgniter

    - by Ross
    Few questions: I'm using CI and JQuery AJAX. In my code below, I assemble dataString, which by default, is appended to the URL as a query string. I've changed the AJAX "type" to POST, so my question is - how do I access dataString in my CI app? It would seem I still have to use $name=$this->input->post('name') Which to me, makes setting dataString redundant? -- I've tried searching but can't really find anything concrete. Would it be possible to still make use of CIs validation library and AJAX? if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { // what can i return so that my CI app shows errors? } Normally you would reload the contact form or redirect the user. In an ideal world I would like the error messages to be shown to the user. Jquery: $(document).ready(function($){ $("#submit_btn").click(function(){ var name = $("input#name").val(); var company = $("input#company").val(); var email = $("input#email").val(); var phone = $("input#phone").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); var dataString = 'name=' + name + '&message=' + message + '&return_email=' + email + '&return_phone=' + phone + '&company=' + company; var response = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "newsite/contact_ajax/", data: dataString }).responseText; //$('#contact').hide(); //$('#contact').html('<h5>Form submitted! Thank you!</h5><h4>We will be in touch with you soon.</h4>'); //$('#contact').fadeIn('slow'); return false; }); }); hope i've been clear enough - if anyone has a decent example of a CI contact form that would be great. there's mixed stuff on the internet but nothing that hits all the boxes. thanks

    Read the article

  • Cached ObjectDataSource not firing Select Event even Cache Dependecy Removed

    - by John Polvora
    I have the following scenario. A Page with a DetailsView binded to an ObjectDatasource with cache-enabled. The SelectMethod is assigned at Page_Load event, depending on my User Level Logic. After assigned the selectMethod and Parameters for the ODS, if Cache not exists, then ODS will be cached the first time. The next time, the cache will be applied to the ODS and the select event don't need to be fired since the dataresult is cached. The problem is, the ODS Cache works fine, but I have a Refresh button to clear the cache and rebind the DetailsView. Am I doing correctly ? Below is my code. <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" EnableModelValidation="True" EnableViewState="False" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None"> </asp:DetailsView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" runat="server" SelectMethod="" TypeName="BL.BusinessLogic" EnableCaching="true"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="idCompany" Type="String" /> <SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton_Refresh" runat="server" OnClick="RefreshClick" ImageUrl="~/img/refresh.png" /> And here is the code behind public partial class Index : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = ""; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = ""; switch (this._loginData.UserLevel) //this is a struct I use for control permissions e pages behaviour { case OperNivel.SysAdmin: case OperNivel.SysOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "SystemSummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = "0"; break; } case OperNivel.CompanyAdmin: case OperNivel.CompanyOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "CompanySummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = this._loginData.UserLevel.ToString(); break; } default: break; } } protected void Page_LoadComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] == null) { this._loginData.LoginDatetime = DateTime.Now; Session["loginData"] = _loginData; Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] = _loginData; DetailsView1.DataBind(); } } protected void RefreshClick(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { Cache.Remove(ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency); } } Can anyone help me? The Select() Event of the ObjectDasource is not firing even I Remove the CacheKey Dependency

    Read the article

  • Values are not returning from MY SQL database to my java class

    - by sam
    Hi, This is my Query DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTSdiscoverdb.getuser_info$$ # MySQL returned an empty result set (i.e. zero rows). `CREATE PROCEDURE discoverdb.getuser_info ( IN name VARCHAR(100), IN pass VARCHAR(100) ) BEGIN SELECT * FROM ad_user WHERE sLogin = name AND sPassHash=password(pass); END $$ # MySQL returned an empty result set (i.e. zero rows). DELIMITER ; This is my calling method public Authentication getAuthentication (String username,String password) { //TODO write your implementation code here: Authentication ack = new Authentication(); try{ String simpleProc = "{ call getuser_infosam(?,?)}"; java.sql.CallableStatement cs = con.prepareCall(simpleProc); cs.setString(1, username); cs.setString(2, password); java.sql.ResultSet rs = cs.executeQuery(); while (rs.next()) { System.out.println(rs.getString("sLogin")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sPassHash")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sForename")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sName")); System.out.println(rs.getString("company")); System.out.println(rs.getString("sEmail")); rs.close();} }catch ( Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); System.out.print(e); } return ack; }

    Read the article

  • Rackspace Cloud rewrite jpg causes Session reset

    - by willoller
    This may be the .Net version of this question. I have an image script with the following: ... Response.WriteFile(filename); Response.End(); I am rewriting .jpg files using the following rewrite rule in web.config: <rule name="Image Redirect" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^product-images/(.*).jpg" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="\.(jp?g|JP?G)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="SeeOther" url="/product-images/ProductImage.aspx?path=product-images/{tolower:{R:1}}.jpg" /> </rule> It basically just rewrites the image path into a query parameter. The problem is that (intermittently of course) Mosso returns a new Asp Session cookie which breaks the whole world. Directly accessing a static .jpg file does not cause this problem. Directly accessing the image script does not cause it either. Only rewriting a .jpg file to the .aspx script causes the Session loss. Things I have tried (From the Rackspace doc How can I bypass the cache?) I added Private cacheability to the image script itself: Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); I tried adding these cache-disabling nodes to web.config: <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="DisableCache" /> </staticContent> and <httpProtocol> <customHeaders> <add name="Cache-Control private" value="Cache-Control private" </customHeaders> </httpProtocol> The Solution I need The browser cache cannot be disabled. This means potential solutions involving Cache.SetNoStore() or HttpCacheability.NoCache will not work.

    Read the article

  • Optimize website for touch devices

    - by gregers
    On a touch device like iPhone/iPad/Android it can be difficult to hit a small button with your finger. There is no cross-browser way to detect touch devices with CSS media queries that I know of. So I check if the browser has support for javascript touch events. Until now, other browsers haven't supported them, but the latest Google Chrome on dev channel enabled touch events (even for non touch devices). And I suspect other browser makers will follow, since laptops with touch screens are comming. This is the test I use: function isTouchDevice() { try { document.createEvent("TouchEvent"); return true; } catch (e) { return false; } } The problem is that this only tests if the browser has support for touch events, not the device. Does anyone know of The Correct[tm] way of giving touch devices better user experience? Other than sniffing user agent. Mozilla has a media query for touch devices. But I haven't seen anything like it in any other browser: https://developer.mozilla.org/En/CSS/Media_queries#-moz-touch-enabled Update: I want to avoid using a separate page/site for mobile/touch devices. The solution has to detect touch devices with object detection or similar from JavaScript, or include a custom touch-CSS without user agent sniffing! The main reason I asked, was to make sure it's not possible today, before I contact the css3 working group.

    Read the article

  • Modify the server side functions using jquery

    - by ant
    Hi, I am developing one website using cakephp and jquery technologies. Server-side there are some functions which handles sql queris. As per requirement I want to modify server side functions on client side using jquery AJAX call. E.g. : Below is the function on server side to modify users information. function modifyUser(username,userid) { //update query statements } Then jquery AJAX call will be like this : $.ajax({ url: 'users/modiyUser', success: function() { alert("Updation done") or any statements. } }); and I want to modify above i.e. server side function depending upon client input criteria. $.ajax({ function users/modiyUser(username,userid) { // I will write here any other statements which gives me some other output. } }); Above AJAX call syntax may not present, but i think you all understood what I am trying to do I simply wants to modify/override server side functions on client side. Please let me know is there any way to resolve above mentioned requirement. Thanks in adavance

    Read the article

  • Deploying ASP.Net MVC application

    - by a_m0d
    I've recently reached the stage where an ASP.net MVC application I am developing is ready to be deployed to the production server. I've worked out how to publish the application - I've got all the files on the server, and can access them over the internet. However, I can't work out how to deploy my database. The server has the SQL Server Management Studio Express installed, as the database used is a SQL Server Express database. I have the server instance up and running - I just don't know how to add the tables, etc. to the database. I have created the "CREATE TABLE" scripts on the development machine, but as far as I can see, Management Studio does not provide any way to actually run these scripts. I have looked through all the menu items that I could see, and none of them worked. Even using the "Create new query..." option and pasting the script in didn't work. When I try "File-Open..." and select a script to run, set the correct database from the dropdown list on the toolbar, and then execute the script, it complains about not finding the database file (even when I set the USE [...] statement to the correct path. Deleting the USE [...] statement, the script complains that it can't find the [dbo].[Invoices] object; however, it shouldn't be able to find it, because its trying to create it! tl;dr: What's the best way to make sure that the database on the production machine matches the database on my development machine?

    Read the article

  • Postgres error with Sinatra/Haml/DataMapper on Heroku

    - by sevennineteen
    I'm trying to move a simple Sinatra app over to Heroku. Migration of the Ruby app code and existing MySQL database using Taps went smoothly, but I'm getting the following Postgres error: PostgresError - ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...d_at", "post_id" FROM "comments" WHERE ("post_id" IN (4, 17,... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. It's evident that the problem is related to a type mismatch in the query, but this is being issued from a Haml template by the DataMapper ORM at a very high level of abstraction, so I'm not sure how I'd go about controlling this... Specifically, this seems to be throwing up on a call of p.comments from my Haml template, where p represents a given post. The Datamapper models are related as follows: class Post property :id, Serial ... has n, :comments end class Comment property :id, Serial ... belongs_to :post end This works fine on my local and current hosted environment using MySQL, but Postgres is clearly more strict. There must be hundreds of Datamapper & Haml apps running on Postgres DBs, and this model relationship is super-conventional, so hopefully someone has seen (and determined how to fix) this. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Jquery and PHP rating function problem

    - by Sergio
    I know that I was already posted similar question but I just can't find the answer and figure it out how to solve this problem. I'm trying to customize Jquery Star Rating plugin (link text) but I do not know what to do to show the message based on response of PHP script. Jquery script successfully send rating data to PHP scripts that query the database and based on that echo message of proper or improper rating. What should I add to an existing JS code so I can get echo from PHP and base on that write a message on some DIV beside rating star? Jquery: $('#gal').rating('gl.php?gal_no=<?=$gal_no;?>&id=<?=$id;?>', {maxvalue:10,increment:.5, curvalue: <?=$cur;?>}); Simplified PHP code: $br=mysql_query("SELECT count(gal) as total FROM ...") if ... { echo '0'; } else echo '1'; } Jquery code successfully transmitted data to PHP script and when the PHP done with checking data echo the result ('1' or '0'). How can I get this PHP result back to Jquery and based on them write a message? Something like: if(data=="1") { $("#error").show("fast").html('not correct').css({'background-color':'#F5F5F5','border-color' : '#F69'}); }else{ $("#error").show("fast").html('correct').css({'background-color' : '#FFF','border-color' : '#3b5998'}); } If someone has an idea...I would appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • How to Detect in Windows Registry if user has .Net Framework installed?

    - by Sarah Weinberger
    How do I detect in the Windows Registry if a user has .Net Framework installed? I am not looking for a .Net based solution, as the query is from InnoSetup. I know from reading another post here on Stack Overflow that .Net Framework is an inplace upgrade to 4.0. I already know how to check if a user has version 4.0 installed on the system, namely by checking the following: function FindFramework(): Boolean; var bVer4x0: Boolean; bVer4x0Client: Boolean; bVer4x0Full: Boolean; bSuccess: Boolean; iInstalled: Cardinal; begin Result := False; bVer4x0Client := False; bVer4x0Full := False; bVer4x0 := RegKeyExists(HKLM, 'SOFTWARE\Microsoft\.NETFramework\policy\v4.0'); bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Client', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Client := True; bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Full', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Full := True; if (True = bVer4x0Full) then begin Result := True; end; end; I checked the registry and there is no v4.5 folder, which makes sense if .Net Framework 4.5 is an inplace upgrade. Still, the Control Panel Programs and Features includes the listing. I know that probably "issuing dotNetFx45_Full_setup.exe /q" will have no bad effect if installing on a system that already has version 4.5, but I still would like to not install the upgrade if the upgrade already exists, faster and less problems.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

    - by Turro
    Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

    Read the article

  • How can I refactor this JavaScript code to avoid making functions in a loop?

    - by Bungle
    I wrote the following code for a project that I'm working on: var clicky_tracking = [ ['related-searches', 'Related Searches'], ['related-stories', 'Related Stories'], ['more-videos', 'More Videos'], ['web-headlines', 'Publication'] ]; for (var x = 0, length_x = clicky_tracking.length; x < length_x; x++) { links = document.getElementById(clicky_tracking[x][0]) .getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var y = 0, length_y = links.length; y < length_y; y++) { links[y].onclick = (function(name, url) { return function() { clicky.log(url, name, 'outbound'); }; }(clicky_tracking[x][1], links[y].href)); } } What I'm trying to do is: define a two-dimensional array, with each instance the inner arrays containing two elements: an id attribute value (e.g., "related-searches") and a corresponding description (e.g., "Related Searches"); for each of the inner arrays, find the element in the document with the corresponding id attribute, and then gather a collection of all <a> elements (hyperlinks) within it; loop through that collection and attach an onclick handler to each hyperlink, which should call clicky.log, passing in as parameters the description that corresponds to the id (e.g., "Related Searches" for the id "related-searches") and the value of the href attribute for the <a> element that was clicked. Hopefully that wasn't thoroughly confusing! The code may be more self-explanatory than that. I believe that what I've implemented here is a closure, but JSLint complains: http://img.skitch.com/20100526-k1trfr6tpj64iamm8r4jf5rbru.png So, my questions are: How can I refactor this code to make JSLint agreeable? Or, better yet, is there a best-practices way to do this that I'm missing, regardless of what JSLint thinks? Should I rely on event delegation instead? That is, attaching onclick event handlers to the document elements with the id attributes in my arrays, and then looking at event.target? I've done that once before and understand the theory, but I'm very hazy on the details, and would appreciate some guidance on what that would look like - assuming this is a viable approach. Thanks very much for any help!

    Read the article

  • Pls help working with Dropdownlist in scroll window.

    - by Rahul
    Hi all, Data is stored in the database table with the field document type and document id. And displayed in the scrollwindow, scrollwindow is editable. Data displayed like this: In scrollwindow dropdown items are quote, order, invoice etc. And suppose for Quote type document id is QTE100, and for order is ORD100 etc. In this format data is displayed in the scrollwindow. Here my query is at run time when user change the document type say for Quote to Order warning message should display like “This range is not valid”. And since the scrollwindow editable when user select any new document type from dropdown list system should allow to add that new document type and should not display any message. Pls somebody help me how can I achieve this???pls………pls…......pls For this I have written this code in dropdown document change event. Document Type Site_Scroll Document Type_CHG: warning "The range entered isn't valid."; clear window 'Document Type Site_Scroll'; fill window 'Document Type Site_Scroll' table sop_site_line_temp; But whenever I am changing any document from existing one getting the warning message like “This range is not valid” this is expected, but after changing when the window is filled again by temp table focus is setting to document type dropdown list. One more thing whenever I am going to select any new document type from document type I am getting the same warning message which is not expected, system should allow user to select new document type without giving any warning message. Pls….somebody give me some idea or pls modify my code….

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2005 Import from Excel

    - by user327045
    I'd like to know what my best option would be to import data from an excel file on a weekly or monthly basis. At first, I thought I would use SSIS, but after much struggle with seemingly simple tasks, I'm starting to rethink my plan. Would it be better/easier to just write the SQL by hand or use the services of an SSIS package? The basic process will be as follows: A separate process will download an .xls file to a local fileshare. The xls file will have a filename like: 'myfilename MON YY'. I will need to read the month and year from the the filename, reformat it to a sql date and then query a DimDate table to find the corresponding date key. For each row (after the first 2 header rows), insert the data with the date key, unless the row is a total row, then ignore. Here are some of the issues I've been encountering with SSIS: I can parse the date string from a flat file datasource, but can't seem to do it with an excel data source. Also, once parsed, i cannot seem to convert the string to a date in order to perform the lookup for the date key. For example, I want to do something like this: select DateKey from DimDate where ActualDate = convert(datetime, '01-' + 'JAN-10', 120) but i don't think it is possible to use the 'convert' or 'datetime' keywords in an expression builder. I have been also unable to find where I can edit the SQL to ignore the first 2 rows of data. I'm very skeptical of using SSIS because it seems like a Kludgy way of doing something that can probably be accomplished more efficiently writing the SQL yourself, but I may be forced to use SSIS. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • HTML5 <audio> Safari live broadcast vs not

    - by Peter Parente
    I'm attempting to embed an HTML5 audio element pointing to MP3 or OGG data served by a PHP file . When I view the page in Safari, the controls appear, but the UI says "Live Broadcast." When I click play, the audio starts as expected. Once it ends, however, I can't start it playing again by clicking play. Even using the JS API on the audio element and setting currentTime to 0 fails with an index error exception. I suspected the headers from the PHP script were the problem, particularly missing a content length. But that's not the case. The response headers include a proper Content- Length to indicate the audio has finite size. Furthermore, everything works as expected in Firefox 3.5+. I can click play on the audio element multiple times to hear the sound replay. If I remove the PHP script from the equation and serve up a static copy of the MP3 file, everything works fine in Safari. Does this mean Safari is treating audio src URLs with query parameters differently than URLs that don't have them? Anyone have any luck getting this to work? My simple example page is: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head></head> <body> <audio controls autobuffer> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.ogg" /> <source src="say.php?text=this%20is%20a%20test&format=.mp3" /> </audio> </body> </html> HTTP Headers from PHP script: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 15:39:34 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.10 Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=98 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg HTTP Headers from direct file access: HTTP/1.x 200 OK Date: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 20:06:59 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Sun, 03 Jan 2010 03:20:02 GMT Etag: "a404b-c3f-47c3a14937c80" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 8993 Keep-Alive: timeout=2, max=100 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: audio/mpeg I tried hard-coding the Accept-Ranges header into the script too, but no luck.

    Read the article

  • prolog - infinite rule

    - by Tom
    I have the next rules % Signature: natural_number(N)/1 % Purpose: N is a natural number. natural_number(0). natural_number(s(X)) :- natural_number(X) ackermann(0, N, s(N)). //rule 1 ackermann(s(M),0,Result):- ackermann(M,s(0),Result). //rule 2 ackermann(s(M),s(N),Result):-ackermann(M,Result1,Result),ackermann(s(M),N,Result1). //rule 3 The query is: ackermann (M,N,s(s(0))). Now, as I understood, In the third calculation, we got an infinite search (failture branch). I check it, and I got a finite search (failture branch). I'll explain: In the first, we got a substitue of M=0, N=s(0) (rule 1 - succsess!). In the second, we got a substitue of M=s(0),N=0 (rule 2 - sucsses!). But what now? I try to match M=s(s(0)) N=0, But it got a finite search - failture branch. Why the comipler doesn't write me "fail". Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 859 860 861 862 863 864 865 866 867 868 869 870  | Next Page >